What property of a function describes $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) == fleft(phi, zright)$?
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How would you describe a function that has the relationship $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) == fleft(phi, zright)$? given that $fleft(phi, xright)$ is idempotent (i.e., $fleft(fleft(phi, xright), xright) == fleft(phi, xright)$?
Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?
An application of this function can be seen in a programming language where a method object.SetProperty(x)
changes the state of the object. However, subsequent calls to SetProperty()
overwrites the existing state. Thus the following are considered equivalent:
object = new Object;
object.SetProperty(x);
object.SetProperty(y);
object.SetProperty(z);
and
object = new Object;
object.SetProperty(z);
abstract-algebra idempotents programming
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up vote
1
down vote
favorite
How would you describe a function that has the relationship $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) == fleft(phi, zright)$? given that $fleft(phi, xright)$ is idempotent (i.e., $fleft(fleft(phi, xright), xright) == fleft(phi, xright)$?
Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?
An application of this function can be seen in a programming language where a method object.SetProperty(x)
changes the state of the object. However, subsequent calls to SetProperty()
overwrites the existing state. Thus the following are considered equivalent:
object = new Object;
object.SetProperty(x);
object.SetProperty(y);
object.SetProperty(z);
and
object = new Object;
object.SetProperty(z);
abstract-algebra idempotents programming
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
How would you describe a function that has the relationship $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) == fleft(phi, zright)$? given that $fleft(phi, xright)$ is idempotent (i.e., $fleft(fleft(phi, xright), xright) == fleft(phi, xright)$?
Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?
An application of this function can be seen in a programming language where a method object.SetProperty(x)
changes the state of the object. However, subsequent calls to SetProperty()
overwrites the existing state. Thus the following are considered equivalent:
object = new Object;
object.SetProperty(x);
object.SetProperty(y);
object.SetProperty(z);
and
object = new Object;
object.SetProperty(z);
abstract-algebra idempotents programming
How would you describe a function that has the relationship $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) == fleft(phi, zright)$? given that $fleft(phi, xright)$ is idempotent (i.e., $fleft(fleft(phi, xright), xright) == fleft(phi, xright)$?
Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?
An application of this function can be seen in a programming language where a method object.SetProperty(x)
changes the state of the object. However, subsequent calls to SetProperty()
overwrites the existing state. Thus the following are considered equivalent:
object = new Object;
object.SetProperty(x);
object.SetProperty(y);
object.SetProperty(z);
and
object = new Object;
object.SetProperty(z);
abstract-algebra idempotents programming
edited Aug 9 at 20:47
6005
34.9k750123
34.9k750123
asked Aug 9 at 20:30
Stefan Novak
1134
1134
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add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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up vote
1
down vote
I think the property you are looking for is the following:
$$
f(f(phi, x),y) = f(phi,y) text for all x, y. tag1
$$
If $f$ satisfies (1), then this both implies that $f$ is idempotent (by your definition) and also implies your condition, $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) = fleft(phi, zright)$.
So, I think (1) is the condition you want. I am not aware of a name for this property, except that it is similar to something called a "right zero" or "right-absorbing-element". So, I would suggest that if $f$ satisfies (1), then you could call $f$ right-absorbing. This is meant to refer to the fact that the right-most applied argument $y$ "absorbs" the other applied argument $x$.
Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?
No, the property (1) is not true of all idempotent functions. For example, if $phi$ is a set and $f(phi, x)$ represents adding the element $x$ to $phi$ (phi.add(x)
), this is idempotent (because adding the same element twice to a set is the same as adding it once), but not right-absorbing (because adding $x$ and then adding $y$ isn't the same as just adding $y$).
Is it possible that $f$ could be idempotent and satisfy $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi, z)$ but not satisfy (1)?
â Dark Malthorp
Aug 9 at 20:55
@DarkMalthorp I think it is probably possible. So $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi,z)$ may be a weaker property than (1). The example given by the OP does satisfy (1), though.
â 6005
Aug 9 at 20:59
1
Thanks for providing the example in which a function could be idempotent but not right-absorbing.
â Stefan Novak
Aug 9 at 21:12
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
I have never heard of a particular name for that property in that context, however in probability there is the adjective memoryless which corresponds to this idea.
See Poisson / Exponential variables, as well as Markov processes.
Interesting idea! Although the underlying domain isn't related to Poisson/Markov processes, I think the term "memoryless" is adequate for the programming domain/context.
â Stefan Novak
Aug 9 at 21:09
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
I think the property you are looking for is the following:
$$
f(f(phi, x),y) = f(phi,y) text for all x, y. tag1
$$
If $f$ satisfies (1), then this both implies that $f$ is idempotent (by your definition) and also implies your condition, $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) = fleft(phi, zright)$.
So, I think (1) is the condition you want. I am not aware of a name for this property, except that it is similar to something called a "right zero" or "right-absorbing-element". So, I would suggest that if $f$ satisfies (1), then you could call $f$ right-absorbing. This is meant to refer to the fact that the right-most applied argument $y$ "absorbs" the other applied argument $x$.
Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?
No, the property (1) is not true of all idempotent functions. For example, if $phi$ is a set and $f(phi, x)$ represents adding the element $x$ to $phi$ (phi.add(x)
), this is idempotent (because adding the same element twice to a set is the same as adding it once), but not right-absorbing (because adding $x$ and then adding $y$ isn't the same as just adding $y$).
Is it possible that $f$ could be idempotent and satisfy $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi, z)$ but not satisfy (1)?
â Dark Malthorp
Aug 9 at 20:55
@DarkMalthorp I think it is probably possible. So $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi,z)$ may be a weaker property than (1). The example given by the OP does satisfy (1), though.
â 6005
Aug 9 at 20:59
1
Thanks for providing the example in which a function could be idempotent but not right-absorbing.
â Stefan Novak
Aug 9 at 21:12
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
I think the property you are looking for is the following:
$$
f(f(phi, x),y) = f(phi,y) text for all x, y. tag1
$$
If $f$ satisfies (1), then this both implies that $f$ is idempotent (by your definition) and also implies your condition, $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) = fleft(phi, zright)$.
So, I think (1) is the condition you want. I am not aware of a name for this property, except that it is similar to something called a "right zero" or "right-absorbing-element". So, I would suggest that if $f$ satisfies (1), then you could call $f$ right-absorbing. This is meant to refer to the fact that the right-most applied argument $y$ "absorbs" the other applied argument $x$.
Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?
No, the property (1) is not true of all idempotent functions. For example, if $phi$ is a set and $f(phi, x)$ represents adding the element $x$ to $phi$ (phi.add(x)
), this is idempotent (because adding the same element twice to a set is the same as adding it once), but not right-absorbing (because adding $x$ and then adding $y$ isn't the same as just adding $y$).
Is it possible that $f$ could be idempotent and satisfy $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi, z)$ but not satisfy (1)?
â Dark Malthorp
Aug 9 at 20:55
@DarkMalthorp I think it is probably possible. So $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi,z)$ may be a weaker property than (1). The example given by the OP does satisfy (1), though.
â 6005
Aug 9 at 20:59
1
Thanks for providing the example in which a function could be idempotent but not right-absorbing.
â Stefan Novak
Aug 9 at 21:12
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
I think the property you are looking for is the following:
$$
f(f(phi, x),y) = f(phi,y) text for all x, y. tag1
$$
If $f$ satisfies (1), then this both implies that $f$ is idempotent (by your definition) and also implies your condition, $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) = fleft(phi, zright)$.
So, I think (1) is the condition you want. I am not aware of a name for this property, except that it is similar to something called a "right zero" or "right-absorbing-element". So, I would suggest that if $f$ satisfies (1), then you could call $f$ right-absorbing. This is meant to refer to the fact that the right-most applied argument $y$ "absorbs" the other applied argument $x$.
Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?
No, the property (1) is not true of all idempotent functions. For example, if $phi$ is a set and $f(phi, x)$ represents adding the element $x$ to $phi$ (phi.add(x)
), this is idempotent (because adding the same element twice to a set is the same as adding it once), but not right-absorbing (because adding $x$ and then adding $y$ isn't the same as just adding $y$).
I think the property you are looking for is the following:
$$
f(f(phi, x),y) = f(phi,y) text for all x, y. tag1
$$
If $f$ satisfies (1), then this both implies that $f$ is idempotent (by your definition) and also implies your condition, $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) = fleft(phi, zright)$.
So, I think (1) is the condition you want. I am not aware of a name for this property, except that it is similar to something called a "right zero" or "right-absorbing-element". So, I would suggest that if $f$ satisfies (1), then you could call $f$ right-absorbing. This is meant to refer to the fact that the right-most applied argument $y$ "absorbs" the other applied argument $x$.
Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?
No, the property (1) is not true of all idempotent functions. For example, if $phi$ is a set and $f(phi, x)$ represents adding the element $x$ to $phi$ (phi.add(x)
), this is idempotent (because adding the same element twice to a set is the same as adding it once), but not right-absorbing (because adding $x$ and then adding $y$ isn't the same as just adding $y$).
answered Aug 9 at 20:44
6005
34.9k750123
34.9k750123
Is it possible that $f$ could be idempotent and satisfy $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi, z)$ but not satisfy (1)?
â Dark Malthorp
Aug 9 at 20:55
@DarkMalthorp I think it is probably possible. So $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi,z)$ may be a weaker property than (1). The example given by the OP does satisfy (1), though.
â 6005
Aug 9 at 20:59
1
Thanks for providing the example in which a function could be idempotent but not right-absorbing.
â Stefan Novak
Aug 9 at 21:12
add a comment |Â
Is it possible that $f$ could be idempotent and satisfy $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi, z)$ but not satisfy (1)?
â Dark Malthorp
Aug 9 at 20:55
@DarkMalthorp I think it is probably possible. So $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi,z)$ may be a weaker property than (1). The example given by the OP does satisfy (1), though.
â 6005
Aug 9 at 20:59
1
Thanks for providing the example in which a function could be idempotent but not right-absorbing.
â Stefan Novak
Aug 9 at 21:12
Is it possible that $f$ could be idempotent and satisfy $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi, z)$ but not satisfy (1)?
â Dark Malthorp
Aug 9 at 20:55
Is it possible that $f$ could be idempotent and satisfy $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi, z)$ but not satisfy (1)?
â Dark Malthorp
Aug 9 at 20:55
@DarkMalthorp I think it is probably possible. So $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi,z)$ may be a weaker property than (1). The example given by the OP does satisfy (1), though.
â 6005
Aug 9 at 20:59
@DarkMalthorp I think it is probably possible. So $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi,z)$ may be a weaker property than (1). The example given by the OP does satisfy (1), though.
â 6005
Aug 9 at 20:59
1
1
Thanks for providing the example in which a function could be idempotent but not right-absorbing.
â Stefan Novak
Aug 9 at 21:12
Thanks for providing the example in which a function could be idempotent but not right-absorbing.
â Stefan Novak
Aug 9 at 21:12
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
I have never heard of a particular name for that property in that context, however in probability there is the adjective memoryless which corresponds to this idea.
See Poisson / Exponential variables, as well as Markov processes.
Interesting idea! Although the underlying domain isn't related to Poisson/Markov processes, I think the term "memoryless" is adequate for the programming domain/context.
â Stefan Novak
Aug 9 at 21:09
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
I have never heard of a particular name for that property in that context, however in probability there is the adjective memoryless which corresponds to this idea.
See Poisson / Exponential variables, as well as Markov processes.
Interesting idea! Although the underlying domain isn't related to Poisson/Markov processes, I think the term "memoryless" is adequate for the programming domain/context.
â Stefan Novak
Aug 9 at 21:09
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
I have never heard of a particular name for that property in that context, however in probability there is the adjective memoryless which corresponds to this idea.
See Poisson / Exponential variables, as well as Markov processes.
I have never heard of a particular name for that property in that context, however in probability there is the adjective memoryless which corresponds to this idea.
See Poisson / Exponential variables, as well as Markov processes.
edited Aug 9 at 21:14
answered Aug 9 at 20:55
Arnaud Mortier
19.3k22159
19.3k22159
Interesting idea! Although the underlying domain isn't related to Poisson/Markov processes, I think the term "memoryless" is adequate for the programming domain/context.
â Stefan Novak
Aug 9 at 21:09
add a comment |Â
Interesting idea! Although the underlying domain isn't related to Poisson/Markov processes, I think the term "memoryless" is adequate for the programming domain/context.
â Stefan Novak
Aug 9 at 21:09
Interesting idea! Although the underlying domain isn't related to Poisson/Markov processes, I think the term "memoryless" is adequate for the programming domain/context.
â Stefan Novak
Aug 9 at 21:09
Interesting idea! Although the underlying domain isn't related to Poisson/Markov processes, I think the term "memoryless" is adequate for the programming domain/context.
â Stefan Novak
Aug 9 at 21:09
add a comment |Â
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