Why is this composition of concave and convex functions concave?
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Please forgive my ignorance. I have a quick silly question about a statement given without proof in Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe (page 87).
Suppose $mathbbR_+^n$ is the set of vectors $v$ such that every coordinate of $v$ is real-valued and non-negative. Suppose $z in mathbbR_+^n$. Suppose that $z_i$ refers to the $i^th$ coordinate of $z$. Suppose $x$ is a scalar such that $x geq 0$ and suppose that $p$ is a scalar such that $0 < p leq 1$.
Consider the functions,
beginalign
i(z) & = sum_i=1^n z_i^p
\\
j(x) & = x^frac1p
endalign
Boyd and Vandenberghe claim without proof that the function,
$$h(z) = j(i(z))=left( sum_i=1^n z_i^p right)^frac1p$$
is a concave function of $z$. Why is this true?
I understand that $z_i^p$ is a non-decreasing concave function of $z_i$. Therefore $i(z)$ is a concave function of $z$. I also understand that $j(x)$ is a non-decreasing convex function of $x$.
However, this is where my understanding breaks down. Since $i(z)$ is concave and non-decreasing in each $z_i$, but $j(x)$ is convex, I don't know of any composition rule I can apply to arrive at the conclusion that $h(z)$ is concave. What am I missing?
convex-analysis convex-optimization
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up vote
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Please forgive my ignorance. I have a quick silly question about a statement given without proof in Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe (page 87).
Suppose $mathbbR_+^n$ is the set of vectors $v$ such that every coordinate of $v$ is real-valued and non-negative. Suppose $z in mathbbR_+^n$. Suppose that $z_i$ refers to the $i^th$ coordinate of $z$. Suppose $x$ is a scalar such that $x geq 0$ and suppose that $p$ is a scalar such that $0 < p leq 1$.
Consider the functions,
beginalign
i(z) & = sum_i=1^n z_i^p
\\
j(x) & = x^frac1p
endalign
Boyd and Vandenberghe claim without proof that the function,
$$h(z) = j(i(z))=left( sum_i=1^n z_i^p right)^frac1p$$
is a concave function of $z$. Why is this true?
I understand that $z_i^p$ is a non-decreasing concave function of $z_i$. Therefore $i(z)$ is a concave function of $z$. I also understand that $j(x)$ is a non-decreasing convex function of $x$.
However, this is where my understanding breaks down. Since $i(z)$ is concave and non-decreasing in each $z_i$, but $j(x)$ is convex, I don't know of any composition rule I can apply to arrive at the conclusion that $h(z)$ is concave. What am I missing?
convex-analysis convex-optimization
For $p=1$, the function is convex (it is the $1$-norm on the positive quadrant).
â copper.hat
Mar 6 '13 at 7:28
I agree that for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex. Indeed, for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex and concave on the domain $mathbbR_+^n$. However, I still don't understand why $h(z)$ is concave when $0 < p < 1$. Thanks for your help, copper.hat :)
â Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:43
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
Please forgive my ignorance. I have a quick silly question about a statement given without proof in Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe (page 87).
Suppose $mathbbR_+^n$ is the set of vectors $v$ such that every coordinate of $v$ is real-valued and non-negative. Suppose $z in mathbbR_+^n$. Suppose that $z_i$ refers to the $i^th$ coordinate of $z$. Suppose $x$ is a scalar such that $x geq 0$ and suppose that $p$ is a scalar such that $0 < p leq 1$.
Consider the functions,
beginalign
i(z) & = sum_i=1^n z_i^p
\\
j(x) & = x^frac1p
endalign
Boyd and Vandenberghe claim without proof that the function,
$$h(z) = j(i(z))=left( sum_i=1^n z_i^p right)^frac1p$$
is a concave function of $z$. Why is this true?
I understand that $z_i^p$ is a non-decreasing concave function of $z_i$. Therefore $i(z)$ is a concave function of $z$. I also understand that $j(x)$ is a non-decreasing convex function of $x$.
However, this is where my understanding breaks down. Since $i(z)$ is concave and non-decreasing in each $z_i$, but $j(x)$ is convex, I don't know of any composition rule I can apply to arrive at the conclusion that $h(z)$ is concave. What am I missing?
convex-analysis convex-optimization
Please forgive my ignorance. I have a quick silly question about a statement given without proof in Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe (page 87).
Suppose $mathbbR_+^n$ is the set of vectors $v$ such that every coordinate of $v$ is real-valued and non-negative. Suppose $z in mathbbR_+^n$. Suppose that $z_i$ refers to the $i^th$ coordinate of $z$. Suppose $x$ is a scalar such that $x geq 0$ and suppose that $p$ is a scalar such that $0 < p leq 1$.
Consider the functions,
beginalign
i(z) & = sum_i=1^n z_i^p
\\
j(x) & = x^frac1p
endalign
Boyd and Vandenberghe claim without proof that the function,
$$h(z) = j(i(z))=left( sum_i=1^n z_i^p right)^frac1p$$
is a concave function of $z$. Why is this true?
I understand that $z_i^p$ is a non-decreasing concave function of $z_i$. Therefore $i(z)$ is a concave function of $z$. I also understand that $j(x)$ is a non-decreasing convex function of $x$.
However, this is where my understanding breaks down. Since $i(z)$ is concave and non-decreasing in each $z_i$, but $j(x)$ is convex, I don't know of any composition rule I can apply to arrive at the conclusion that $h(z)$ is concave. What am I missing?
convex-analysis convex-optimization
convex-analysis convex-optimization
edited Mar 6 '13 at 6:25
asked Mar 6 '13 at 6:19
Mike Roberts
12815
12815
For $p=1$, the function is convex (it is the $1$-norm on the positive quadrant).
â copper.hat
Mar 6 '13 at 7:28
I agree that for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex. Indeed, for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex and concave on the domain $mathbbR_+^n$. However, I still don't understand why $h(z)$ is concave when $0 < p < 1$. Thanks for your help, copper.hat :)
â Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:43
add a comment |Â
For $p=1$, the function is convex (it is the $1$-norm on the positive quadrant).
â copper.hat
Mar 6 '13 at 7:28
I agree that for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex. Indeed, for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex and concave on the domain $mathbbR_+^n$. However, I still don't understand why $h(z)$ is concave when $0 < p < 1$. Thanks for your help, copper.hat :)
â Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:43
For $p=1$, the function is convex (it is the $1$-norm on the positive quadrant).
â copper.hat
Mar 6 '13 at 7:28
For $p=1$, the function is convex (it is the $1$-norm on the positive quadrant).
â copper.hat
Mar 6 '13 at 7:28
I agree that for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex. Indeed, for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex and concave on the domain $mathbbR_+^n$. However, I still don't understand why $h(z)$ is concave when $0 < p < 1$. Thanks for your help, copper.hat :)
â Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:43
I agree that for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex. Indeed, for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex and concave on the domain $mathbbR_+^n$. However, I still don't understand why $h(z)$ is concave when $0 < p < 1$. Thanks for your help, copper.hat :)
â Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:43
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
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The convex function $j$ of a concave function $i$ is not necessarily concave. For example, if $j$ is strictly convex and $i$ is a constant function, then $jcirc i$ is strictly convex.
In your case, the $p$-"norm" is concave when $p<1$ because the Hessian matrix is negative semidefinite. More specifically, let $S=sum z_i^p$. Then
$$
fracpartial^2 S^1/ppartial z_i partial z_j
=(1-p)S^1/p-2 left( z_i^p-1z_j^p-1 - S z_i^p-2 delta_ij right).
$$
So the Hessian matrix is given by $H=(1-p)S^1/p-2 D(uu^T-SI)D$, where $u=(z_1^p/2,ldots,z_n^p/2)^T$ and $D=operatornamediag(z_1^p/2-1,ldots,z_n^p/2-1)$. As the eigenvalues of the matrix $uu^T-SI$ are $0$ (simple eigenvalue) and $-S$ (with multiplicity $n-1$), $H$ is negative semidefinite.
Boom. Awesome. Thanks for your help, user1551 :)
â Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:54
is this function concave for $p< 1$?
â L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 2 at 2:50
1
@L.F.Cavenaghi Oh, you mean $ple0$? Yes it's concave and the same reasoning applies. I had $0<p<1$ in the original edit because that was what the OP asked about.
â user1551
Sep 4 at 9:42
@user1551, thank you very much.
â L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 4 at 19:33
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The convex function $j$ of a concave function $i$ is not necessarily concave. For example, if $j$ is strictly convex and $i$ is a constant function, then $jcirc i$ is strictly convex.
In your case, the $p$-"norm" is concave when $p<1$ because the Hessian matrix is negative semidefinite. More specifically, let $S=sum z_i^p$. Then
$$
fracpartial^2 S^1/ppartial z_i partial z_j
=(1-p)S^1/p-2 left( z_i^p-1z_j^p-1 - S z_i^p-2 delta_ij right).
$$
So the Hessian matrix is given by $H=(1-p)S^1/p-2 D(uu^T-SI)D$, where $u=(z_1^p/2,ldots,z_n^p/2)^T$ and $D=operatornamediag(z_1^p/2-1,ldots,z_n^p/2-1)$. As the eigenvalues of the matrix $uu^T-SI$ are $0$ (simple eigenvalue) and $-S$ (with multiplicity $n-1$), $H$ is negative semidefinite.
Boom. Awesome. Thanks for your help, user1551 :)
â Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:54
is this function concave for $p< 1$?
â L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 2 at 2:50
1
@L.F.Cavenaghi Oh, you mean $ple0$? Yes it's concave and the same reasoning applies. I had $0<p<1$ in the original edit because that was what the OP asked about.
â user1551
Sep 4 at 9:42
@user1551, thank you very much.
â L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 4 at 19:33
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The convex function $j$ of a concave function $i$ is not necessarily concave. For example, if $j$ is strictly convex and $i$ is a constant function, then $jcirc i$ is strictly convex.
In your case, the $p$-"norm" is concave when $p<1$ because the Hessian matrix is negative semidefinite. More specifically, let $S=sum z_i^p$. Then
$$
fracpartial^2 S^1/ppartial z_i partial z_j
=(1-p)S^1/p-2 left( z_i^p-1z_j^p-1 - S z_i^p-2 delta_ij right).
$$
So the Hessian matrix is given by $H=(1-p)S^1/p-2 D(uu^T-SI)D$, where $u=(z_1^p/2,ldots,z_n^p/2)^T$ and $D=operatornamediag(z_1^p/2-1,ldots,z_n^p/2-1)$. As the eigenvalues of the matrix $uu^T-SI$ are $0$ (simple eigenvalue) and $-S$ (with multiplicity $n-1$), $H$ is negative semidefinite.
Boom. Awesome. Thanks for your help, user1551 :)
â Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:54
is this function concave for $p< 1$?
â L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 2 at 2:50
1
@L.F.Cavenaghi Oh, you mean $ple0$? Yes it's concave and the same reasoning applies. I had $0<p<1$ in the original edit because that was what the OP asked about.
â user1551
Sep 4 at 9:42
@user1551, thank you very much.
â L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 4 at 19:33
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The convex function $j$ of a concave function $i$ is not necessarily concave. For example, if $j$ is strictly convex and $i$ is a constant function, then $jcirc i$ is strictly convex.
In your case, the $p$-"norm" is concave when $p<1$ because the Hessian matrix is negative semidefinite. More specifically, let $S=sum z_i^p$. Then
$$
fracpartial^2 S^1/ppartial z_i partial z_j
=(1-p)S^1/p-2 left( z_i^p-1z_j^p-1 - S z_i^p-2 delta_ij right).
$$
So the Hessian matrix is given by $H=(1-p)S^1/p-2 D(uu^T-SI)D$, where $u=(z_1^p/2,ldots,z_n^p/2)^T$ and $D=operatornamediag(z_1^p/2-1,ldots,z_n^p/2-1)$. As the eigenvalues of the matrix $uu^T-SI$ are $0$ (simple eigenvalue) and $-S$ (with multiplicity $n-1$), $H$ is negative semidefinite.
The convex function $j$ of a concave function $i$ is not necessarily concave. For example, if $j$ is strictly convex and $i$ is a constant function, then $jcirc i$ is strictly convex.
In your case, the $p$-"norm" is concave when $p<1$ because the Hessian matrix is negative semidefinite. More specifically, let $S=sum z_i^p$. Then
$$
fracpartial^2 S^1/ppartial z_i partial z_j
=(1-p)S^1/p-2 left( z_i^p-1z_j^p-1 - S z_i^p-2 delta_ij right).
$$
So the Hessian matrix is given by $H=(1-p)S^1/p-2 D(uu^T-SI)D$, where $u=(z_1^p/2,ldots,z_n^p/2)^T$ and $D=operatornamediag(z_1^p/2-1,ldots,z_n^p/2-1)$. As the eigenvalues of the matrix $uu^T-SI$ are $0$ (simple eigenvalue) and $-S$ (with multiplicity $n-1$), $H$ is negative semidefinite.
edited Sep 4 at 9:40
answered Mar 6 '13 at 7:29
user1551
67.2k565123
67.2k565123
Boom. Awesome. Thanks for your help, user1551 :)
â Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:54
is this function concave for $p< 1$?
â L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 2 at 2:50
1
@L.F.Cavenaghi Oh, you mean $ple0$? Yes it's concave and the same reasoning applies. I had $0<p<1$ in the original edit because that was what the OP asked about.
â user1551
Sep 4 at 9:42
@user1551, thank you very much.
â L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 4 at 19:33
add a comment |Â
Boom. Awesome. Thanks for your help, user1551 :)
â Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:54
is this function concave for $p< 1$?
â L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 2 at 2:50
1
@L.F.Cavenaghi Oh, you mean $ple0$? Yes it's concave and the same reasoning applies. I had $0<p<1$ in the original edit because that was what the OP asked about.
â user1551
Sep 4 at 9:42
@user1551, thank you very much.
â L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 4 at 19:33
Boom. Awesome. Thanks for your help, user1551 :)
â Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:54
Boom. Awesome. Thanks for your help, user1551 :)
â Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:54
is this function concave for $p< 1$?
â L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 2 at 2:50
is this function concave for $p< 1$?
â L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 2 at 2:50
1
1
@L.F.Cavenaghi Oh, you mean $ple0$? Yes it's concave and the same reasoning applies. I had $0<p<1$ in the original edit because that was what the OP asked about.
â user1551
Sep 4 at 9:42
@L.F.Cavenaghi Oh, you mean $ple0$? Yes it's concave and the same reasoning applies. I had $0<p<1$ in the original edit because that was what the OP asked about.
â user1551
Sep 4 at 9:42
@user1551, thank you very much.
â L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 4 at 19:33
@user1551, thank you very much.
â L.F. Cavenaghi
Sep 4 at 19:33
add a comment |Â
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For $p=1$, the function is convex (it is the $1$-norm on the positive quadrant).
â copper.hat
Mar 6 '13 at 7:28
I agree that for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex. Indeed, for $p = 1$, $h(z)$ is convex and concave on the domain $mathbbR_+^n$. However, I still don't understand why $h(z)$ is concave when $0 < p < 1$. Thanks for your help, copper.hat :)
â Mike Roberts
Mar 6 '13 at 7:43