How to show a morphism $f^â¢: A^â¢to B^â¢$ of complexes induce the morphism of cohomology objects $H^i(A^â¢)to H^i(B^â¢)$?

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Let $mathscr C$ be a Abelian category, how to show a morphism $varphi^â¢: A^â¢to B^â¢$ of complexes induce the morphism of cohomology objects $H^i(A^â¢)to H^i(B^â¢)$?
$A^â¢:qquad cdotsto A^i-1stackrelf^i-1toA^istackrelf^itoA^i+1stackrelf^i+1tocdots$
$B^â¢:qquad cdotsto B^i-1stackrelg^i-1toB^istackrelg^itoB^i+1stackrelg^i+1tocdots$
However, I can only give the morphism $operatornamekerf^ito operatornamekerg^i$.
algebraic-geometry category-theory homology-cohomology abelian-categories
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Let $mathscr C$ be a Abelian category, how to show a morphism $varphi^â¢: A^â¢to B^â¢$ of complexes induce the morphism of cohomology objects $H^i(A^â¢)to H^i(B^â¢)$?
$A^â¢:qquad cdotsto A^i-1stackrelf^i-1toA^istackrelf^itoA^i+1stackrelf^i+1tocdots$
$B^â¢:qquad cdotsto B^i-1stackrelg^i-1toB^istackrelg^itoB^i+1stackrelg^i+1tocdots$
However, I can only give the morphism $operatornamekerf^ito operatornamekerg^i$.
algebraic-geometry category-theory homology-cohomology abelian-categories
3
Have you tried diagram chasing?
â Ashar Tafhim
Sep 3 at 7:24
1
$DeclareMathOperatorimim$Show that your map $ker f^i to ker g^i$ sends $im f^i-1$ into $im g^i-1$ so you get a well defined map in homology.
â Christoph
Sep 3 at 9:38
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $mathscr C$ be a Abelian category, how to show a morphism $varphi^â¢: A^â¢to B^â¢$ of complexes induce the morphism of cohomology objects $H^i(A^â¢)to H^i(B^â¢)$?
$A^â¢:qquad cdotsto A^i-1stackrelf^i-1toA^istackrelf^itoA^i+1stackrelf^i+1tocdots$
$B^â¢:qquad cdotsto B^i-1stackrelg^i-1toB^istackrelg^itoB^i+1stackrelg^i+1tocdots$
However, I can only give the morphism $operatornamekerf^ito operatornamekerg^i$.
algebraic-geometry category-theory homology-cohomology abelian-categories
Let $mathscr C$ be a Abelian category, how to show a morphism $varphi^â¢: A^â¢to B^â¢$ of complexes induce the morphism of cohomology objects $H^i(A^â¢)to H^i(B^â¢)$?
$A^â¢:qquad cdotsto A^i-1stackrelf^i-1toA^istackrelf^itoA^i+1stackrelf^i+1tocdots$
$B^â¢:qquad cdotsto B^i-1stackrelg^i-1toB^istackrelg^itoB^i+1stackrelg^i+1tocdots$
However, I can only give the morphism $operatornamekerf^ito operatornamekerg^i$.
algebraic-geometry category-theory homology-cohomology abelian-categories
algebraic-geometry category-theory homology-cohomology abelian-categories
edited Sep 3 at 9:32
asked Sep 3 at 7:06
Born to be proud
48849
48849
3
Have you tried diagram chasing?
â Ashar Tafhim
Sep 3 at 7:24
1
$DeclareMathOperatorimim$Show that your map $ker f^i to ker g^i$ sends $im f^i-1$ into $im g^i-1$ so you get a well defined map in homology.
â Christoph
Sep 3 at 9:38
add a comment |Â
3
Have you tried diagram chasing?
â Ashar Tafhim
Sep 3 at 7:24
1
$DeclareMathOperatorimim$Show that your map $ker f^i to ker g^i$ sends $im f^i-1$ into $im g^i-1$ so you get a well defined map in homology.
â Christoph
Sep 3 at 9:38
3
3
Have you tried diagram chasing?
â Ashar Tafhim
Sep 3 at 7:24
Have you tried diagram chasing?
â Ashar Tafhim
Sep 3 at 7:24
1
1
$DeclareMathOperatorimim$Show that your map $ker f^i to ker g^i$ sends $im f^i-1$ into $im g^i-1$ so you get a well defined map in homology.
â Christoph
Sep 3 at 9:38
$DeclareMathOperatorimim$Show that your map $ker f^i to ker g^i$ sends $im f^i-1$ into $im g^i-1$ so you get a well defined map in homology.
â Christoph
Sep 3 at 9:38
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
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Let $varphi^bullet : (A^bullet, d_A^bullet)to (B^bullet,d_B^bullet)$ be a morphism of cochain complexes. Concretely, recall that this means that for any $i,$ we have $d_B^icircvarphi^i = varphi^i+1circ d_A^i$ as maps $A^ito B^i+1.$
- First, observe that $varphi^i$ induces a morphism $varphi^i : ker d_A^itoker d_B^i$ by restriction. Given $alphainker d_A^isubseteq A^i,$ we have $d_B^icircvarphi^i(alpha) = varphi^i+1circ d_A^i(alpha) = varphi^i+1(0) = 0.$ This means that $varphi^i(alpha)inker d_B^i,$ which is what we wanted.
- In order to show that we obtain a well-defined map at the level of cohomology, we must show that the composition
$$
ker d_A^ixrightarrowvarphi^iker d_B^ixrightarrowpiker d_B^i/operatornameimd_B^i-1 = mathrmH^i(B^bullet)
$$
factors through $H^i(A^bullet);$ i.e., that any $alphainoperatornameimd_A^i-1$ is sent to $0$ in the quotient. Precisely, this means that we must check that such an $alpha$ is mapped into $operatornameimd_B^i-1$ under $varphi^i.$ To that end, let $alphainoperatornameimd_A^i-1,$ and write $alpha = d_A^i-1(beta)$ for some $betain A^i-1.$ Then it follows that
$$
varphi^i(alpha) = varphi^i(d_A^i-1(beta)) = d_B^i-1(varphi^i-1(beta))inoperatornameimd_B^i-1.
$$
This shows that the map $picircvarphi^i : ker d_A^ito mathrmH^i(B^bullet)$ factors through a unique map $(varphi^i)^ast : mathrmH^i(A^bullet)tomathrmH^i(B^bullet).$ This is the desired map.
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1 Answer
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active
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
Let $varphi^bullet : (A^bullet, d_A^bullet)to (B^bullet,d_B^bullet)$ be a morphism of cochain complexes. Concretely, recall that this means that for any $i,$ we have $d_B^icircvarphi^i = varphi^i+1circ d_A^i$ as maps $A^ito B^i+1.$
- First, observe that $varphi^i$ induces a morphism $varphi^i : ker d_A^itoker d_B^i$ by restriction. Given $alphainker d_A^isubseteq A^i,$ we have $d_B^icircvarphi^i(alpha) = varphi^i+1circ d_A^i(alpha) = varphi^i+1(0) = 0.$ This means that $varphi^i(alpha)inker d_B^i,$ which is what we wanted.
- In order to show that we obtain a well-defined map at the level of cohomology, we must show that the composition
$$
ker d_A^ixrightarrowvarphi^iker d_B^ixrightarrowpiker d_B^i/operatornameimd_B^i-1 = mathrmH^i(B^bullet)
$$
factors through $H^i(A^bullet);$ i.e., that any $alphainoperatornameimd_A^i-1$ is sent to $0$ in the quotient. Precisely, this means that we must check that such an $alpha$ is mapped into $operatornameimd_B^i-1$ under $varphi^i.$ To that end, let $alphainoperatornameimd_A^i-1,$ and write $alpha = d_A^i-1(beta)$ for some $betain A^i-1.$ Then it follows that
$$
varphi^i(alpha) = varphi^i(d_A^i-1(beta)) = d_B^i-1(varphi^i-1(beta))inoperatornameimd_B^i-1.
$$
This shows that the map $picircvarphi^i : ker d_A^ito mathrmH^i(B^bullet)$ factors through a unique map $(varphi^i)^ast : mathrmH^i(A^bullet)tomathrmH^i(B^bullet).$ This is the desired map.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Let $varphi^bullet : (A^bullet, d_A^bullet)to (B^bullet,d_B^bullet)$ be a morphism of cochain complexes. Concretely, recall that this means that for any $i,$ we have $d_B^icircvarphi^i = varphi^i+1circ d_A^i$ as maps $A^ito B^i+1.$
- First, observe that $varphi^i$ induces a morphism $varphi^i : ker d_A^itoker d_B^i$ by restriction. Given $alphainker d_A^isubseteq A^i,$ we have $d_B^icircvarphi^i(alpha) = varphi^i+1circ d_A^i(alpha) = varphi^i+1(0) = 0.$ This means that $varphi^i(alpha)inker d_B^i,$ which is what we wanted.
- In order to show that we obtain a well-defined map at the level of cohomology, we must show that the composition
$$
ker d_A^ixrightarrowvarphi^iker d_B^ixrightarrowpiker d_B^i/operatornameimd_B^i-1 = mathrmH^i(B^bullet)
$$
factors through $H^i(A^bullet);$ i.e., that any $alphainoperatornameimd_A^i-1$ is sent to $0$ in the quotient. Precisely, this means that we must check that such an $alpha$ is mapped into $operatornameimd_B^i-1$ under $varphi^i.$ To that end, let $alphainoperatornameimd_A^i-1,$ and write $alpha = d_A^i-1(beta)$ for some $betain A^i-1.$ Then it follows that
$$
varphi^i(alpha) = varphi^i(d_A^i-1(beta)) = d_B^i-1(varphi^i-1(beta))inoperatornameimd_B^i-1.
$$
This shows that the map $picircvarphi^i : ker d_A^ito mathrmH^i(B^bullet)$ factors through a unique map $(varphi^i)^ast : mathrmH^i(A^bullet)tomathrmH^i(B^bullet).$ This is the desired map.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
Let $varphi^bullet : (A^bullet, d_A^bullet)to (B^bullet,d_B^bullet)$ be a morphism of cochain complexes. Concretely, recall that this means that for any $i,$ we have $d_B^icircvarphi^i = varphi^i+1circ d_A^i$ as maps $A^ito B^i+1.$
- First, observe that $varphi^i$ induces a morphism $varphi^i : ker d_A^itoker d_B^i$ by restriction. Given $alphainker d_A^isubseteq A^i,$ we have $d_B^icircvarphi^i(alpha) = varphi^i+1circ d_A^i(alpha) = varphi^i+1(0) = 0.$ This means that $varphi^i(alpha)inker d_B^i,$ which is what we wanted.
- In order to show that we obtain a well-defined map at the level of cohomology, we must show that the composition
$$
ker d_A^ixrightarrowvarphi^iker d_B^ixrightarrowpiker d_B^i/operatornameimd_B^i-1 = mathrmH^i(B^bullet)
$$
factors through $H^i(A^bullet);$ i.e., that any $alphainoperatornameimd_A^i-1$ is sent to $0$ in the quotient. Precisely, this means that we must check that such an $alpha$ is mapped into $operatornameimd_B^i-1$ under $varphi^i.$ To that end, let $alphainoperatornameimd_A^i-1,$ and write $alpha = d_A^i-1(beta)$ for some $betain A^i-1.$ Then it follows that
$$
varphi^i(alpha) = varphi^i(d_A^i-1(beta)) = d_B^i-1(varphi^i-1(beta))inoperatornameimd_B^i-1.
$$
This shows that the map $picircvarphi^i : ker d_A^ito mathrmH^i(B^bullet)$ factors through a unique map $(varphi^i)^ast : mathrmH^i(A^bullet)tomathrmH^i(B^bullet).$ This is the desired map.
Let $varphi^bullet : (A^bullet, d_A^bullet)to (B^bullet,d_B^bullet)$ be a morphism of cochain complexes. Concretely, recall that this means that for any $i,$ we have $d_B^icircvarphi^i = varphi^i+1circ d_A^i$ as maps $A^ito B^i+1.$
- First, observe that $varphi^i$ induces a morphism $varphi^i : ker d_A^itoker d_B^i$ by restriction. Given $alphainker d_A^isubseteq A^i,$ we have $d_B^icircvarphi^i(alpha) = varphi^i+1circ d_A^i(alpha) = varphi^i+1(0) = 0.$ This means that $varphi^i(alpha)inker d_B^i,$ which is what we wanted.
- In order to show that we obtain a well-defined map at the level of cohomology, we must show that the composition
$$
ker d_A^ixrightarrowvarphi^iker d_B^ixrightarrowpiker d_B^i/operatornameimd_B^i-1 = mathrmH^i(B^bullet)
$$
factors through $H^i(A^bullet);$ i.e., that any $alphainoperatornameimd_A^i-1$ is sent to $0$ in the quotient. Precisely, this means that we must check that such an $alpha$ is mapped into $operatornameimd_B^i-1$ under $varphi^i.$ To that end, let $alphainoperatornameimd_A^i-1,$ and write $alpha = d_A^i-1(beta)$ for some $betain A^i-1.$ Then it follows that
$$
varphi^i(alpha) = varphi^i(d_A^i-1(beta)) = d_B^i-1(varphi^i-1(beta))inoperatornameimd_B^i-1.
$$
This shows that the map $picircvarphi^i : ker d_A^ito mathrmH^i(B^bullet)$ factors through a unique map $(varphi^i)^ast : mathrmH^i(A^bullet)tomathrmH^i(B^bullet).$ This is the desired map.
answered Sep 3 at 17:35
Stahl
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15.7k43351
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3
Have you tried diagram chasing?
â Ashar Tafhim
Sep 3 at 7:24
1
$DeclareMathOperatorimim$Show that your map $ker f^i to ker g^i$ sends $im f^i-1$ into $im g^i-1$ so you get a well defined map in homology.
â Christoph
Sep 3 at 9:38