Probability measure on $(0,infty)$
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What can be a possible probability measure on $(0,infty)$? Give an example.
For $(0,1)$ Lebesgue measure can be used and it easily satisfies all the properties of probability measure. But when the set is $(0,infty)$, Lebesgue measure will not lie in 0 to 1 range. I am thinking that some mapping from $(0,infty)$ to $(0,1)$ would do the trick. Am I right?
probability-theory
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up vote
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down vote
favorite
What can be a possible probability measure on $(0,infty)$? Give an example.
For $(0,1)$ Lebesgue measure can be used and it easily satisfies all the properties of probability measure. But when the set is $(0,infty)$, Lebesgue measure will not lie in 0 to 1 range. I am thinking that some mapping from $(0,infty)$ to $(0,1)$ would do the trick. Am I right?
probability-theory
1
Hi and welcome to the site! Since this is a site that encourages and helps with learning, it is best if you show your own ideas and efforts in solving the question. Can you edit your question to add your thoughts and ideas about it?
â 5xum
Sep 3 at 10:48
1
Also, don't get discouraged by the downvote. I downvoted the question and voted to close it because at the moment, it is not up to site standards (you have shown no work you did on your own). If you edit your question so that you show what you tried and how far you got, I will not only remove the downvote, I will add an upvote.
â 5xum
Sep 3 at 10:48
@5xum done. edited the question.
â Chintu
Sep 3 at 10:54
2
Hint : can you find a positive continuous function $f$ on $(0,infty)$ such that $int_mathbbR^+ f(x) dx =1$ ?
â nicomezi
Sep 3 at 10:55
1
You recieved an answer to your question. Is it what you needed? If so, you should accept it!
â 5xum
Sep 4 at 7:31
 |Â
show 2 more comments
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
What can be a possible probability measure on $(0,infty)$? Give an example.
For $(0,1)$ Lebesgue measure can be used and it easily satisfies all the properties of probability measure. But when the set is $(0,infty)$, Lebesgue measure will not lie in 0 to 1 range. I am thinking that some mapping from $(0,infty)$ to $(0,1)$ would do the trick. Am I right?
probability-theory
What can be a possible probability measure on $(0,infty)$? Give an example.
For $(0,1)$ Lebesgue measure can be used and it easily satisfies all the properties of probability measure. But when the set is $(0,infty)$, Lebesgue measure will not lie in 0 to 1 range. I am thinking that some mapping from $(0,infty)$ to $(0,1)$ would do the trick. Am I right?
probability-theory
probability-theory
edited Sep 3 at 10:53
asked Sep 3 at 10:47
Chintu
779
779
1
Hi and welcome to the site! Since this is a site that encourages and helps with learning, it is best if you show your own ideas and efforts in solving the question. Can you edit your question to add your thoughts and ideas about it?
â 5xum
Sep 3 at 10:48
1
Also, don't get discouraged by the downvote. I downvoted the question and voted to close it because at the moment, it is not up to site standards (you have shown no work you did on your own). If you edit your question so that you show what you tried and how far you got, I will not only remove the downvote, I will add an upvote.
â 5xum
Sep 3 at 10:48
@5xum done. edited the question.
â Chintu
Sep 3 at 10:54
2
Hint : can you find a positive continuous function $f$ on $(0,infty)$ such that $int_mathbbR^+ f(x) dx =1$ ?
â nicomezi
Sep 3 at 10:55
1
You recieved an answer to your question. Is it what you needed? If so, you should accept it!
â 5xum
Sep 4 at 7:31
 |Â
show 2 more comments
1
Hi and welcome to the site! Since this is a site that encourages and helps with learning, it is best if you show your own ideas and efforts in solving the question. Can you edit your question to add your thoughts and ideas about it?
â 5xum
Sep 3 at 10:48
1
Also, don't get discouraged by the downvote. I downvoted the question and voted to close it because at the moment, it is not up to site standards (you have shown no work you did on your own). If you edit your question so that you show what you tried and how far you got, I will not only remove the downvote, I will add an upvote.
â 5xum
Sep 3 at 10:48
@5xum done. edited the question.
â Chintu
Sep 3 at 10:54
2
Hint : can you find a positive continuous function $f$ on $(0,infty)$ such that $int_mathbbR^+ f(x) dx =1$ ?
â nicomezi
Sep 3 at 10:55
1
You recieved an answer to your question. Is it what you needed? If so, you should accept it!
â 5xum
Sep 4 at 7:31
1
1
Hi and welcome to the site! Since this is a site that encourages and helps with learning, it is best if you show your own ideas and efforts in solving the question. Can you edit your question to add your thoughts and ideas about it?
â 5xum
Sep 3 at 10:48
Hi and welcome to the site! Since this is a site that encourages and helps with learning, it is best if you show your own ideas and efforts in solving the question. Can you edit your question to add your thoughts and ideas about it?
â 5xum
Sep 3 at 10:48
1
1
Also, don't get discouraged by the downvote. I downvoted the question and voted to close it because at the moment, it is not up to site standards (you have shown no work you did on your own). If you edit your question so that you show what you tried and how far you got, I will not only remove the downvote, I will add an upvote.
â 5xum
Sep 3 at 10:48
Also, don't get discouraged by the downvote. I downvoted the question and voted to close it because at the moment, it is not up to site standards (you have shown no work you did on your own). If you edit your question so that you show what you tried and how far you got, I will not only remove the downvote, I will add an upvote.
â 5xum
Sep 3 at 10:48
@5xum done. edited the question.
â Chintu
Sep 3 at 10:54
@5xum done. edited the question.
â Chintu
Sep 3 at 10:54
2
2
Hint : can you find a positive continuous function $f$ on $(0,infty)$ such that $int_mathbbR^+ f(x) dx =1$ ?
â nicomezi
Sep 3 at 10:55
Hint : can you find a positive continuous function $f$ on $(0,infty)$ such that $int_mathbbR^+ f(x) dx =1$ ?
â nicomezi
Sep 3 at 10:55
1
1
You recieved an answer to your question. Is it what you needed? If so, you should accept it!
â 5xum
Sep 4 at 7:31
You recieved an answer to your question. Is it what you needed? If so, you should accept it!
â 5xum
Sep 4 at 7:31
 |Â
show 2 more comments
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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up vote
5
down vote
accepted
Any Lebesgue integrable function $f:(0,infty)to[0,infty)$ which does not vanish almost everywhere can be made into a probability measure $mu_f$ on $(0,infty)$ by setting $$mu_f(S):=fracint_S,f(x),textdxint_0^infty,f(x),textdxtext for every measurable set S,.$$
Every absolutely continuous probability measure (relative to the Lebesgue measure) arises this way.
However, there are uncountably many other probability measures. Singular continuous measures on $(0,infty)$ such as the Cantor distribution and discrete probability measures on $(0,infty)$ are some of those probability measures not in the form $mu_f$ for some Lebesgue integrable function $f$. Of course, you can also have a convex combination of an absolutely continuous probability measure, a singular one, and a discrete one.
Additionally, if you want a probability measure $nu$ whose essential support is precisely $(0,infty)$, then the absolutely continuous part $nu_textabs$ of $nu$ cannot be $0$ (since essential supports of singular and discrete probability measures are Lebesgue null sets). In other words, $nu_textabs$ is of the form $nu_textabs=alpha,mu_f$ for some $alphain(0,1]$ and for some Lebesgue integrable function $f:(0,infty)to[0,infty)$ which vanishes on a set of Lebesgue measure $0$.
2
@mathamity This is a complete and rather technical "yes" answer to your question. I hope you appreciate that the technicalities are just a way to formalize your correct but vaguely stated intuition that there is some "distortion" of Lebesgue measure that makes it finite and does the trick.
â Ethan Bolker
Sep 3 at 12:26
that just blew my mind XD
â Chintu
Sep 4 at 8:39
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
Any Lebesgue integrable function $f:(0,infty)to[0,infty)$ which does not vanish almost everywhere can be made into a probability measure $mu_f$ on $(0,infty)$ by setting $$mu_f(S):=fracint_S,f(x),textdxint_0^infty,f(x),textdxtext for every measurable set S,.$$
Every absolutely continuous probability measure (relative to the Lebesgue measure) arises this way.
However, there are uncountably many other probability measures. Singular continuous measures on $(0,infty)$ such as the Cantor distribution and discrete probability measures on $(0,infty)$ are some of those probability measures not in the form $mu_f$ for some Lebesgue integrable function $f$. Of course, you can also have a convex combination of an absolutely continuous probability measure, a singular one, and a discrete one.
Additionally, if you want a probability measure $nu$ whose essential support is precisely $(0,infty)$, then the absolutely continuous part $nu_textabs$ of $nu$ cannot be $0$ (since essential supports of singular and discrete probability measures are Lebesgue null sets). In other words, $nu_textabs$ is of the form $nu_textabs=alpha,mu_f$ for some $alphain(0,1]$ and for some Lebesgue integrable function $f:(0,infty)to[0,infty)$ which vanishes on a set of Lebesgue measure $0$.
2
@mathamity This is a complete and rather technical "yes" answer to your question. I hope you appreciate that the technicalities are just a way to formalize your correct but vaguely stated intuition that there is some "distortion" of Lebesgue measure that makes it finite and does the trick.
â Ethan Bolker
Sep 3 at 12:26
that just blew my mind XD
â Chintu
Sep 4 at 8:39
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
Any Lebesgue integrable function $f:(0,infty)to[0,infty)$ which does not vanish almost everywhere can be made into a probability measure $mu_f$ on $(0,infty)$ by setting $$mu_f(S):=fracint_S,f(x),textdxint_0^infty,f(x),textdxtext for every measurable set S,.$$
Every absolutely continuous probability measure (relative to the Lebesgue measure) arises this way.
However, there are uncountably many other probability measures. Singular continuous measures on $(0,infty)$ such as the Cantor distribution and discrete probability measures on $(0,infty)$ are some of those probability measures not in the form $mu_f$ for some Lebesgue integrable function $f$. Of course, you can also have a convex combination of an absolutely continuous probability measure, a singular one, and a discrete one.
Additionally, if you want a probability measure $nu$ whose essential support is precisely $(0,infty)$, then the absolutely continuous part $nu_textabs$ of $nu$ cannot be $0$ (since essential supports of singular and discrete probability measures are Lebesgue null sets). In other words, $nu_textabs$ is of the form $nu_textabs=alpha,mu_f$ for some $alphain(0,1]$ and for some Lebesgue integrable function $f:(0,infty)to[0,infty)$ which vanishes on a set of Lebesgue measure $0$.
2
@mathamity This is a complete and rather technical "yes" answer to your question. I hope you appreciate that the technicalities are just a way to formalize your correct but vaguely stated intuition that there is some "distortion" of Lebesgue measure that makes it finite and does the trick.
â Ethan Bolker
Sep 3 at 12:26
that just blew my mind XD
â Chintu
Sep 4 at 8:39
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
Any Lebesgue integrable function $f:(0,infty)to[0,infty)$ which does not vanish almost everywhere can be made into a probability measure $mu_f$ on $(0,infty)$ by setting $$mu_f(S):=fracint_S,f(x),textdxint_0^infty,f(x),textdxtext for every measurable set S,.$$
Every absolutely continuous probability measure (relative to the Lebesgue measure) arises this way.
However, there are uncountably many other probability measures. Singular continuous measures on $(0,infty)$ such as the Cantor distribution and discrete probability measures on $(0,infty)$ are some of those probability measures not in the form $mu_f$ for some Lebesgue integrable function $f$. Of course, you can also have a convex combination of an absolutely continuous probability measure, a singular one, and a discrete one.
Additionally, if you want a probability measure $nu$ whose essential support is precisely $(0,infty)$, then the absolutely continuous part $nu_textabs$ of $nu$ cannot be $0$ (since essential supports of singular and discrete probability measures are Lebesgue null sets). In other words, $nu_textabs$ is of the form $nu_textabs=alpha,mu_f$ for some $alphain(0,1]$ and for some Lebesgue integrable function $f:(0,infty)to[0,infty)$ which vanishes on a set of Lebesgue measure $0$.
Any Lebesgue integrable function $f:(0,infty)to[0,infty)$ which does not vanish almost everywhere can be made into a probability measure $mu_f$ on $(0,infty)$ by setting $$mu_f(S):=fracint_S,f(x),textdxint_0^infty,f(x),textdxtext for every measurable set S,.$$
Every absolutely continuous probability measure (relative to the Lebesgue measure) arises this way.
However, there are uncountably many other probability measures. Singular continuous measures on $(0,infty)$ such as the Cantor distribution and discrete probability measures on $(0,infty)$ are some of those probability measures not in the form $mu_f$ for some Lebesgue integrable function $f$. Of course, you can also have a convex combination of an absolutely continuous probability measure, a singular one, and a discrete one.
Additionally, if you want a probability measure $nu$ whose essential support is precisely $(0,infty)$, then the absolutely continuous part $nu_textabs$ of $nu$ cannot be $0$ (since essential supports of singular and discrete probability measures are Lebesgue null sets). In other words, $nu_textabs$ is of the form $nu_textabs=alpha,mu_f$ for some $alphain(0,1]$ and for some Lebesgue integrable function $f:(0,infty)to[0,infty)$ which vanishes on a set of Lebesgue measure $0$.
edited Sep 3 at 12:39
answered Sep 3 at 12:02
Batominovski
25.7k22881
25.7k22881
2
@mathamity This is a complete and rather technical "yes" answer to your question. I hope you appreciate that the technicalities are just a way to formalize your correct but vaguely stated intuition that there is some "distortion" of Lebesgue measure that makes it finite and does the trick.
â Ethan Bolker
Sep 3 at 12:26
that just blew my mind XD
â Chintu
Sep 4 at 8:39
add a comment |Â
2
@mathamity This is a complete and rather technical "yes" answer to your question. I hope you appreciate that the technicalities are just a way to formalize your correct but vaguely stated intuition that there is some "distortion" of Lebesgue measure that makes it finite and does the trick.
â Ethan Bolker
Sep 3 at 12:26
that just blew my mind XD
â Chintu
Sep 4 at 8:39
2
2
@mathamity This is a complete and rather technical "yes" answer to your question. I hope you appreciate that the technicalities are just a way to formalize your correct but vaguely stated intuition that there is some "distortion" of Lebesgue measure that makes it finite and does the trick.
â Ethan Bolker
Sep 3 at 12:26
@mathamity This is a complete and rather technical "yes" answer to your question. I hope you appreciate that the technicalities are just a way to formalize your correct but vaguely stated intuition that there is some "distortion" of Lebesgue measure that makes it finite and does the trick.
â Ethan Bolker
Sep 3 at 12:26
that just blew my mind XD
â Chintu
Sep 4 at 8:39
that just blew my mind XD
â Chintu
Sep 4 at 8:39
add a comment |Â
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1
Hi and welcome to the site! Since this is a site that encourages and helps with learning, it is best if you show your own ideas and efforts in solving the question. Can you edit your question to add your thoughts and ideas about it?
â 5xum
Sep 3 at 10:48
1
Also, don't get discouraged by the downvote. I downvoted the question and voted to close it because at the moment, it is not up to site standards (you have shown no work you did on your own). If you edit your question so that you show what you tried and how far you got, I will not only remove the downvote, I will add an upvote.
â 5xum
Sep 3 at 10:48
@5xum done. edited the question.
â Chintu
Sep 3 at 10:54
2
Hint : can you find a positive continuous function $f$ on $(0,infty)$ such that $int_mathbbR^+ f(x) dx =1$ ?
â nicomezi
Sep 3 at 10:55
1
You recieved an answer to your question. Is it what you needed? If so, you should accept it!
â 5xum
Sep 4 at 7:31