Group Order and Least Common Multiple
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Let $G_1,G_2,...,G_n$ be groups. Show that the order of an element $(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ $in$ $G_1 times G_2 timescdotstimes G_n$ is lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))$.
I know I need to use the fact that the least common multiple of positive integers $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ is the unique positive multiple of $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ that divides all other such multiples.
Note on notation: for the case where $o(a_i)=aleph_0$ one defines lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))=aleph_0$
I was looking at this question but I'm not sure if I can assume the groups are abelian in my case.
Any advice would be greatly appreciated! Thanks.
group-theory
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up vote
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Let $G_1,G_2,...,G_n$ be groups. Show that the order of an element $(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ $in$ $G_1 times G_2 timescdotstimes G_n$ is lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))$.
I know I need to use the fact that the least common multiple of positive integers $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ is the unique positive multiple of $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ that divides all other such multiples.
Note on notation: for the case where $o(a_i)=aleph_0$ one defines lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))=aleph_0$
I was looking at this question but I'm not sure if I can assume the groups are abelian in my case.
Any advice would be greatly appreciated! Thanks.
group-theory
1
Fortunately, even if the groups are not abelian, anything in any of the factors will commute with anything in a different factor. So the same type of argument applies.
â Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 20 '14 at 14:16
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up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Let $G_1,G_2,...,G_n$ be groups. Show that the order of an element $(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ $in$ $G_1 times G_2 timescdotstimes G_n$ is lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))$.
I know I need to use the fact that the least common multiple of positive integers $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ is the unique positive multiple of $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ that divides all other such multiples.
Note on notation: for the case where $o(a_i)=aleph_0$ one defines lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))=aleph_0$
I was looking at this question but I'm not sure if I can assume the groups are abelian in my case.
Any advice would be greatly appreciated! Thanks.
group-theory
Let $G_1,G_2,...,G_n$ be groups. Show that the order of an element $(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ $in$ $G_1 times G_2 timescdotstimes G_n$ is lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))$.
I know I need to use the fact that the least common multiple of positive integers $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ is the unique positive multiple of $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ that divides all other such multiples.
Note on notation: for the case where $o(a_i)=aleph_0$ one defines lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))=aleph_0$
I was looking at this question but I'm not sure if I can assume the groups are abelian in my case.
Any advice would be greatly appreciated! Thanks.
group-theory
group-theory
edited Sep 4 at 9:02
José Carlos Santos
122k16101186
122k16101186
asked Feb 20 '14 at 14:14
user2553807
590726
590726
1
Fortunately, even if the groups are not abelian, anything in any of the factors will commute with anything in a different factor. So the same type of argument applies.
â Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 20 '14 at 14:16
add a comment |Â
1
Fortunately, even if the groups are not abelian, anything in any of the factors will commute with anything in a different factor. So the same type of argument applies.
â Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 20 '14 at 14:16
1
1
Fortunately, even if the groups are not abelian, anything in any of the factors will commute with anything in a different factor. So the same type of argument applies.
â Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 20 '14 at 14:16
Fortunately, even if the groups are not abelian, anything in any of the factors will commute with anything in a different factor. So the same type of argument applies.
â Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 20 '14 at 14:16
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
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The best way I know to do this is by induction, it's one of those nice cases where $n=1$ isn't saying anything, and the inductive step for general $n$ is really just the inductive step for $n=2$, since $G_1times dots times G_n=(G_1times dots times G_n-1)times G_n$ and:
lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n)=$ lcm$($lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n-1),a_n))$
So, can you show that $o(g_1,g_2) = lcm(o(g_1),o(g_2))$? Clearly if one of the $g_i$ has infinite order, then so does $(g_1,g_2)$, so that just leaves the finite case. Remember that if the order of an element $g$ is $d$, then $g^n=1 iff d|n$.
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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active
oldest
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active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
The best way I know to do this is by induction, it's one of those nice cases where $n=1$ isn't saying anything, and the inductive step for general $n$ is really just the inductive step for $n=2$, since $G_1times dots times G_n=(G_1times dots times G_n-1)times G_n$ and:
lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n)=$ lcm$($lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n-1),a_n))$
So, can you show that $o(g_1,g_2) = lcm(o(g_1),o(g_2))$? Clearly if one of the $g_i$ has infinite order, then so does $(g_1,g_2)$, so that just leaves the finite case. Remember that if the order of an element $g$ is $d$, then $g^n=1 iff d|n$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
The best way I know to do this is by induction, it's one of those nice cases where $n=1$ isn't saying anything, and the inductive step for general $n$ is really just the inductive step for $n=2$, since $G_1times dots times G_n=(G_1times dots times G_n-1)times G_n$ and:
lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n)=$ lcm$($lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n-1),a_n))$
So, can you show that $o(g_1,g_2) = lcm(o(g_1),o(g_2))$? Clearly if one of the $g_i$ has infinite order, then so does $(g_1,g_2)$, so that just leaves the finite case. Remember that if the order of an element $g$ is $d$, then $g^n=1 iff d|n$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
The best way I know to do this is by induction, it's one of those nice cases where $n=1$ isn't saying anything, and the inductive step for general $n$ is really just the inductive step for $n=2$, since $G_1times dots times G_n=(G_1times dots times G_n-1)times G_n$ and:
lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n)=$ lcm$($lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n-1),a_n))$
So, can you show that $o(g_1,g_2) = lcm(o(g_1),o(g_2))$? Clearly if one of the $g_i$ has infinite order, then so does $(g_1,g_2)$, so that just leaves the finite case. Remember that if the order of an element $g$ is $d$, then $g^n=1 iff d|n$.
The best way I know to do this is by induction, it's one of those nice cases where $n=1$ isn't saying anything, and the inductive step for general $n$ is really just the inductive step for $n=2$, since $G_1times dots times G_n=(G_1times dots times G_n-1)times G_n$ and:
lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n)=$ lcm$($lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n-1),a_n))$
So, can you show that $o(g_1,g_2) = lcm(o(g_1),o(g_2))$? Clearly if one of the $g_i$ has infinite order, then so does $(g_1,g_2)$, so that just leaves the finite case. Remember that if the order of an element $g$ is $d$, then $g^n=1 iff d|n$.
answered Feb 20 '14 at 16:23
Tom Oldfield
9,26711758
9,26711758
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1
Fortunately, even if the groups are not abelian, anything in any of the factors will commute with anything in a different factor. So the same type of argument applies.
â Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 20 '14 at 14:16