How to prove well-foundedness of Cantorian Ordinals
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
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1
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I am probably misrepresenting history but the classical naive definition
of ordinals was as equivalence classes of well-ordered sets under
order-preserving bijections. The collection of such ordinals is well-ordered
under the order defined by order-preserving injections, being well-ordered
is the whole point of ordinals.
This approach was superseded by the familiar vonNeumann approach which
provides a canonical representation of the equivalence-class based
ordinals by using ordinals defined by insert-our-favourite-definition-of
an-ordinal as witnesses.
In the vonNeumann approach to ordinals there is not much to prove
because well-foundedness is essentially built into the definition
or inherited from regularity.
My question relates to how Cantor and his cohort proved the ordinals
were well-founded before the vonNeumann approach took over. How do
you show every nonempty set of ordinals has a minimum when dealing
with equivalence classes.
Translating I think the theorem becomes - Let $mathcalB$
be a nonempty set of well-ordered sets then there exists a well-ordered
set $M$ and an $AinmathcalB$ such $Msimeq A$ and for every
$BinmathcalB$ there is an order-preserving injection from $A$
to $B$.
Can someone give me a clue for a proof, or tell me if the question
even makes sense? I believe Cantor would have proved this without
the axiom of choice?
set-theory
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
I am probably misrepresenting history but the classical naive definition
of ordinals was as equivalence classes of well-ordered sets under
order-preserving bijections. The collection of such ordinals is well-ordered
under the order defined by order-preserving injections, being well-ordered
is the whole point of ordinals.
This approach was superseded by the familiar vonNeumann approach which
provides a canonical representation of the equivalence-class based
ordinals by using ordinals defined by insert-our-favourite-definition-of
an-ordinal as witnesses.
In the vonNeumann approach to ordinals there is not much to prove
because well-foundedness is essentially built into the definition
or inherited from regularity.
My question relates to how Cantor and his cohort proved the ordinals
were well-founded before the vonNeumann approach took over. How do
you show every nonempty set of ordinals has a minimum when dealing
with equivalence classes.
Translating I think the theorem becomes - Let $mathcalB$
be a nonempty set of well-ordered sets then there exists a well-ordered
set $M$ and an $AinmathcalB$ such $Msimeq A$ and for every
$BinmathcalB$ there is an order-preserving injection from $A$
to $B$.
Can someone give me a clue for a proof, or tell me if the question
even makes sense? I believe Cantor would have proved this without
the axiom of choice?
set-theory
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
I am probably misrepresenting history but the classical naive definition
of ordinals was as equivalence classes of well-ordered sets under
order-preserving bijections. The collection of such ordinals is well-ordered
under the order defined by order-preserving injections, being well-ordered
is the whole point of ordinals.
This approach was superseded by the familiar vonNeumann approach which
provides a canonical representation of the equivalence-class based
ordinals by using ordinals defined by insert-our-favourite-definition-of
an-ordinal as witnesses.
In the vonNeumann approach to ordinals there is not much to prove
because well-foundedness is essentially built into the definition
or inherited from regularity.
My question relates to how Cantor and his cohort proved the ordinals
were well-founded before the vonNeumann approach took over. How do
you show every nonempty set of ordinals has a minimum when dealing
with equivalence classes.
Translating I think the theorem becomes - Let $mathcalB$
be a nonempty set of well-ordered sets then there exists a well-ordered
set $M$ and an $AinmathcalB$ such $Msimeq A$ and for every
$BinmathcalB$ there is an order-preserving injection from $A$
to $B$.
Can someone give me a clue for a proof, or tell me if the question
even makes sense? I believe Cantor would have proved this without
the axiom of choice?
set-theory
I am probably misrepresenting history but the classical naive definition
of ordinals was as equivalence classes of well-ordered sets under
order-preserving bijections. The collection of such ordinals is well-ordered
under the order defined by order-preserving injections, being well-ordered
is the whole point of ordinals.
This approach was superseded by the familiar vonNeumann approach which
provides a canonical representation of the equivalence-class based
ordinals by using ordinals defined by insert-our-favourite-definition-of
an-ordinal as witnesses.
In the vonNeumann approach to ordinals there is not much to prove
because well-foundedness is essentially built into the definition
or inherited from regularity.
My question relates to how Cantor and his cohort proved the ordinals
were well-founded before the vonNeumann approach took over. How do
you show every nonempty set of ordinals has a minimum when dealing
with equivalence classes.
Translating I think the theorem becomes - Let $mathcalB$
be a nonempty set of well-ordered sets then there exists a well-ordered
set $M$ and an $AinmathcalB$ such $Msimeq A$ and for every
$BinmathcalB$ there is an order-preserving injection from $A$
to $B$.
Can someone give me a clue for a proof, or tell me if the question
even makes sense? I believe Cantor would have proved this without
the axiom of choice?
set-theory
asked Aug 22 at 6:50
Mark Kortink
1485
1485
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
I don't know how Cantor would have done it, but we can "locally" construct canonical representatives by embedding everything from $mathcalB$ into an upper bound, such as the supremum. So, there exists
- A well-ordered set $sup(mathcalB)$
- For each $A in mathcalB$, an order preserving map $I_A : A to sup(mathcalB)$ identifying $A$ with an initial segment of $sup(mathcalB)$.
- $sup(mathcalB) = cup_A mathrmimage(I_A) mid A in mathcalB $
By this device, we can construct a new set
$$mathcalB' = mathrmimage(I_A) mid A in mathcalB $$
If we are asking questions depending only on order types, then we can answer questions about $mathcalB$ by translating them into questions about $mathcalB'$.
(I've omitted dealing with technicalities regarding the case where $mathcalB$ has equivalent objects, since they are irrelevant to the given question, and IMO they are relatively straightforward but tedious)
The supremum can be constructed by the following device.
Recall that any two well-ordered sets are comparable. Furthermore, if $A leq B$, then there is a (unique!) order preserving map $I_AB: A to B$ identifying $A$ with an initial segment of $B$.
First, let $S$ be the disjoint union; that is,
$$ S = (A,a) mid a in A wedge A in mathcalB $$
and define a preordering
$$ (A,a) leq (B,b) Longleftrightarrow
begincases I_AB(a) leq b & A leq B
\ a leq I_BA(b) & B leq A endcases $$
Then we can take $sup(mathcalB)$ to be the equivalence classes of $S$, where $x equiv y$ iff $x leq y$ and $y leq x$.
$leq$ will be a well-order on $sup(mathcalB)$.
Thanks Hurkyl for your comprehensive answer. I will work my way through it :)
â Mark Kortink
Aug 22 at 22:16
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
For any well-orders $C,D$ let $Csim D$ mean that $C,D$ are order-isomorphic.
Let $<_C$ be a well-order on $C.$ An initial segment of $C$ is $pin C:p<_C q$ for some $qin C,$ well-ordered by $<_C.$
Let $mathbb B$ be a non-empty family of well-ordered sets. For each $Cin mathbb B,$ if no initial segment of $C$ is order-isomorphic to a member of $mathbb B$ then let $f(C)=C.$ Otherwise let $f(C)=pin C:p<_Cq$ where $q$ is the $<_C$-least $yin C$ such that some $Din mathbb B$ satisfies $Dsim pin C:p<_Cy.$
$(bullet).$ If $X $ is an initial segment of $f(C)$ then $X$ is also an initial segment of $C,$ and no $Ein mathbb B$ satisfies $Esim X.$
Claim. $f(C) sim f(D)$ for all $C,Din mathbb B.$
Proof. Suppose not. WLOG there is an order-isomorphism $g:f(D)to X$ where $X$ is an initial segment of $f(C). $ But there exists $Ein mathbb B$ and an order-isomorphism $psi:Eto f(D).$ Then the composite function $(gpsi):Eto X$ is an order-isomorphism, contrary to $(bullet).$
So take some (any) $Cin mathbb B$ and some (any) $Ain mathbb B$ such that $Asim f(C).$ Then for every $Din mathbb B,$ either $A sim D=f(D)$ or $A$ is order-isomorphic to the initial segment $f(D)$ of $D.$
BTW. The trichotomy rule for well-orders does not require AC.
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 27 at 1:56
In "Set Theory: An Introduction To Independence Proofs" by K.Kunen, an initial segment $pin C:p<_Cq$ is denoted $text pred(q$) or pred$_C(q)$ or pred$_<_C(q)$. ("pred" for predecessors.)
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 27 at 2:04
Great answer @DanielWainfleet thanks
â Mark Kortink
Aug 28 at 21:59
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
I don't know how Cantor would have done it, but we can "locally" construct canonical representatives by embedding everything from $mathcalB$ into an upper bound, such as the supremum. So, there exists
- A well-ordered set $sup(mathcalB)$
- For each $A in mathcalB$, an order preserving map $I_A : A to sup(mathcalB)$ identifying $A$ with an initial segment of $sup(mathcalB)$.
- $sup(mathcalB) = cup_A mathrmimage(I_A) mid A in mathcalB $
By this device, we can construct a new set
$$mathcalB' = mathrmimage(I_A) mid A in mathcalB $$
If we are asking questions depending only on order types, then we can answer questions about $mathcalB$ by translating them into questions about $mathcalB'$.
(I've omitted dealing with technicalities regarding the case where $mathcalB$ has equivalent objects, since they are irrelevant to the given question, and IMO they are relatively straightforward but tedious)
The supremum can be constructed by the following device.
Recall that any two well-ordered sets are comparable. Furthermore, if $A leq B$, then there is a (unique!) order preserving map $I_AB: A to B$ identifying $A$ with an initial segment of $B$.
First, let $S$ be the disjoint union; that is,
$$ S = (A,a) mid a in A wedge A in mathcalB $$
and define a preordering
$$ (A,a) leq (B,b) Longleftrightarrow
begincases I_AB(a) leq b & A leq B
\ a leq I_BA(b) & B leq A endcases $$
Then we can take $sup(mathcalB)$ to be the equivalence classes of $S$, where $x equiv y$ iff $x leq y$ and $y leq x$.
$leq$ will be a well-order on $sup(mathcalB)$.
Thanks Hurkyl for your comprehensive answer. I will work my way through it :)
â Mark Kortink
Aug 22 at 22:16
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
I don't know how Cantor would have done it, but we can "locally" construct canonical representatives by embedding everything from $mathcalB$ into an upper bound, such as the supremum. So, there exists
- A well-ordered set $sup(mathcalB)$
- For each $A in mathcalB$, an order preserving map $I_A : A to sup(mathcalB)$ identifying $A$ with an initial segment of $sup(mathcalB)$.
- $sup(mathcalB) = cup_A mathrmimage(I_A) mid A in mathcalB $
By this device, we can construct a new set
$$mathcalB' = mathrmimage(I_A) mid A in mathcalB $$
If we are asking questions depending only on order types, then we can answer questions about $mathcalB$ by translating them into questions about $mathcalB'$.
(I've omitted dealing with technicalities regarding the case where $mathcalB$ has equivalent objects, since they are irrelevant to the given question, and IMO they are relatively straightforward but tedious)
The supremum can be constructed by the following device.
Recall that any two well-ordered sets are comparable. Furthermore, if $A leq B$, then there is a (unique!) order preserving map $I_AB: A to B$ identifying $A$ with an initial segment of $B$.
First, let $S$ be the disjoint union; that is,
$$ S = (A,a) mid a in A wedge A in mathcalB $$
and define a preordering
$$ (A,a) leq (B,b) Longleftrightarrow
begincases I_AB(a) leq b & A leq B
\ a leq I_BA(b) & B leq A endcases $$
Then we can take $sup(mathcalB)$ to be the equivalence classes of $S$, where $x equiv y$ iff $x leq y$ and $y leq x$.
$leq$ will be a well-order on $sup(mathcalB)$.
Thanks Hurkyl for your comprehensive answer. I will work my way through it :)
â Mark Kortink
Aug 22 at 22:16
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
I don't know how Cantor would have done it, but we can "locally" construct canonical representatives by embedding everything from $mathcalB$ into an upper bound, such as the supremum. So, there exists
- A well-ordered set $sup(mathcalB)$
- For each $A in mathcalB$, an order preserving map $I_A : A to sup(mathcalB)$ identifying $A$ with an initial segment of $sup(mathcalB)$.
- $sup(mathcalB) = cup_A mathrmimage(I_A) mid A in mathcalB $
By this device, we can construct a new set
$$mathcalB' = mathrmimage(I_A) mid A in mathcalB $$
If we are asking questions depending only on order types, then we can answer questions about $mathcalB$ by translating them into questions about $mathcalB'$.
(I've omitted dealing with technicalities regarding the case where $mathcalB$ has equivalent objects, since they are irrelevant to the given question, and IMO they are relatively straightforward but tedious)
The supremum can be constructed by the following device.
Recall that any two well-ordered sets are comparable. Furthermore, if $A leq B$, then there is a (unique!) order preserving map $I_AB: A to B$ identifying $A$ with an initial segment of $B$.
First, let $S$ be the disjoint union; that is,
$$ S = (A,a) mid a in A wedge A in mathcalB $$
and define a preordering
$$ (A,a) leq (B,b) Longleftrightarrow
begincases I_AB(a) leq b & A leq B
\ a leq I_BA(b) & B leq A endcases $$
Then we can take $sup(mathcalB)$ to be the equivalence classes of $S$, where $x equiv y$ iff $x leq y$ and $y leq x$.
$leq$ will be a well-order on $sup(mathcalB)$.
I don't know how Cantor would have done it, but we can "locally" construct canonical representatives by embedding everything from $mathcalB$ into an upper bound, such as the supremum. So, there exists
- A well-ordered set $sup(mathcalB)$
- For each $A in mathcalB$, an order preserving map $I_A : A to sup(mathcalB)$ identifying $A$ with an initial segment of $sup(mathcalB)$.
- $sup(mathcalB) = cup_A mathrmimage(I_A) mid A in mathcalB $
By this device, we can construct a new set
$$mathcalB' = mathrmimage(I_A) mid A in mathcalB $$
If we are asking questions depending only on order types, then we can answer questions about $mathcalB$ by translating them into questions about $mathcalB'$.
(I've omitted dealing with technicalities regarding the case where $mathcalB$ has equivalent objects, since they are irrelevant to the given question, and IMO they are relatively straightforward but tedious)
The supremum can be constructed by the following device.
Recall that any two well-ordered sets are comparable. Furthermore, if $A leq B$, then there is a (unique!) order preserving map $I_AB: A to B$ identifying $A$ with an initial segment of $B$.
First, let $S$ be the disjoint union; that is,
$$ S = (A,a) mid a in A wedge A in mathcalB $$
and define a preordering
$$ (A,a) leq (B,b) Longleftrightarrow
begincases I_AB(a) leq b & A leq B
\ a leq I_BA(b) & B leq A endcases $$
Then we can take $sup(mathcalB)$ to be the equivalence classes of $S$, where $x equiv y$ iff $x leq y$ and $y leq x$.
$leq$ will be a well-order on $sup(mathcalB)$.
edited Aug 22 at 7:25
answered Aug 22 at 7:17
Hurkyl
109k9113254
109k9113254
Thanks Hurkyl for your comprehensive answer. I will work my way through it :)
â Mark Kortink
Aug 22 at 22:16
add a comment |Â
Thanks Hurkyl for your comprehensive answer. I will work my way through it :)
â Mark Kortink
Aug 22 at 22:16
Thanks Hurkyl for your comprehensive answer. I will work my way through it :)
â Mark Kortink
Aug 22 at 22:16
Thanks Hurkyl for your comprehensive answer. I will work my way through it :)
â Mark Kortink
Aug 22 at 22:16
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
For any well-orders $C,D$ let $Csim D$ mean that $C,D$ are order-isomorphic.
Let $<_C$ be a well-order on $C.$ An initial segment of $C$ is $pin C:p<_C q$ for some $qin C,$ well-ordered by $<_C.$
Let $mathbb B$ be a non-empty family of well-ordered sets. For each $Cin mathbb B,$ if no initial segment of $C$ is order-isomorphic to a member of $mathbb B$ then let $f(C)=C.$ Otherwise let $f(C)=pin C:p<_Cq$ where $q$ is the $<_C$-least $yin C$ such that some $Din mathbb B$ satisfies $Dsim pin C:p<_Cy.$
$(bullet).$ If $X $ is an initial segment of $f(C)$ then $X$ is also an initial segment of $C,$ and no $Ein mathbb B$ satisfies $Esim X.$
Claim. $f(C) sim f(D)$ for all $C,Din mathbb B.$
Proof. Suppose not. WLOG there is an order-isomorphism $g:f(D)to X$ where $X$ is an initial segment of $f(C). $ But there exists $Ein mathbb B$ and an order-isomorphism $psi:Eto f(D).$ Then the composite function $(gpsi):Eto X$ is an order-isomorphism, contrary to $(bullet).$
So take some (any) $Cin mathbb B$ and some (any) $Ain mathbb B$ such that $Asim f(C).$ Then for every $Din mathbb B,$ either $A sim D=f(D)$ or $A$ is order-isomorphic to the initial segment $f(D)$ of $D.$
BTW. The trichotomy rule for well-orders does not require AC.
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 27 at 1:56
In "Set Theory: An Introduction To Independence Proofs" by K.Kunen, an initial segment $pin C:p<_Cq$ is denoted $text pred(q$) or pred$_C(q)$ or pred$_<_C(q)$. ("pred" for predecessors.)
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 27 at 2:04
Great answer @DanielWainfleet thanks
â Mark Kortink
Aug 28 at 21:59
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
For any well-orders $C,D$ let $Csim D$ mean that $C,D$ are order-isomorphic.
Let $<_C$ be a well-order on $C.$ An initial segment of $C$ is $pin C:p<_C q$ for some $qin C,$ well-ordered by $<_C.$
Let $mathbb B$ be a non-empty family of well-ordered sets. For each $Cin mathbb B,$ if no initial segment of $C$ is order-isomorphic to a member of $mathbb B$ then let $f(C)=C.$ Otherwise let $f(C)=pin C:p<_Cq$ where $q$ is the $<_C$-least $yin C$ such that some $Din mathbb B$ satisfies $Dsim pin C:p<_Cy.$
$(bullet).$ If $X $ is an initial segment of $f(C)$ then $X$ is also an initial segment of $C,$ and no $Ein mathbb B$ satisfies $Esim X.$
Claim. $f(C) sim f(D)$ for all $C,Din mathbb B.$
Proof. Suppose not. WLOG there is an order-isomorphism $g:f(D)to X$ where $X$ is an initial segment of $f(C). $ But there exists $Ein mathbb B$ and an order-isomorphism $psi:Eto f(D).$ Then the composite function $(gpsi):Eto X$ is an order-isomorphism, contrary to $(bullet).$
So take some (any) $Cin mathbb B$ and some (any) $Ain mathbb B$ such that $Asim f(C).$ Then for every $Din mathbb B,$ either $A sim D=f(D)$ or $A$ is order-isomorphic to the initial segment $f(D)$ of $D.$
BTW. The trichotomy rule for well-orders does not require AC.
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 27 at 1:56
In "Set Theory: An Introduction To Independence Proofs" by K.Kunen, an initial segment $pin C:p<_Cq$ is denoted $text pred(q$) or pred$_C(q)$ or pred$_<_C(q)$. ("pred" for predecessors.)
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 27 at 2:04
Great answer @DanielWainfleet thanks
â Mark Kortink
Aug 28 at 21:59
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
For any well-orders $C,D$ let $Csim D$ mean that $C,D$ are order-isomorphic.
Let $<_C$ be a well-order on $C.$ An initial segment of $C$ is $pin C:p<_C q$ for some $qin C,$ well-ordered by $<_C.$
Let $mathbb B$ be a non-empty family of well-ordered sets. For each $Cin mathbb B,$ if no initial segment of $C$ is order-isomorphic to a member of $mathbb B$ then let $f(C)=C.$ Otherwise let $f(C)=pin C:p<_Cq$ where $q$ is the $<_C$-least $yin C$ such that some $Din mathbb B$ satisfies $Dsim pin C:p<_Cy.$
$(bullet).$ If $X $ is an initial segment of $f(C)$ then $X$ is also an initial segment of $C,$ and no $Ein mathbb B$ satisfies $Esim X.$
Claim. $f(C) sim f(D)$ for all $C,Din mathbb B.$
Proof. Suppose not. WLOG there is an order-isomorphism $g:f(D)to X$ where $X$ is an initial segment of $f(C). $ But there exists $Ein mathbb B$ and an order-isomorphism $psi:Eto f(D).$ Then the composite function $(gpsi):Eto X$ is an order-isomorphism, contrary to $(bullet).$
So take some (any) $Cin mathbb B$ and some (any) $Ain mathbb B$ such that $Asim f(C).$ Then for every $Din mathbb B,$ either $A sim D=f(D)$ or $A$ is order-isomorphic to the initial segment $f(D)$ of $D.$
For any well-orders $C,D$ let $Csim D$ mean that $C,D$ are order-isomorphic.
Let $<_C$ be a well-order on $C.$ An initial segment of $C$ is $pin C:p<_C q$ for some $qin C,$ well-ordered by $<_C.$
Let $mathbb B$ be a non-empty family of well-ordered sets. For each $Cin mathbb B,$ if no initial segment of $C$ is order-isomorphic to a member of $mathbb B$ then let $f(C)=C.$ Otherwise let $f(C)=pin C:p<_Cq$ where $q$ is the $<_C$-least $yin C$ such that some $Din mathbb B$ satisfies $Dsim pin C:p<_Cy.$
$(bullet).$ If $X $ is an initial segment of $f(C)$ then $X$ is also an initial segment of $C,$ and no $Ein mathbb B$ satisfies $Esim X.$
Claim. $f(C) sim f(D)$ for all $C,Din mathbb B.$
Proof. Suppose not. WLOG there is an order-isomorphism $g:f(D)to X$ where $X$ is an initial segment of $f(C). $ But there exists $Ein mathbb B$ and an order-isomorphism $psi:Eto f(D).$ Then the composite function $(gpsi):Eto X$ is an order-isomorphism, contrary to $(bullet).$
So take some (any) $Cin mathbb B$ and some (any) $Ain mathbb B$ such that $Asim f(C).$ Then for every $Din mathbb B,$ either $A sim D=f(D)$ or $A$ is order-isomorphic to the initial segment $f(D)$ of $D.$
edited Aug 27 at 2:02
answered Aug 27 at 1:54
DanielWainfleet
32k31644
32k31644
BTW. The trichotomy rule for well-orders does not require AC.
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 27 at 1:56
In "Set Theory: An Introduction To Independence Proofs" by K.Kunen, an initial segment $pin C:p<_Cq$ is denoted $text pred(q$) or pred$_C(q)$ or pred$_<_C(q)$. ("pred" for predecessors.)
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 27 at 2:04
Great answer @DanielWainfleet thanks
â Mark Kortink
Aug 28 at 21:59
add a comment |Â
BTW. The trichotomy rule for well-orders does not require AC.
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 27 at 1:56
In "Set Theory: An Introduction To Independence Proofs" by K.Kunen, an initial segment $pin C:p<_Cq$ is denoted $text pred(q$) or pred$_C(q)$ or pred$_<_C(q)$. ("pred" for predecessors.)
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 27 at 2:04
Great answer @DanielWainfleet thanks
â Mark Kortink
Aug 28 at 21:59
BTW. The trichotomy rule for well-orders does not require AC.
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 27 at 1:56
BTW. The trichotomy rule for well-orders does not require AC.
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 27 at 1:56
In "Set Theory: An Introduction To Independence Proofs" by K.Kunen, an initial segment $pin C:p<_Cq$ is denoted $text pred(q$) or pred$_C(q)$ or pred$_<_C(q)$. ("pred" for predecessors.)
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 27 at 2:04
In "Set Theory: An Introduction To Independence Proofs" by K.Kunen, an initial segment $pin C:p<_Cq$ is denoted $text pred(q$) or pred$_C(q)$ or pred$_<_C(q)$. ("pred" for predecessors.)
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 27 at 2:04
Great answer @DanielWainfleet thanks
â Mark Kortink
Aug 28 at 21:59
Great answer @DanielWainfleet thanks
â Mark Kortink
Aug 28 at 21:59
add a comment |Â
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