Prove $ÃÂ(R^2)$ where $ÃÂ(u,v)=(vcos u,vsin u,bu)$ is the smooth function.
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Prove $ÃÂ(R^2)$ is a smooth surface and $ÃÂ(u,v)=(vcos u,vsin u,bu)$ $R^2rightarrow R^3$ and b>0 constant. Its rank $DÃÂ$ is 2, so I'm ok with that part. Only thing to prove is that it has an continuous inverse so $ÃÂ$ can be an acceptable parametrization. Can i just argue the topology definition . I know the existence of the inverse hence if the pre image of the inverse of open sets of$ R^2$ are open in $R^3$ then the inverse is continuous.But still that needs proof
calculus differential-geometry surfaces
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up vote
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Prove $ÃÂ(R^2)$ is a smooth surface and $ÃÂ(u,v)=(vcos u,vsin u,bu)$ $R^2rightarrow R^3$ and b>0 constant. Its rank $DÃÂ$ is 2, so I'm ok with that part. Only thing to prove is that it has an continuous inverse so $ÃÂ$ can be an acceptable parametrization. Can i just argue the topology definition . I know the existence of the inverse hence if the pre image of the inverse of open sets of$ R^2$ are open in $R^3$ then the inverse is continuous.But still that needs proof
calculus differential-geometry surfaces
It makes little sense to say "where $varphi$ is a smooth function" and then to define it explicitly.
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:08
thats how the problem was presented . I know its a redundancy.
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:13
What's $b$, a non-zero constant?
â Mees de Vries
Sep 3 at 14:15
1
@ManolisLyviakis Well, first it is a redundancy, but it's also not quite correct language-wise, because the enlish article "a" means "some". So, if you write "where $varphi$ is a smooth function", it can be any smooth function. Then defining it explicitly is actually a contradiction in itself. It is correct to write "where $varphi$ is the smooth function $varphi(u,v) = (vcos u,vsin u, bu)$".
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:20
@amsmath tahnk you for the correction.
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:21
 |Â
show 10 more comments
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Prove $ÃÂ(R^2)$ is a smooth surface and $ÃÂ(u,v)=(vcos u,vsin u,bu)$ $R^2rightarrow R^3$ and b>0 constant. Its rank $DÃÂ$ is 2, so I'm ok with that part. Only thing to prove is that it has an continuous inverse so $ÃÂ$ can be an acceptable parametrization. Can i just argue the topology definition . I know the existence of the inverse hence if the pre image of the inverse of open sets of$ R^2$ are open in $R^3$ then the inverse is continuous.But still that needs proof
calculus differential-geometry surfaces
Prove $ÃÂ(R^2)$ is a smooth surface and $ÃÂ(u,v)=(vcos u,vsin u,bu)$ $R^2rightarrow R^3$ and b>0 constant. Its rank $DÃÂ$ is 2, so I'm ok with that part. Only thing to prove is that it has an continuous inverse so $ÃÂ$ can be an acceptable parametrization. Can i just argue the topology definition . I know the existence of the inverse hence if the pre image of the inverse of open sets of$ R^2$ are open in $R^3$ then the inverse is continuous.But still that needs proof
calculus differential-geometry surfaces
calculus differential-geometry surfaces
edited Sep 3 at 14:49
asked Sep 3 at 14:05
Manolis Lyviakis
1,307625
1,307625
It makes little sense to say "where $varphi$ is a smooth function" and then to define it explicitly.
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:08
thats how the problem was presented . I know its a redundancy.
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:13
What's $b$, a non-zero constant?
â Mees de Vries
Sep 3 at 14:15
1
@ManolisLyviakis Well, first it is a redundancy, but it's also not quite correct language-wise, because the enlish article "a" means "some". So, if you write "where $varphi$ is a smooth function", it can be any smooth function. Then defining it explicitly is actually a contradiction in itself. It is correct to write "where $varphi$ is the smooth function $varphi(u,v) = (vcos u,vsin u, bu)$".
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:20
@amsmath tahnk you for the correction.
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:21
 |Â
show 10 more comments
It makes little sense to say "where $varphi$ is a smooth function" and then to define it explicitly.
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:08
thats how the problem was presented . I know its a redundancy.
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:13
What's $b$, a non-zero constant?
â Mees de Vries
Sep 3 at 14:15
1
@ManolisLyviakis Well, first it is a redundancy, but it's also not quite correct language-wise, because the enlish article "a" means "some". So, if you write "where $varphi$ is a smooth function", it can be any smooth function. Then defining it explicitly is actually a contradiction in itself. It is correct to write "where $varphi$ is the smooth function $varphi(u,v) = (vcos u,vsin u, bu)$".
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:20
@amsmath tahnk you for the correction.
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:21
It makes little sense to say "where $varphi$ is a smooth function" and then to define it explicitly.
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:08
It makes little sense to say "where $varphi$ is a smooth function" and then to define it explicitly.
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:08
thats how the problem was presented . I know its a redundancy.
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:13
thats how the problem was presented . I know its a redundancy.
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:13
What's $b$, a non-zero constant?
â Mees de Vries
Sep 3 at 14:15
What's $b$, a non-zero constant?
â Mees de Vries
Sep 3 at 14:15
1
1
@ManolisLyviakis Well, first it is a redundancy, but it's also not quite correct language-wise, because the enlish article "a" means "some". So, if you write "where $varphi$ is a smooth function", it can be any smooth function. Then defining it explicitly is actually a contradiction in itself. It is correct to write "where $varphi$ is the smooth function $varphi(u,v) = (vcos u,vsin u, bu)$".
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:20
@ManolisLyviakis Well, first it is a redundancy, but it's also not quite correct language-wise, because the enlish article "a" means "some". So, if you write "where $varphi$ is a smooth function", it can be any smooth function. Then defining it explicitly is actually a contradiction in itself. It is correct to write "where $varphi$ is the smooth function $varphi(u,v) = (vcos u,vsin u, bu)$".
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:20
@amsmath tahnk you for the correction.
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:21
@amsmath tahnk you for the correction.
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:21
 |Â
show 10 more comments
1 Answer
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2
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Let $M := varphi(Bbb R^2)$. Then $varphi : Bbb R^2to M$ is obviously onto and you proved that it is also injective. Furthermore, the rank of the Jacobian is $2$ in each point (which you also proved). Now, the inverse of $varphi$ is given by
$$
psi(x,y,z) = left(frac z b,,,xcosfrac z b+ysinfrac z bright),quad (x,y,z)in M.
$$
This is easily verifyable by computing $psi(varphi(u,v))$. So, $varphi^-1$ is obviously continuous.
how did ou come up with it? any sort tricks?
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:57
1
When you write $varphi(u,v) = (x,y,z)$, then $u = z/b$ and $vbinomcos z/bsin z/b = binom x y$. Taking the scalar product with $binomcos z/bsin z/b$ gives $v = langlebinom x y,binomcos z/bsin z/brangle = xcos z/b + ysin z/b$.
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 15:03
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Let $M := varphi(Bbb R^2)$. Then $varphi : Bbb R^2to M$ is obviously onto and you proved that it is also injective. Furthermore, the rank of the Jacobian is $2$ in each point (which you also proved). Now, the inverse of $varphi$ is given by
$$
psi(x,y,z) = left(frac z b,,,xcosfrac z b+ysinfrac z bright),quad (x,y,z)in M.
$$
This is easily verifyable by computing $psi(varphi(u,v))$. So, $varphi^-1$ is obviously continuous.
how did ou come up with it? any sort tricks?
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:57
1
When you write $varphi(u,v) = (x,y,z)$, then $u = z/b$ and $vbinomcos z/bsin z/b = binom x y$. Taking the scalar product with $binomcos z/bsin z/b$ gives $v = langlebinom x y,binomcos z/bsin z/brangle = xcos z/b + ysin z/b$.
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 15:03
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Let $M := varphi(Bbb R^2)$. Then $varphi : Bbb R^2to M$ is obviously onto and you proved that it is also injective. Furthermore, the rank of the Jacobian is $2$ in each point (which you also proved). Now, the inverse of $varphi$ is given by
$$
psi(x,y,z) = left(frac z b,,,xcosfrac z b+ysinfrac z bright),quad (x,y,z)in M.
$$
This is easily verifyable by computing $psi(varphi(u,v))$. So, $varphi^-1$ is obviously continuous.
how did ou come up with it? any sort tricks?
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:57
1
When you write $varphi(u,v) = (x,y,z)$, then $u = z/b$ and $vbinomcos z/bsin z/b = binom x y$. Taking the scalar product with $binomcos z/bsin z/b$ gives $v = langlebinom x y,binomcos z/bsin z/brangle = xcos z/b + ysin z/b$.
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 15:03
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Let $M := varphi(Bbb R^2)$. Then $varphi : Bbb R^2to M$ is obviously onto and you proved that it is also injective. Furthermore, the rank of the Jacobian is $2$ in each point (which you also proved). Now, the inverse of $varphi$ is given by
$$
psi(x,y,z) = left(frac z b,,,xcosfrac z b+ysinfrac z bright),quad (x,y,z)in M.
$$
This is easily verifyable by computing $psi(varphi(u,v))$. So, $varphi^-1$ is obviously continuous.
Let $M := varphi(Bbb R^2)$. Then $varphi : Bbb R^2to M$ is obviously onto and you proved that it is also injective. Furthermore, the rank of the Jacobian is $2$ in each point (which you also proved). Now, the inverse of $varphi$ is given by
$$
psi(x,y,z) = left(frac z b,,,xcosfrac z b+ysinfrac z bright),quad (x,y,z)in M.
$$
This is easily verifyable by computing $psi(varphi(u,v))$. So, $varphi^-1$ is obviously continuous.
answered Sep 3 at 14:56
amsmath
2,645114
2,645114
how did ou come up with it? any sort tricks?
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:57
1
When you write $varphi(u,v) = (x,y,z)$, then $u = z/b$ and $vbinomcos z/bsin z/b = binom x y$. Taking the scalar product with $binomcos z/bsin z/b$ gives $v = langlebinom x y,binomcos z/bsin z/brangle = xcos z/b + ysin z/b$.
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 15:03
add a comment |Â
how did ou come up with it? any sort tricks?
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:57
1
When you write $varphi(u,v) = (x,y,z)$, then $u = z/b$ and $vbinomcos z/bsin z/b = binom x y$. Taking the scalar product with $binomcos z/bsin z/b$ gives $v = langlebinom x y,binomcos z/bsin z/brangle = xcos z/b + ysin z/b$.
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 15:03
how did ou come up with it? any sort tricks?
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:57
how did ou come up with it? any sort tricks?
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:57
1
1
When you write $varphi(u,v) = (x,y,z)$, then $u = z/b$ and $vbinomcos z/bsin z/b = binom x y$. Taking the scalar product with $binomcos z/bsin z/b$ gives $v = langlebinom x y,binomcos z/bsin z/brangle = xcos z/b + ysin z/b$.
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 15:03
When you write $varphi(u,v) = (x,y,z)$, then $u = z/b$ and $vbinomcos z/bsin z/b = binom x y$. Taking the scalar product with $binomcos z/bsin z/b$ gives $v = langlebinom x y,binomcos z/bsin z/brangle = xcos z/b + ysin z/b$.
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 15:03
add a comment |Â
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It makes little sense to say "where $varphi$ is a smooth function" and then to define it explicitly.
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:08
thats how the problem was presented . I know its a redundancy.
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:13
What's $b$, a non-zero constant?
â Mees de Vries
Sep 3 at 14:15
1
@ManolisLyviakis Well, first it is a redundancy, but it's also not quite correct language-wise, because the enlish article "a" means "some". So, if you write "where $varphi$ is a smooth function", it can be any smooth function. Then defining it explicitly is actually a contradiction in itself. It is correct to write "where $varphi$ is the smooth function $varphi(u,v) = (vcos u,vsin u, bu)$".
â amsmath
Sep 3 at 14:20
@amsmath tahnk you for the correction.
â Manolis Lyviakis
Sep 3 at 14:21