The Lie Algebra and Tangent Space proof in Brain Hall
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Corollary 3.46.
Suppose $G subset operatornameGL(n, mathbbC)$ is a matrix Lie group with Lie algebra $mathfrakg$.
Then a matrix $X$ is in $mathfrakg$ if and only if there exists a smooth curve $gamma$ in $operatornameM_n(mathbbC)$ with $gamma(t) in G$ for all $t$ and such that $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
Thus, $mathfrakg$ is the tangent space at the identity to $G$.
Proof.
If $X$ is in $mathfrakg$, then we may take $gamma(t) = e^tX$ and then $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
In the other direction, suppose that $gamma(t)$ is a smooth curve in $G$ with $gamma(0) = I$.
For all sufficiently small $t$, we can write $gamma(t) = e^delta(t)$, where $delta$ is a smooth curve in $mathfrakg$.
Now, the derivative of $delta(t)$ at $t = 0$ is the same as the derivative of $t mapsto t delta'(0)$ at $t = 0$.
Thus, by the chain rule, we have
$$
gamma'(0)
= left.
fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^delta(t)
right|_t=0
= left.
fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^t delta'(0)
right|_t=0
= delta'(0).
$$
Since $delta(t)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$ for all sufficiently small $t$, we conclude (as in the proof of Theorem 3.20) that $delta'(0) = gamma'(0)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$.
(Original image here.)
The conclusion say $delta in mathfrakg implies delta'(0) in mathfrakg$. So why does the derivative belong to $frakg$ too?
proof-explanation lie-groups
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Corollary 3.46.
Suppose $G subset operatornameGL(n, mathbbC)$ is a matrix Lie group with Lie algebra $mathfrakg$.
Then a matrix $X$ is in $mathfrakg$ if and only if there exists a smooth curve $gamma$ in $operatornameM_n(mathbbC)$ with $gamma(t) in G$ for all $t$ and such that $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
Thus, $mathfrakg$ is the tangent space at the identity to $G$.
Proof.
If $X$ is in $mathfrakg$, then we may take $gamma(t) = e^tX$ and then $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
In the other direction, suppose that $gamma(t)$ is a smooth curve in $G$ with $gamma(0) = I$.
For all sufficiently small $t$, we can write $gamma(t) = e^delta(t)$, where $delta$ is a smooth curve in $mathfrakg$.
Now, the derivative of $delta(t)$ at $t = 0$ is the same as the derivative of $t mapsto t delta'(0)$ at $t = 0$.
Thus, by the chain rule, we have
$$
gamma'(0)
= left.
fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^delta(t)
right|_t=0
= left.
fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^t delta'(0)
right|_t=0
= delta'(0).
$$
Since $delta(t)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$ for all sufficiently small $t$, we conclude (as in the proof of Theorem 3.20) that $delta'(0) = gamma'(0)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$.
(Original image here.)
The conclusion say $delta in mathfrakg implies delta'(0) in mathfrakg$. So why does the derivative belong to $frakg$ too?
proof-explanation lie-groups
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
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Corollary 3.46.
Suppose $G subset operatornameGL(n, mathbbC)$ is a matrix Lie group with Lie algebra $mathfrakg$.
Then a matrix $X$ is in $mathfrakg$ if and only if there exists a smooth curve $gamma$ in $operatornameM_n(mathbbC)$ with $gamma(t) in G$ for all $t$ and such that $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
Thus, $mathfrakg$ is the tangent space at the identity to $G$.
Proof.
If $X$ is in $mathfrakg$, then we may take $gamma(t) = e^tX$ and then $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
In the other direction, suppose that $gamma(t)$ is a smooth curve in $G$ with $gamma(0) = I$.
For all sufficiently small $t$, we can write $gamma(t) = e^delta(t)$, where $delta$ is a smooth curve in $mathfrakg$.
Now, the derivative of $delta(t)$ at $t = 0$ is the same as the derivative of $t mapsto t delta'(0)$ at $t = 0$.
Thus, by the chain rule, we have
$$
gamma'(0)
= left.
fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^delta(t)
right|_t=0
= left.
fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^t delta'(0)
right|_t=0
= delta'(0).
$$
Since $delta(t)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$ for all sufficiently small $t$, we conclude (as in the proof of Theorem 3.20) that $delta'(0) = gamma'(0)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$.
(Original image here.)
The conclusion say $delta in mathfrakg implies delta'(0) in mathfrakg$. So why does the derivative belong to $frakg$ too?
proof-explanation lie-groups
Corollary 3.46.
Suppose $G subset operatornameGL(n, mathbbC)$ is a matrix Lie group with Lie algebra $mathfrakg$.
Then a matrix $X$ is in $mathfrakg$ if and only if there exists a smooth curve $gamma$ in $operatornameM_n(mathbbC)$ with $gamma(t) in G$ for all $t$ and such that $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
Thus, $mathfrakg$ is the tangent space at the identity to $G$.
Proof.
If $X$ is in $mathfrakg$, then we may take $gamma(t) = e^tX$ and then $gamma(0) = I$ and $mathrmdgamma/mathrmdt|_t=0 = X$.
In the other direction, suppose that $gamma(t)$ is a smooth curve in $G$ with $gamma(0) = I$.
For all sufficiently small $t$, we can write $gamma(t) = e^delta(t)$, where $delta$ is a smooth curve in $mathfrakg$.
Now, the derivative of $delta(t)$ at $t = 0$ is the same as the derivative of $t mapsto t delta'(0)$ at $t = 0$.
Thus, by the chain rule, we have
$$
gamma'(0)
= left.
fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^delta(t)
right|_t=0
= left.
fracmathrmdmathrmdt e^t delta'(0)
right|_t=0
= delta'(0).
$$
Since $delta(t)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$ for all sufficiently small $t$, we conclude (as in the proof of Theorem 3.20) that $delta'(0) = gamma'(0)$ belongs to $mathfrakg$.
(Original image here.)
The conclusion say $delta in mathfrakg implies delta'(0) in mathfrakg$. So why does the derivative belong to $frakg$ too?
proof-explanation lie-groups
edited Aug 23 at 10:13
Jendrik Stelzner
7,57221037
7,57221037
asked Aug 22 at 10:25
Hawk
5,27393699
5,27393699
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1 Answer
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Since Lie algebra is a linear space, we suppose $v_1,v_2,cdots,v_n$ is a basis of $mathfrakg$.
$delta(t)in mathfrakg$, so we have $delta(t)=sum_j=1^nf_j(t)v_j$.
It's obvious that $delta'(t)|_t=0=sum_j=1^nf_j'(0)v_jin mathfrakg$.
So when we take the derivative, why doesn't that pass over to the basis elements $v_i$?
â Hawk
Aug 22 at 11:11
The basis element $v_i$ is a constant matrix. For example, $sl(2,mathbbR)=spanbeginpmatrix1&0\0&-1endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&0\1&0endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&1\0&0endpmatrix.$
â W. mu
Aug 22 at 11:16
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
Since Lie algebra is a linear space, we suppose $v_1,v_2,cdots,v_n$ is a basis of $mathfrakg$.
$delta(t)in mathfrakg$, so we have $delta(t)=sum_j=1^nf_j(t)v_j$.
It's obvious that $delta'(t)|_t=0=sum_j=1^nf_j'(0)v_jin mathfrakg$.
So when we take the derivative, why doesn't that pass over to the basis elements $v_i$?
â Hawk
Aug 22 at 11:11
The basis element $v_i$ is a constant matrix. For example, $sl(2,mathbbR)=spanbeginpmatrix1&0\0&-1endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&0\1&0endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&1\0&0endpmatrix.$
â W. mu
Aug 22 at 11:16
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
Since Lie algebra is a linear space, we suppose $v_1,v_2,cdots,v_n$ is a basis of $mathfrakg$.
$delta(t)in mathfrakg$, so we have $delta(t)=sum_j=1^nf_j(t)v_j$.
It's obvious that $delta'(t)|_t=0=sum_j=1^nf_j'(0)v_jin mathfrakg$.
So when we take the derivative, why doesn't that pass over to the basis elements $v_i$?
â Hawk
Aug 22 at 11:11
The basis element $v_i$ is a constant matrix. For example, $sl(2,mathbbR)=spanbeginpmatrix1&0\0&-1endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&0\1&0endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&1\0&0endpmatrix.$
â W. mu
Aug 22 at 11:16
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Since Lie algebra is a linear space, we suppose $v_1,v_2,cdots,v_n$ is a basis of $mathfrakg$.
$delta(t)in mathfrakg$, so we have $delta(t)=sum_j=1^nf_j(t)v_j$.
It's obvious that $delta'(t)|_t=0=sum_j=1^nf_j'(0)v_jin mathfrakg$.
Since Lie algebra is a linear space, we suppose $v_1,v_2,cdots,v_n$ is a basis of $mathfrakg$.
$delta(t)in mathfrakg$, so we have $delta(t)=sum_j=1^nf_j(t)v_j$.
It's obvious that $delta'(t)|_t=0=sum_j=1^nf_j'(0)v_jin mathfrakg$.
answered Aug 22 at 10:54
W. mu
64019
64019
So when we take the derivative, why doesn't that pass over to the basis elements $v_i$?
â Hawk
Aug 22 at 11:11
The basis element $v_i$ is a constant matrix. For example, $sl(2,mathbbR)=spanbeginpmatrix1&0\0&-1endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&0\1&0endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&1\0&0endpmatrix.$
â W. mu
Aug 22 at 11:16
add a comment |Â
So when we take the derivative, why doesn't that pass over to the basis elements $v_i$?
â Hawk
Aug 22 at 11:11
The basis element $v_i$ is a constant matrix. For example, $sl(2,mathbbR)=spanbeginpmatrix1&0\0&-1endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&0\1&0endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&1\0&0endpmatrix.$
â W. mu
Aug 22 at 11:16
So when we take the derivative, why doesn't that pass over to the basis elements $v_i$?
â Hawk
Aug 22 at 11:11
So when we take the derivative, why doesn't that pass over to the basis elements $v_i$?
â Hawk
Aug 22 at 11:11
The basis element $v_i$ is a constant matrix. For example, $sl(2,mathbbR)=spanbeginpmatrix1&0\0&-1endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&0\1&0endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&1\0&0endpmatrix.$
â W. mu
Aug 22 at 11:16
The basis element $v_i$ is a constant matrix. For example, $sl(2,mathbbR)=spanbeginpmatrix1&0\0&-1endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&0\1&0endpmatrix,beginpmatrix0&1\0&0endpmatrix.$
â W. mu
Aug 22 at 11:16
add a comment |Â
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