Prove $φ(R^2)$ where $φ(u,v)=(vcos u,vsin u,bu)$ is the smooth function.

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Prove $φ(R^2)$ is a smooth surface and $φ(u,v)=(vcos u,vsin u,bu)$ $R^2rightarrow R^3$ and b>0 constant. Its rank $Dφ$ is 2, so I'm ok with that part. Only thing to prove is that it has an continuous inverse so $φ$ can be an acceptable parametrization. Can i just argue the topology definition . I know the existence of the inverse hence if the pre image of the inverse of open sets of$ R^2$ are open in $R^3$ then the inverse is continuous.But still that needs proof










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  • It makes little sense to say "where $varphi$ is a smooth function" and then to define it explicitly.
    – amsmath
    Sep 3 at 14:08










  • thats how the problem was presented . I know its a redundancy.
    – Manolis Lyviakis
    Sep 3 at 14:13










  • What's $b$, a non-zero constant?
    – Mees de Vries
    Sep 3 at 14:15






  • 1




    @ManolisLyviakis Well, first it is a redundancy, but it's also not quite correct language-wise, because the enlish article "a" means "some". So, if you write "where $varphi$ is a smooth function", it can be any smooth function. Then defining it explicitly is actually a contradiction in itself. It is correct to write "where $varphi$ is the smooth function $varphi(u,v) = (vcos u,vsin u, bu)$".
    – amsmath
    Sep 3 at 14:20











  • @amsmath tahnk you for the correction.
    – Manolis Lyviakis
    Sep 3 at 14:21














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Prove $φ(R^2)$ is a smooth surface and $φ(u,v)=(vcos u,vsin u,bu)$ $R^2rightarrow R^3$ and b>0 constant. Its rank $Dφ$ is 2, so I'm ok with that part. Only thing to prove is that it has an continuous inverse so $φ$ can be an acceptable parametrization. Can i just argue the topology definition . I know the existence of the inverse hence if the pre image of the inverse of open sets of$ R^2$ are open in $R^3$ then the inverse is continuous.But still that needs proof










share|cite|improve this question























  • It makes little sense to say "where $varphi$ is a smooth function" and then to define it explicitly.
    – amsmath
    Sep 3 at 14:08










  • thats how the problem was presented . I know its a redundancy.
    – Manolis Lyviakis
    Sep 3 at 14:13










  • What's $b$, a non-zero constant?
    – Mees de Vries
    Sep 3 at 14:15






  • 1




    @ManolisLyviakis Well, first it is a redundancy, but it's also not quite correct language-wise, because the enlish article "a" means "some". So, if you write "where $varphi$ is a smooth function", it can be any smooth function. Then defining it explicitly is actually a contradiction in itself. It is correct to write "where $varphi$ is the smooth function $varphi(u,v) = (vcos u,vsin u, bu)$".
    – amsmath
    Sep 3 at 14:20











  • @amsmath tahnk you for the correction.
    – Manolis Lyviakis
    Sep 3 at 14:21












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Prove $φ(R^2)$ is a smooth surface and $φ(u,v)=(vcos u,vsin u,bu)$ $R^2rightarrow R^3$ and b>0 constant. Its rank $Dφ$ is 2, so I'm ok with that part. Only thing to prove is that it has an continuous inverse so $φ$ can be an acceptable parametrization. Can i just argue the topology definition . I know the existence of the inverse hence if the pre image of the inverse of open sets of$ R^2$ are open in $R^3$ then the inverse is continuous.But still that needs proof










share|cite|improve this question















Prove $φ(R^2)$ is a smooth surface and $φ(u,v)=(vcos u,vsin u,bu)$ $R^2rightarrow R^3$ and b>0 constant. Its rank $Dφ$ is 2, so I'm ok with that part. Only thing to prove is that it has an continuous inverse so $φ$ can be an acceptable parametrization. Can i just argue the topology definition . I know the existence of the inverse hence if the pre image of the inverse of open sets of$ R^2$ are open in $R^3$ then the inverse is continuous.But still that needs proof







calculus differential-geometry surfaces






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edited Sep 3 at 14:49

























asked Sep 3 at 14:05









Manolis Lyviakis

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  • It makes little sense to say "where $varphi$ is a smooth function" and then to define it explicitly.
    – amsmath
    Sep 3 at 14:08










  • thats how the problem was presented . I know its a redundancy.
    – Manolis Lyviakis
    Sep 3 at 14:13










  • What's $b$, a non-zero constant?
    – Mees de Vries
    Sep 3 at 14:15






  • 1




    @ManolisLyviakis Well, first it is a redundancy, but it's also not quite correct language-wise, because the enlish article "a" means "some". So, if you write "where $varphi$ is a smooth function", it can be any smooth function. Then defining it explicitly is actually a contradiction in itself. It is correct to write "where $varphi$ is the smooth function $varphi(u,v) = (vcos u,vsin u, bu)$".
    – amsmath
    Sep 3 at 14:20











  • @amsmath tahnk you for the correction.
    – Manolis Lyviakis
    Sep 3 at 14:21
















  • It makes little sense to say "where $varphi$ is a smooth function" and then to define it explicitly.
    – amsmath
    Sep 3 at 14:08










  • thats how the problem was presented . I know its a redundancy.
    – Manolis Lyviakis
    Sep 3 at 14:13










  • What's $b$, a non-zero constant?
    – Mees de Vries
    Sep 3 at 14:15






  • 1




    @ManolisLyviakis Well, first it is a redundancy, but it's also not quite correct language-wise, because the enlish article "a" means "some". So, if you write "where $varphi$ is a smooth function", it can be any smooth function. Then defining it explicitly is actually a contradiction in itself. It is correct to write "where $varphi$ is the smooth function $varphi(u,v) = (vcos u,vsin u, bu)$".
    – amsmath
    Sep 3 at 14:20











  • @amsmath tahnk you for the correction.
    – Manolis Lyviakis
    Sep 3 at 14:21















It makes little sense to say "where $varphi$ is a smooth function" and then to define it explicitly.
– amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:08




It makes little sense to say "where $varphi$ is a smooth function" and then to define it explicitly.
– amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:08












thats how the problem was presented . I know its a redundancy.
– Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:13




thats how the problem was presented . I know its a redundancy.
– Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:13












What's $b$, a non-zero constant?
– Mees de Vries
Sep 3 at 14:15




What's $b$, a non-zero constant?
– Mees de Vries
Sep 3 at 14:15




1




1




@ManolisLyviakis Well, first it is a redundancy, but it's also not quite correct language-wise, because the enlish article "a" means "some". So, if you write "where $varphi$ is a smooth function", it can be any smooth function. Then defining it explicitly is actually a contradiction in itself. It is correct to write "where $varphi$ is the smooth function $varphi(u,v) = (vcos u,vsin u, bu)$".
– amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:20





@ManolisLyviakis Well, first it is a redundancy, but it's also not quite correct language-wise, because the enlish article "a" means "some". So, if you write "where $varphi$ is a smooth function", it can be any smooth function. Then defining it explicitly is actually a contradiction in itself. It is correct to write "where $varphi$ is the smooth function $varphi(u,v) = (vcos u,vsin u, bu)$".
– amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:20













@amsmath tahnk you for the correction.
– Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:21




@amsmath tahnk you for the correction.
– Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:21










1 Answer
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up vote
2
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Let $M := varphi(Bbb R^2)$. Then $varphi : Bbb R^2to M$ is obviously onto and you proved that it is also injective. Furthermore, the rank of the Jacobian is $2$ in each point (which you also proved). Now, the inverse of $varphi$ is given by
$$
psi(x,y,z) = left(frac z b,,,xcosfrac z b+ysinfrac z bright),quad (x,y,z)in M.
$$
This is easily verifyable by computing $psi(varphi(u,v))$. So, $varphi^-1$ is obviously continuous.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • how did ou come up with it? any sort tricks?
    – Manolis Lyviakis
    Sep 3 at 14:57






  • 1




    When you write $varphi(u,v) = (x,y,z)$, then $u = z/b$ and $vbinomcos z/bsin z/b = binom x y$. Taking the scalar product with $binomcos z/bsin z/b$ gives $v = langlebinom x y,binomcos z/bsin z/brangle = xcos z/b + ysin z/b$.
    – amsmath
    Sep 3 at 15:03










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Let $M := varphi(Bbb R^2)$. Then $varphi : Bbb R^2to M$ is obviously onto and you proved that it is also injective. Furthermore, the rank of the Jacobian is $2$ in each point (which you also proved). Now, the inverse of $varphi$ is given by
$$
psi(x,y,z) = left(frac z b,,,xcosfrac z b+ysinfrac z bright),quad (x,y,z)in M.
$$
This is easily verifyable by computing $psi(varphi(u,v))$. So, $varphi^-1$ is obviously continuous.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • how did ou come up with it? any sort tricks?
    – Manolis Lyviakis
    Sep 3 at 14:57






  • 1




    When you write $varphi(u,v) = (x,y,z)$, then $u = z/b$ and $vbinomcos z/bsin z/b = binom x y$. Taking the scalar product with $binomcos z/bsin z/b$ gives $v = langlebinom x y,binomcos z/bsin z/brangle = xcos z/b + ysin z/b$.
    – amsmath
    Sep 3 at 15:03














up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Let $M := varphi(Bbb R^2)$. Then $varphi : Bbb R^2to M$ is obviously onto and you proved that it is also injective. Furthermore, the rank of the Jacobian is $2$ in each point (which you also proved). Now, the inverse of $varphi$ is given by
$$
psi(x,y,z) = left(frac z b,,,xcosfrac z b+ysinfrac z bright),quad (x,y,z)in M.
$$
This is easily verifyable by computing $psi(varphi(u,v))$. So, $varphi^-1$ is obviously continuous.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • how did ou come up with it? any sort tricks?
    – Manolis Lyviakis
    Sep 3 at 14:57






  • 1




    When you write $varphi(u,v) = (x,y,z)$, then $u = z/b$ and $vbinomcos z/bsin z/b = binom x y$. Taking the scalar product with $binomcos z/bsin z/b$ gives $v = langlebinom x y,binomcos z/bsin z/brangle = xcos z/b + ysin z/b$.
    – amsmath
    Sep 3 at 15:03












up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






Let $M := varphi(Bbb R^2)$. Then $varphi : Bbb R^2to M$ is obviously onto and you proved that it is also injective. Furthermore, the rank of the Jacobian is $2$ in each point (which you also proved). Now, the inverse of $varphi$ is given by
$$
psi(x,y,z) = left(frac z b,,,xcosfrac z b+ysinfrac z bright),quad (x,y,z)in M.
$$
This is easily verifyable by computing $psi(varphi(u,v))$. So, $varphi^-1$ is obviously continuous.






share|cite|improve this answer












Let $M := varphi(Bbb R^2)$. Then $varphi : Bbb R^2to M$ is obviously onto and you proved that it is also injective. Furthermore, the rank of the Jacobian is $2$ in each point (which you also proved). Now, the inverse of $varphi$ is given by
$$
psi(x,y,z) = left(frac z b,,,xcosfrac z b+ysinfrac z bright),quad (x,y,z)in M.
$$
This is easily verifyable by computing $psi(varphi(u,v))$. So, $varphi^-1$ is obviously continuous.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Sep 3 at 14:56









amsmath

2,645114




2,645114











  • how did ou come up with it? any sort tricks?
    – Manolis Lyviakis
    Sep 3 at 14:57






  • 1




    When you write $varphi(u,v) = (x,y,z)$, then $u = z/b$ and $vbinomcos z/bsin z/b = binom x y$. Taking the scalar product with $binomcos z/bsin z/b$ gives $v = langlebinom x y,binomcos z/bsin z/brangle = xcos z/b + ysin z/b$.
    – amsmath
    Sep 3 at 15:03
















  • how did ou come up with it? any sort tricks?
    – Manolis Lyviakis
    Sep 3 at 14:57






  • 1




    When you write $varphi(u,v) = (x,y,z)$, then $u = z/b$ and $vbinomcos z/bsin z/b = binom x y$. Taking the scalar product with $binomcos z/bsin z/b$ gives $v = langlebinom x y,binomcos z/bsin z/brangle = xcos z/b + ysin z/b$.
    – amsmath
    Sep 3 at 15:03















how did ou come up with it? any sort tricks?
– Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:57




how did ou come up with it? any sort tricks?
– Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:57




1




1




When you write $varphi(u,v) = (x,y,z)$, then $u = z/b$ and $vbinomcos z/bsin z/b = binom x y$. Taking the scalar product with $binomcos z/bsin z/b$ gives $v = langlebinom x y,binomcos z/bsin z/brangle = xcos z/b + ysin z/b$.
– amsmath
Sep 3 at 15:03




When you write $varphi(u,v) = (x,y,z)$, then $u = z/b$ and $vbinomcos z/bsin z/b = binom x y$. Taking the scalar product with $binomcos z/bsin z/b$ gives $v = langlebinom x y,binomcos z/bsin z/brangle = xcos z/b + ysin z/b$.
– amsmath
Sep 3 at 15:03

















 

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