Why is this composition of concave and convex functions concave?

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Please forgive my ignorance. I have a quick silly question about a statement given without proof in Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe (page 87).



Suppose $mathbbR_+^n$ is the set of vectors $v$ such that every coordinate of $v$ is real-valued and non-negative. Suppose $z in mathbbR_+^n$. Suppose that $z_i$ refers to the $i^th$ coordinate of $z$. Suppose $x$ is a scalar such that $x geq 0$ and suppose that $p$ is a scalar such that $0 < p leq 1$.



Consider the functions,



beginalign
i(z) & = sum_i=1^n z_i^p
\\
j(x) & = x^frac1p
endalign



Boyd and Vandenberghe claim without proof that the function,



$$h(z) = j(i(z))=left( sum_i=1^n z_i^p right)^frac1p$$



is a concave function of $z$. Why is this true?



I understand that $z_i^p$ is a non-decreasing concave function of $z_i$. Therefore $i(z)$ is a concave function of $z$. I also understand that $j(x)$ is a non-decreasing convex function of $x$.



However, this is where my understanding breaks down. Since $i(z)$ is concave and non-decreasing in each $z_i$, but $j(x)$ is convex, I don't know of any composition rule I can apply to arrive at the conclusion that $h(z)$ is concave. What am I missing?










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  • For $p=1$, the function is convex (it is the $1$-norm on the positive quadrant).
    – copper.hat
    Mar 6 '13 at 7:28










  • I agree that for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex. Indeed, for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex and concave on the domain $mathbbR_+^n$. However, I still don't understand why $h(z)$ is concave when $0 < p < 1$. Thanks for your help, copper.hat :)
    – Mike Roberts
    Mar 6 '13 at 7:43















up vote
5
down vote

favorite
4












Please forgive my ignorance. I have a quick silly question about a statement given without proof in Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe (page 87).



Suppose $mathbbR_+^n$ is the set of vectors $v$ such that every coordinate of $v$ is real-valued and non-negative. Suppose $z in mathbbR_+^n$. Suppose that $z_i$ refers to the $i^th$ coordinate of $z$. Suppose $x$ is a scalar such that $x geq 0$ and suppose that $p$ is a scalar such that $0 < p leq 1$.



Consider the functions,



beginalign
i(z) & = sum_i=1^n z_i^p
\\
j(x) & = x^frac1p
endalign



Boyd and Vandenberghe claim without proof that the function,



$$h(z) = j(i(z))=left( sum_i=1^n z_i^p right)^frac1p$$



is a concave function of $z$. Why is this true?



I understand that $z_i^p$ is a non-decreasing concave function of $z_i$. Therefore $i(z)$ is a concave function of $z$. I also understand that $j(x)$ is a non-decreasing convex function of $x$.



However, this is where my understanding breaks down. Since $i(z)$ is concave and non-decreasing in each $z_i$, but $j(x)$ is convex, I don't know of any composition rule I can apply to arrive at the conclusion that $h(z)$ is concave. What am I missing?










share|cite|improve this question























  • For $p=1$, the function is convex (it is the $1$-norm on the positive quadrant).
    – copper.hat
    Mar 6 '13 at 7:28










  • I agree that for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex. Indeed, for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex and concave on the domain $mathbbR_+^n$. However, I still don't understand why $h(z)$ is concave when $0 < p < 1$. Thanks for your help, copper.hat :)
    – Mike Roberts
    Mar 6 '13 at 7:43













up vote
5
down vote

favorite
4









up vote
5
down vote

favorite
4






4





Please forgive my ignorance. I have a quick silly question about a statement given without proof in Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe (page 87).



Suppose $mathbbR_+^n$ is the set of vectors $v$ such that every coordinate of $v$ is real-valued and non-negative. Suppose $z in mathbbR_+^n$. Suppose that $z_i$ refers to the $i^th$ coordinate of $z$. Suppose $x$ is a scalar such that $x geq 0$ and suppose that $p$ is a scalar such that $0 < p leq 1$.



Consider the functions,



beginalign
i(z) & = sum_i=1^n z_i^p
\\
j(x) & = x^frac1p
endalign



Boyd and Vandenberghe claim without proof that the function,



$$h(z) = j(i(z))=left( sum_i=1^n z_i^p right)^frac1p$$



is a concave function of $z$. Why is this true?



I understand that $z_i^p$ is a non-decreasing concave function of $z_i$. Therefore $i(z)$ is a concave function of $z$. I also understand that $j(x)$ is a non-decreasing convex function of $x$.



However, this is where my understanding breaks down. Since $i(z)$ is concave and non-decreasing in each $z_i$, but $j(x)$ is convex, I don't know of any composition rule I can apply to arrive at the conclusion that $h(z)$ is concave. What am I missing?










share|cite|improve this question















Please forgive my ignorance. I have a quick silly question about a statement given without proof in Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe (page 87).



Suppose $mathbbR_+^n$ is the set of vectors $v$ such that every coordinate of $v$ is real-valued and non-negative. Suppose $z in mathbbR_+^n$. Suppose that $z_i$ refers to the $i^th$ coordinate of $z$. Suppose $x$ is a scalar such that $x geq 0$ and suppose that $p$ is a scalar such that $0 < p leq 1$.



Consider the functions,



beginalign
i(z) & = sum_i=1^n z_i^p
\\
j(x) & = x^frac1p
endalign



Boyd and Vandenberghe claim without proof that the function,



$$h(z) = j(i(z))=left( sum_i=1^n z_i^p right)^frac1p$$



is a concave function of $z$. Why is this true?



I understand that $z_i^p$ is a non-decreasing concave function of $z_i$. Therefore $i(z)$ is a concave function of $z$. I also understand that $j(x)$ is a non-decreasing convex function of $x$.



However, this is where my understanding breaks down. Since $i(z)$ is concave and non-decreasing in each $z_i$, but $j(x)$ is convex, I don't know of any composition rule I can apply to arrive at the conclusion that $h(z)$ is concave. What am I missing?







convex-analysis convex-optimization






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edited Mar 6 '13 at 6:25

























asked Mar 6 '13 at 6:19









Mike Roberts

12815




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  • For $p=1$, the function is convex (it is the $1$-norm on the positive quadrant).
    – copper.hat
    Mar 6 '13 at 7:28










  • I agree that for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex. Indeed, for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex and concave on the domain $mathbbR_+^n$. However, I still don't understand why $h(z)$ is concave when $0 < p < 1$. Thanks for your help, copper.hat :)
    – Mike Roberts
    Mar 6 '13 at 7:43

















  • For $p=1$, the function is convex (it is the $1$-norm on the positive quadrant).
    – copper.hat
    Mar 6 '13 at 7:28










  • I agree that for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex. Indeed, for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex and concave on the domain $mathbbR_+^n$. However, I still don't understand why $h(z)$ is concave when $0 < p < 1$. Thanks for your help, copper.hat :)
    – Mike Roberts
    Mar 6 '13 at 7:43
















For $p=1$, the function is convex (it is the $1$-norm on the positive quadrant).
– copper.hat
Mar 6 '13 at 7:28




For $p=1$, the function is convex (it is the $1$-norm on the positive quadrant).
– copper.hat
Mar 6 '13 at 7:28












I agree that for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex. Indeed, for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex and concave on the domain $mathbbR_+^n$. However, I still don't understand why $h(z)$ is concave when $0 < p < 1$. Thanks for your help, copper.hat :)
– Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:43





I agree that for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex. Indeed, for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex and concave on the domain $mathbbR_+^n$. However, I still don't understand why $h(z)$ is concave when $0 < p < 1$. Thanks for your help, copper.hat :)
– Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:43











1 Answer
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oldest

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up vote
2
down vote



accepted










The convex function $j$ of a concave function $i$ is not necessarily concave. For example, if $j$ is strictly convex and $i$ is a constant function, then $jcirc i$ is strictly convex.



In your case, the $p$-"norm" is concave when $p<1$ because the Hessian matrix is negative semidefinite. More specifically, let $S=sum z_i^p$. Then
$$
fracpartial^2 S^1/ppartial z_i partial z_j
=(1-p)S^1/p-2 left( z_i^p-1z_j^p-1 - S z_i^p-2 delta_ij right).
$$
So the Hessian matrix is given by $H=(1-p)S^1/p-2 D(uu^T-SI)D$, where $u=(z_1^p/2,ldots,z_n^p/2)^T$ and $D=operatornamediag(z_1^p/2-1,ldots,z_n^p/2-1)$. As the eigenvalues of the matrix $uu^T-SI$ are $0$ (simple eigenvalue) and $-S$ (with multiplicity $n-1$), $H$ is negative semidefinite.






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  • Boom. Awesome. Thanks for your help, user1551 :)
    – Mike Roberts
    Mar 6 '13 at 7:54










  • is this function concave for $p< 1$?
    – L.F. Cavenaghi
    Sep 2 at 2:50






  • 1




    @L.F.Cavenaghi Oh, you mean $ple0$? Yes it's concave and the same reasoning applies. I had $0<p<1$ in the original edit because that was what the OP asked about.
    – user1551
    Sep 4 at 9:42










  • @user1551, thank you very much.
    – L.F. Cavenaghi
    Sep 4 at 19:33










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










The convex function $j$ of a concave function $i$ is not necessarily concave. For example, if $j$ is strictly convex and $i$ is a constant function, then $jcirc i$ is strictly convex.



In your case, the $p$-"norm" is concave when $p<1$ because the Hessian matrix is negative semidefinite. More specifically, let $S=sum z_i^p$. Then
$$
fracpartial^2 S^1/ppartial z_i partial z_j
=(1-p)S^1/p-2 left( z_i^p-1z_j^p-1 - S z_i^p-2 delta_ij right).
$$
So the Hessian matrix is given by $H=(1-p)S^1/p-2 D(uu^T-SI)D$, where $u=(z_1^p/2,ldots,z_n^p/2)^T$ and $D=operatornamediag(z_1^p/2-1,ldots,z_n^p/2-1)$. As the eigenvalues of the matrix $uu^T-SI$ are $0$ (simple eigenvalue) and $-S$ (with multiplicity $n-1$), $H$ is negative semidefinite.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Boom. Awesome. Thanks for your help, user1551 :)
    – Mike Roberts
    Mar 6 '13 at 7:54










  • is this function concave for $p< 1$?
    – L.F. Cavenaghi
    Sep 2 at 2:50






  • 1




    @L.F.Cavenaghi Oh, you mean $ple0$? Yes it's concave and the same reasoning applies. I had $0<p<1$ in the original edit because that was what the OP asked about.
    – user1551
    Sep 4 at 9:42










  • @user1551, thank you very much.
    – L.F. Cavenaghi
    Sep 4 at 19:33














up vote
2
down vote



accepted










The convex function $j$ of a concave function $i$ is not necessarily concave. For example, if $j$ is strictly convex and $i$ is a constant function, then $jcirc i$ is strictly convex.



In your case, the $p$-"norm" is concave when $p<1$ because the Hessian matrix is negative semidefinite. More specifically, let $S=sum z_i^p$. Then
$$
fracpartial^2 S^1/ppartial z_i partial z_j
=(1-p)S^1/p-2 left( z_i^p-1z_j^p-1 - S z_i^p-2 delta_ij right).
$$
So the Hessian matrix is given by $H=(1-p)S^1/p-2 D(uu^T-SI)D$, where $u=(z_1^p/2,ldots,z_n^p/2)^T$ and $D=operatornamediag(z_1^p/2-1,ldots,z_n^p/2-1)$. As the eigenvalues of the matrix $uu^T-SI$ are $0$ (simple eigenvalue) and $-S$ (with multiplicity $n-1$), $H$ is negative semidefinite.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Boom. Awesome. Thanks for your help, user1551 :)
    – Mike Roberts
    Mar 6 '13 at 7:54










  • is this function concave for $p< 1$?
    – L.F. Cavenaghi
    Sep 2 at 2:50






  • 1




    @L.F.Cavenaghi Oh, you mean $ple0$? Yes it's concave and the same reasoning applies. I had $0<p<1$ in the original edit because that was what the OP asked about.
    – user1551
    Sep 4 at 9:42










  • @user1551, thank you very much.
    – L.F. Cavenaghi
    Sep 4 at 19:33












up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






The convex function $j$ of a concave function $i$ is not necessarily concave. For example, if $j$ is strictly convex and $i$ is a constant function, then $jcirc i$ is strictly convex.



In your case, the $p$-"norm" is concave when $p<1$ because the Hessian matrix is negative semidefinite. More specifically, let $S=sum z_i^p$. Then
$$
fracpartial^2 S^1/ppartial z_i partial z_j
=(1-p)S^1/p-2 left( z_i^p-1z_j^p-1 - S z_i^p-2 delta_ij right).
$$
So the Hessian matrix is given by $H=(1-p)S^1/p-2 D(uu^T-SI)D$, where $u=(z_1^p/2,ldots,z_n^p/2)^T$ and $D=operatornamediag(z_1^p/2-1,ldots,z_n^p/2-1)$. As the eigenvalues of the matrix $uu^T-SI$ are $0$ (simple eigenvalue) and $-S$ (with multiplicity $n-1$), $H$ is negative semidefinite.






share|cite|improve this answer














The convex function $j$ of a concave function $i$ is not necessarily concave. For example, if $j$ is strictly convex and $i$ is a constant function, then $jcirc i$ is strictly convex.



In your case, the $p$-"norm" is concave when $p<1$ because the Hessian matrix is negative semidefinite. More specifically, let $S=sum z_i^p$. Then
$$
fracpartial^2 S^1/ppartial z_i partial z_j
=(1-p)S^1/p-2 left( z_i^p-1z_j^p-1 - S z_i^p-2 delta_ij right).
$$
So the Hessian matrix is given by $H=(1-p)S^1/p-2 D(uu^T-SI)D$, where $u=(z_1^p/2,ldots,z_n^p/2)^T$ and $D=operatornamediag(z_1^p/2-1,ldots,z_n^p/2-1)$. As the eigenvalues of the matrix $uu^T-SI$ are $0$ (simple eigenvalue) and $-S$ (with multiplicity $n-1$), $H$ is negative semidefinite.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Sep 4 at 9:40

























answered Mar 6 '13 at 7:29









user1551

67.2k565123




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  • Boom. Awesome. Thanks for your help, user1551 :)
    – Mike Roberts
    Mar 6 '13 at 7:54










  • is this function concave for $p< 1$?
    – L.F. Cavenaghi
    Sep 2 at 2:50






  • 1




    @L.F.Cavenaghi Oh, you mean $ple0$? Yes it's concave and the same reasoning applies. I had $0<p<1$ in the original edit because that was what the OP asked about.
    – user1551
    Sep 4 at 9:42










  • @user1551, thank you very much.
    – L.F. Cavenaghi
    Sep 4 at 19:33
















  • Boom. Awesome. Thanks for your help, user1551 :)
    – Mike Roberts
    Mar 6 '13 at 7:54










  • is this function concave for $p< 1$?
    – L.F. Cavenaghi
    Sep 2 at 2:50






  • 1




    @L.F.Cavenaghi Oh, you mean $ple0$? Yes it's concave and the same reasoning applies. I had $0<p<1$ in the original edit because that was what the OP asked about.
    – user1551
    Sep 4 at 9:42










  • @user1551, thank you very much.
    – L.F. Cavenaghi
    Sep 4 at 19:33















Boom. Awesome. Thanks for your help, user1551 :)
– Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:54




Boom. Awesome. Thanks for your help, user1551 :)
– Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:54












is this function concave for $p< 1$?
– L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 2 at 2:50




is this function concave for $p< 1$?
– L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 2 at 2:50




1




1




@L.F.Cavenaghi Oh, you mean $ple0$? Yes it's concave and the same reasoning applies. I had $0<p<1$ in the original edit because that was what the OP asked about.
– user1551
Sep 4 at 9:42




@L.F.Cavenaghi Oh, you mean $ple0$? Yes it's concave and the same reasoning applies. I had $0<p<1$ in the original edit because that was what the OP asked about.
– user1551
Sep 4 at 9:42












@user1551, thank you very much.
– L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 4 at 19:33




@user1551, thank you very much.
– L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 4 at 19:33

















 

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