What property of a function describes $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) == fleft(phi, zright)$?

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How would you describe a function that has the relationship $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) == fleft(phi, zright)$? given that $fleft(phi, xright)$ is idempotent (i.e., $fleft(fleft(phi, xright), xright) == fleft(phi, xright)$?



Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?



An application of this function can be seen in a programming language where a method object.SetProperty(x) changes the state of the object. However, subsequent calls to SetProperty() overwrites the existing state. Thus the following are considered equivalent:



object = new Object;
object.SetProperty(x);
object.SetProperty(y);
object.SetProperty(z);


and



object = new Object;
object.SetProperty(z);






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    How would you describe a function that has the relationship $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) == fleft(phi, zright)$? given that $fleft(phi, xright)$ is idempotent (i.e., $fleft(fleft(phi, xright), xright) == fleft(phi, xright)$?



    Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?



    An application of this function can be seen in a programming language where a method object.SetProperty(x) changes the state of the object. However, subsequent calls to SetProperty() overwrites the existing state. Thus the following are considered equivalent:



    object = new Object;
    object.SetProperty(x);
    object.SetProperty(y);
    object.SetProperty(z);


    and



    object = new Object;
    object.SetProperty(z);






    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      How would you describe a function that has the relationship $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) == fleft(phi, zright)$? given that $fleft(phi, xright)$ is idempotent (i.e., $fleft(fleft(phi, xright), xright) == fleft(phi, xright)$?



      Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?



      An application of this function can be seen in a programming language where a method object.SetProperty(x) changes the state of the object. However, subsequent calls to SetProperty() overwrites the existing state. Thus the following are considered equivalent:



      object = new Object;
      object.SetProperty(x);
      object.SetProperty(y);
      object.SetProperty(z);


      and



      object = new Object;
      object.SetProperty(z);






      share|cite|improve this question














      How would you describe a function that has the relationship $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) == fleft(phi, zright)$? given that $fleft(phi, xright)$ is idempotent (i.e., $fleft(fleft(phi, xright), xright) == fleft(phi, xright)$?



      Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?



      An application of this function can be seen in a programming language where a method object.SetProperty(x) changes the state of the object. However, subsequent calls to SetProperty() overwrites the existing state. Thus the following are considered equivalent:



      object = new Object;
      object.SetProperty(x);
      object.SetProperty(y);
      object.SetProperty(z);


      and



      object = new Object;
      object.SetProperty(z);








      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 9 at 20:47









      6005

      34.9k750123




      34.9k750123










      asked Aug 9 at 20:30









      Stefan Novak

      1134




      1134




















          2 Answers
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          I think the property you are looking for is the following:
          $$
          f(f(phi, x),y) = f(phi,y) text for all x, y. tag1
          $$
          If $f$ satisfies (1), then this both implies that $f$ is idempotent (by your definition) and also implies your condition, $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) = fleft(phi, zright)$.



          So, I think (1) is the condition you want. I am not aware of a name for this property, except that it is similar to something called a "right zero" or "right-absorbing-element". So, I would suggest that if $f$ satisfies (1), then you could call $f$ right-absorbing. This is meant to refer to the fact that the right-most applied argument $y$ "absorbs" the other applied argument $x$.




          Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?




          No, the property (1) is not true of all idempotent functions. For example, if $phi$ is a set and $f(phi, x)$ represents adding the element $x$ to $phi$ (phi.add(x)), this is idempotent (because adding the same element twice to a set is the same as adding it once), but not right-absorbing (because adding $x$ and then adding $y$ isn't the same as just adding $y$).






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Is it possible that $f$ could be idempotent and satisfy $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi, z)$ but not satisfy (1)?
            – Dark Malthorp
            Aug 9 at 20:55










          • @DarkMalthorp I think it is probably possible. So $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi,z)$ may be a weaker property than (1). The example given by the OP does satisfy (1), though.
            – 6005
            Aug 9 at 20:59






          • 1




            Thanks for providing the example in which a function could be idempotent but not right-absorbing.
            – Stefan Novak
            Aug 9 at 21:12

















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          I have never heard of a particular name for that property in that context, however in probability there is the adjective memoryless which corresponds to this idea.



          See Poisson / Exponential variables, as well as Markov processes.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Interesting idea! Although the underlying domain isn't related to Poisson/Markov processes, I think the term "memoryless" is adequate for the programming domain/context.
            – Stefan Novak
            Aug 9 at 21:09










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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          1
          down vote













          I think the property you are looking for is the following:
          $$
          f(f(phi, x),y) = f(phi,y) text for all x, y. tag1
          $$
          If $f$ satisfies (1), then this both implies that $f$ is idempotent (by your definition) and also implies your condition, $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) = fleft(phi, zright)$.



          So, I think (1) is the condition you want. I am not aware of a name for this property, except that it is similar to something called a "right zero" or "right-absorbing-element". So, I would suggest that if $f$ satisfies (1), then you could call $f$ right-absorbing. This is meant to refer to the fact that the right-most applied argument $y$ "absorbs" the other applied argument $x$.




          Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?




          No, the property (1) is not true of all idempotent functions. For example, if $phi$ is a set and $f(phi, x)$ represents adding the element $x$ to $phi$ (phi.add(x)), this is idempotent (because adding the same element twice to a set is the same as adding it once), but not right-absorbing (because adding $x$ and then adding $y$ isn't the same as just adding $y$).






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Is it possible that $f$ could be idempotent and satisfy $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi, z)$ but not satisfy (1)?
            – Dark Malthorp
            Aug 9 at 20:55










          • @DarkMalthorp I think it is probably possible. So $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi,z)$ may be a weaker property than (1). The example given by the OP does satisfy (1), though.
            – 6005
            Aug 9 at 20:59






          • 1




            Thanks for providing the example in which a function could be idempotent but not right-absorbing.
            – Stefan Novak
            Aug 9 at 21:12














          up vote
          1
          down vote













          I think the property you are looking for is the following:
          $$
          f(f(phi, x),y) = f(phi,y) text for all x, y. tag1
          $$
          If $f$ satisfies (1), then this both implies that $f$ is idempotent (by your definition) and also implies your condition, $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) = fleft(phi, zright)$.



          So, I think (1) is the condition you want. I am not aware of a name for this property, except that it is similar to something called a "right zero" or "right-absorbing-element". So, I would suggest that if $f$ satisfies (1), then you could call $f$ right-absorbing. This is meant to refer to the fact that the right-most applied argument $y$ "absorbs" the other applied argument $x$.




          Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?




          No, the property (1) is not true of all idempotent functions. For example, if $phi$ is a set and $f(phi, x)$ represents adding the element $x$ to $phi$ (phi.add(x)), this is idempotent (because adding the same element twice to a set is the same as adding it once), but not right-absorbing (because adding $x$ and then adding $y$ isn't the same as just adding $y$).






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Is it possible that $f$ could be idempotent and satisfy $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi, z)$ but not satisfy (1)?
            – Dark Malthorp
            Aug 9 at 20:55










          • @DarkMalthorp I think it is probably possible. So $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi,z)$ may be a weaker property than (1). The example given by the OP does satisfy (1), though.
            – 6005
            Aug 9 at 20:59






          • 1




            Thanks for providing the example in which a function could be idempotent but not right-absorbing.
            – Stefan Novak
            Aug 9 at 21:12












          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          I think the property you are looking for is the following:
          $$
          f(f(phi, x),y) = f(phi,y) text for all x, y. tag1
          $$
          If $f$ satisfies (1), then this both implies that $f$ is idempotent (by your definition) and also implies your condition, $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) = fleft(phi, zright)$.



          So, I think (1) is the condition you want. I am not aware of a name for this property, except that it is similar to something called a "right zero" or "right-absorbing-element". So, I would suggest that if $f$ satisfies (1), then you could call $f$ right-absorbing. This is meant to refer to the fact that the right-most applied argument $y$ "absorbs" the other applied argument $x$.




          Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?




          No, the property (1) is not true of all idempotent functions. For example, if $phi$ is a set and $f(phi, x)$ represents adding the element $x$ to $phi$ (phi.add(x)), this is idempotent (because adding the same element twice to a set is the same as adding it once), but not right-absorbing (because adding $x$ and then adding $y$ isn't the same as just adding $y$).






          share|cite|improve this answer












          I think the property you are looking for is the following:
          $$
          f(f(phi, x),y) = f(phi,y) text for all x, y. tag1
          $$
          If $f$ satisfies (1), then this both implies that $f$ is idempotent (by your definition) and also implies your condition, $fleft(fleft(fleft(phi, xright), yright), zright) = fleft(phi, zright)$.



          So, I think (1) is the condition you want. I am not aware of a name for this property, except that it is similar to something called a "right zero" or "right-absorbing-element". So, I would suggest that if $f$ satisfies (1), then you could call $f$ right-absorbing. This is meant to refer to the fact that the right-most applied argument $y$ "absorbs" the other applied argument $x$.




          Is this simply a property of idempotent functions?




          No, the property (1) is not true of all idempotent functions. For example, if $phi$ is a set and $f(phi, x)$ represents adding the element $x$ to $phi$ (phi.add(x)), this is idempotent (because adding the same element twice to a set is the same as adding it once), but not right-absorbing (because adding $x$ and then adding $y$ isn't the same as just adding $y$).







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Aug 9 at 20:44









          6005

          34.9k750123




          34.9k750123











          • Is it possible that $f$ could be idempotent and satisfy $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi, z)$ but not satisfy (1)?
            – Dark Malthorp
            Aug 9 at 20:55










          • @DarkMalthorp I think it is probably possible. So $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi,z)$ may be a weaker property than (1). The example given by the OP does satisfy (1), though.
            – 6005
            Aug 9 at 20:59






          • 1




            Thanks for providing the example in which a function could be idempotent but not right-absorbing.
            – Stefan Novak
            Aug 9 at 21:12
















          • Is it possible that $f$ could be idempotent and satisfy $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi, z)$ but not satisfy (1)?
            – Dark Malthorp
            Aug 9 at 20:55










          • @DarkMalthorp I think it is probably possible. So $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi,z)$ may be a weaker property than (1). The example given by the OP does satisfy (1), though.
            – 6005
            Aug 9 at 20:59






          • 1




            Thanks for providing the example in which a function could be idempotent but not right-absorbing.
            – Stefan Novak
            Aug 9 at 21:12















          Is it possible that $f$ could be idempotent and satisfy $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi, z)$ but not satisfy (1)?
          – Dark Malthorp
          Aug 9 at 20:55




          Is it possible that $f$ could be idempotent and satisfy $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi, z)$ but not satisfy (1)?
          – Dark Malthorp
          Aug 9 at 20:55












          @DarkMalthorp I think it is probably possible. So $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi,z)$ may be a weaker property than (1). The example given by the OP does satisfy (1), though.
          – 6005
          Aug 9 at 20:59




          @DarkMalthorp I think it is probably possible. So $f(f(f(phi,x),y),z) = f(phi,z)$ may be a weaker property than (1). The example given by the OP does satisfy (1), though.
          – 6005
          Aug 9 at 20:59




          1




          1




          Thanks for providing the example in which a function could be idempotent but not right-absorbing.
          – Stefan Novak
          Aug 9 at 21:12




          Thanks for providing the example in which a function could be idempotent but not right-absorbing.
          – Stefan Novak
          Aug 9 at 21:12










          up vote
          1
          down vote













          I have never heard of a particular name for that property in that context, however in probability there is the adjective memoryless which corresponds to this idea.



          See Poisson / Exponential variables, as well as Markov processes.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Interesting idea! Although the underlying domain isn't related to Poisson/Markov processes, I think the term "memoryless" is adequate for the programming domain/context.
            – Stefan Novak
            Aug 9 at 21:09














          up vote
          1
          down vote













          I have never heard of a particular name for that property in that context, however in probability there is the adjective memoryless which corresponds to this idea.



          See Poisson / Exponential variables, as well as Markov processes.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Interesting idea! Although the underlying domain isn't related to Poisson/Markov processes, I think the term "memoryless" is adequate for the programming domain/context.
            – Stefan Novak
            Aug 9 at 21:09












          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          I have never heard of a particular name for that property in that context, however in probability there is the adjective memoryless which corresponds to this idea.



          See Poisson / Exponential variables, as well as Markov processes.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          I have never heard of a particular name for that property in that context, however in probability there is the adjective memoryless which corresponds to this idea.



          See Poisson / Exponential variables, as well as Markov processes.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 9 at 21:14

























          answered Aug 9 at 20:55









          Arnaud Mortier

          19.3k22159




          19.3k22159











          • Interesting idea! Although the underlying domain isn't related to Poisson/Markov processes, I think the term "memoryless" is adequate for the programming domain/context.
            – Stefan Novak
            Aug 9 at 21:09
















          • Interesting idea! Although the underlying domain isn't related to Poisson/Markov processes, I think the term "memoryless" is adequate for the programming domain/context.
            – Stefan Novak
            Aug 9 at 21:09















          Interesting idea! Although the underlying domain isn't related to Poisson/Markov processes, I think the term "memoryless" is adequate for the programming domain/context.
          – Stefan Novak
          Aug 9 at 21:09




          Interesting idea! Although the underlying domain isn't related to Poisson/Markov processes, I think the term "memoryless" is adequate for the programming domain/context.
          – Stefan Novak
          Aug 9 at 21:09












           

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