The Lie Algebra and Tangent Space proof in Brain Hall

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Corollary 3.46.
Suppose $G subset operatornameGL(n, mathbbC)$ is a matrix Lie group with Lie algebra $mathfrakg$.
Then a matrix $X$ is in $mathfrakg$ if and only if there exists a smooth curve $gamma$ in $operatornameM_n(mathbbC)$ with $gamma(t) in G$ for all $t$ and such that $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
Thus, $mathfrakg$ is the tangent space at the identity to $G$.



Proof.
If $X$ is in $mathfrakg$, then we may take $gamma(t) = e^tX$ and then $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
In the other direction, suppose that $gamma(t)$ is a smooth curve in $G$ with $gamma(0) = I$.
For all sufficiently small $t$, we can write $gamma(t) = e^delta(t)$, where $delta$ is a smooth curve in $mathfrakg$.
Now, the derivative of $delta(t)$ at $t = 0$ is the same as the derivative of $t mapsto t delta'(0)$ at $t = 0$.
Thus, by the chain rule, we have
$$
gamma'(0)
= left.
fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^delta(t)
right|_t=0
= left.
fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^t delta'(0)
right|_t=0
= delta'(0).
$$
Since $delta(t)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$ for all sufficiently small $t$, we conclude (as in the proof of Theorem 3.20) that $delta'(0) = gamma'(0)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$.



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The conclusion say $delta in mathfrakg implies delta'(0) in mathfrakg$. So why does the derivative belong to $frakg$ too?







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    Corollary 3.46.
    Suppose $G subset operatornameGL(n, mathbbC)$ is a matrix Lie group with Lie algebra $mathfrakg$.
    Then a matrix $X$ is in $mathfrakg$ if and only if there exists a smooth curve $gamma$ in $operatornameM_n(mathbbC)$ with $gamma(t) in G$ for all $t$ and such that $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
    Thus, $mathfrakg$ is the tangent space at the identity to $G$.



    Proof.
    If $X$ is in $mathfrakg$, then we may take $gamma(t) = e^tX$ and then $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
    In the other direction, suppose that $gamma(t)$ is a smooth curve in $G$ with $gamma(0) = I$.
    For all sufficiently small $t$, we can write $gamma(t) = e^delta(t)$, where $delta$ is a smooth curve in $mathfrakg$.
    Now, the derivative of $delta(t)$ at $t = 0$ is the same as the derivative of $t mapsto t delta'(0)$ at $t = 0$.
    Thus, by the chain rule, we have
    $$
    gamma'(0)
    = left.
    fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^delta(t)
    right|_t=0
    = left.
    fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^t delta'(0)
    right|_t=0
    = delta'(0).
    $$
    Since $delta(t)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$ for all sufficiently small $t$, we conclude (as in the proof of Theorem 3.20) that $delta'(0) = gamma'(0)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$.



    (Original image here.)




    The conclusion say $delta in mathfrakg implies delta'(0) in mathfrakg$. So why does the derivative belong to $frakg$ too?







    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite












      Corollary 3.46.
      Suppose $G subset operatornameGL(n, mathbbC)$ is a matrix Lie group with Lie algebra $mathfrakg$.
      Then a matrix $X$ is in $mathfrakg$ if and only if there exists a smooth curve $gamma$ in $operatornameM_n(mathbbC)$ with $gamma(t) in G$ for all $t$ and such that $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
      Thus, $mathfrakg$ is the tangent space at the identity to $G$.



      Proof.
      If $X$ is in $mathfrakg$, then we may take $gamma(t) = e^tX$ and then $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
      In the other direction, suppose that $gamma(t)$ is a smooth curve in $G$ with $gamma(0) = I$.
      For all sufficiently small $t$, we can write $gamma(t) = e^delta(t)$, where $delta$ is a smooth curve in $mathfrakg$.
      Now, the derivative of $delta(t)$ at $t = 0$ is the same as the derivative of $t mapsto t delta'(0)$ at $t = 0$.
      Thus, by the chain rule, we have
      $$
      gamma'(0)
      = left.
      fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^delta(t)
      right|_t=0
      = left.
      fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^t delta'(0)
      right|_t=0
      = delta'(0).
      $$
      Since $delta(t)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$ for all sufficiently small $t$, we conclude (as in the proof of Theorem 3.20) that $delta'(0) = gamma'(0)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$.



      (Original image here.)




      The conclusion say $delta in mathfrakg implies delta'(0) in mathfrakg$. So why does the derivative belong to $frakg$ too?







      share|cite|improve this question















      Corollary 3.46.
      Suppose $G subset operatornameGL(n, mathbbC)$ is a matrix Lie group with Lie algebra $mathfrakg$.
      Then a matrix $X$ is in $mathfrakg$ if and only if there exists a smooth curve $gamma$ in $operatornameM_n(mathbbC)$ with $gamma(t) in G$ for all $t$ and such that $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
      Thus, $mathfrakg$ is the tangent space at the identity to $G$.



      Proof.
      If $X$ is in $mathfrakg$, then we may take $gamma(t) = e^tX$ and then $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
      In the other direction, suppose that $gamma(t)$ is a smooth curve in $G$ with $gamma(0) = I$.
      For all sufficiently small $t$, we can write $gamma(t) = e^delta(t)$, where $delta$ is a smooth curve in $mathfrakg$.
      Now, the derivative of $delta(t)$ at $t = 0$ is the same as the derivative of $t mapsto t delta'(0)$ at $t = 0$.
      Thus, by the chain rule, we have
      $$
      gamma'(0)
      = left.
      fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^delta(t)
      right|_t=0
      = left.
      fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^t delta'(0)
      right|_t=0
      = delta'(0).
      $$
      Since $delta(t)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$ for all sufficiently small $t$, we conclude (as in the proof of Theorem 3.20) that $delta'(0) = gamma'(0)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$.



      (Original image here.)




      The conclusion say $delta in mathfrakg implies delta'(0) in mathfrakg$. So why does the derivative belong to $frakg$ too?









      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




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      edited Aug 23 at 10:13









      Jendrik Stelzner

      7,57221037




      7,57221037










      asked Aug 22 at 10:25









      Hawk

      5,27393699




      5,27393699




















          1 Answer
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          Since Lie algebra is a linear space, we suppose $v_1,v_2,cdots,v_n$ is a basis of $mathfrakg$.



          $delta(t)in mathfrakg$, so we have $delta(t)=sum_j=1^nf_j(t)v_j$.



          It's obvious that $delta'(t)|_t=0=sum_j=1^nf_j'(0)v_jin mathfrakg$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • So when we take the derivative, why doesn't that pass over to the basis elements $v_i$?
            – Hawk
            Aug 22 at 11:11










          • The basis element $v_i$ is a constant matrix. For example, $sl(2,mathbbR)=spanbeginpmatrix1&0\0&-1endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&0\1&0endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&1\0&0endpmatrix.$
            – W. mu
            Aug 22 at 11:16











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          up vote
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          Since Lie algebra is a linear space, we suppose $v_1,v_2,cdots,v_n$ is a basis of $mathfrakg$.



          $delta(t)in mathfrakg$, so we have $delta(t)=sum_j=1^nf_j(t)v_j$.



          It's obvious that $delta'(t)|_t=0=sum_j=1^nf_j'(0)v_jin mathfrakg$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • So when we take the derivative, why doesn't that pass over to the basis elements $v_i$?
            – Hawk
            Aug 22 at 11:11










          • The basis element $v_i$ is a constant matrix. For example, $sl(2,mathbbR)=spanbeginpmatrix1&0\0&-1endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&0\1&0endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&1\0&0endpmatrix.$
            – W. mu
            Aug 22 at 11:16















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Since Lie algebra is a linear space, we suppose $v_1,v_2,cdots,v_n$ is a basis of $mathfrakg$.



          $delta(t)in mathfrakg$, so we have $delta(t)=sum_j=1^nf_j(t)v_j$.



          It's obvious that $delta'(t)|_t=0=sum_j=1^nf_j'(0)v_jin mathfrakg$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • So when we take the derivative, why doesn't that pass over to the basis elements $v_i$?
            – Hawk
            Aug 22 at 11:11










          • The basis element $v_i$ is a constant matrix. For example, $sl(2,mathbbR)=spanbeginpmatrix1&0\0&-1endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&0\1&0endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&1\0&0endpmatrix.$
            – W. mu
            Aug 22 at 11:16













          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          Since Lie algebra is a linear space, we suppose $v_1,v_2,cdots,v_n$ is a basis of $mathfrakg$.



          $delta(t)in mathfrakg$, so we have $delta(t)=sum_j=1^nf_j(t)v_j$.



          It's obvious that $delta'(t)|_t=0=sum_j=1^nf_j'(0)v_jin mathfrakg$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Since Lie algebra is a linear space, we suppose $v_1,v_2,cdots,v_n$ is a basis of $mathfrakg$.



          $delta(t)in mathfrakg$, so we have $delta(t)=sum_j=1^nf_j(t)v_j$.



          It's obvious that $delta'(t)|_t=0=sum_j=1^nf_j'(0)v_jin mathfrakg$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Aug 22 at 10:54









          W. mu

          64019




          64019











          • So when we take the derivative, why doesn't that pass over to the basis elements $v_i$?
            – Hawk
            Aug 22 at 11:11










          • The basis element $v_i$ is a constant matrix. For example, $sl(2,mathbbR)=spanbeginpmatrix1&0\0&-1endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&0\1&0endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&1\0&0endpmatrix.$
            – W. mu
            Aug 22 at 11:16

















          • So when we take the derivative, why doesn't that pass over to the basis elements $v_i$?
            – Hawk
            Aug 22 at 11:11










          • The basis element $v_i$ is a constant matrix. For example, $sl(2,mathbbR)=spanbeginpmatrix1&0\0&-1endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&0\1&0endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&1\0&0endpmatrix.$
            – W. mu
            Aug 22 at 11:16
















          So when we take the derivative, why doesn't that pass over to the basis elements $v_i$?
          – Hawk
          Aug 22 at 11:11




          So when we take the derivative, why doesn't that pass over to the basis elements $v_i$?
          – Hawk
          Aug 22 at 11:11












          The basis element $v_i$ is a constant matrix. For example, $sl(2,mathbbR)=spanbeginpmatrix1&0\0&-1endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&0\1&0endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&1\0&0endpmatrix.$
          – W. mu
          Aug 22 at 11:16





          The basis element $v_i$ is a constant matrix. For example, $sl(2,mathbbR)=spanbeginpmatrix1&0\0&-1endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&0\1&0endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&1\0&0endpmatrix.$
          – W. mu
          Aug 22 at 11:16













           

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