Group Order and Least Common Multiple

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Let $G_1,G_2,...,G_n$ be groups. Show that the order of an element $(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ $in$ $G_1 times G_2 timescdotstimes G_n$ is lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))$.




I know I need to use the fact that the least common multiple of positive integers $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ is the unique positive multiple of $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ that divides all other such multiples.



Note on notation: for the case where $o(a_i)=aleph_0$ one defines lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))=aleph_0$



I was looking at this question but I'm not sure if I can assume the groups are abelian in my case.



Any advice would be greatly appreciated! Thanks.










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    Fortunately, even if the groups are not abelian, anything in any of the factors will commute with anything in a different factor. So the same type of argument applies.
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Feb 20 '14 at 14:16














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Let $G_1,G_2,...,G_n$ be groups. Show that the order of an element $(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ $in$ $G_1 times G_2 timescdotstimes G_n$ is lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))$.




I know I need to use the fact that the least common multiple of positive integers $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ is the unique positive multiple of $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ that divides all other such multiples.



Note on notation: for the case where $o(a_i)=aleph_0$ one defines lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))=aleph_0$



I was looking at this question but I'm not sure if I can assume the groups are abelian in my case.



Any advice would be greatly appreciated! Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question



















  • 1




    Fortunately, even if the groups are not abelian, anything in any of the factors will commute with anything in a different factor. So the same type of argument applies.
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Feb 20 '14 at 14:16












up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1






1






Let $G_1,G_2,...,G_n$ be groups. Show that the order of an element $(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ $in$ $G_1 times G_2 timescdotstimes G_n$ is lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))$.




I know I need to use the fact that the least common multiple of positive integers $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ is the unique positive multiple of $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ that divides all other such multiples.



Note on notation: for the case where $o(a_i)=aleph_0$ one defines lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))=aleph_0$



I was looking at this question but I'm not sure if I can assume the groups are abelian in my case.



Any advice would be greatly appreciated! Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question
















Let $G_1,G_2,...,G_n$ be groups. Show that the order of an element $(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ $in$ $G_1 times G_2 timescdotstimes G_n$ is lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))$.




I know I need to use the fact that the least common multiple of positive integers $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ is the unique positive multiple of $x_1,x_2,...,x_n$ that divides all other such multiples.



Note on notation: for the case where $o(a_i)=aleph_0$ one defines lcm($o(a_1),...,o(a_n))=aleph_0$



I was looking at this question but I'm not sure if I can assume the groups are abelian in my case.



Any advice would be greatly appreciated! Thanks.







group-theory






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edited Sep 4 at 9:02









José Carlos Santos

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asked Feb 20 '14 at 14:14









user2553807

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  • 1




    Fortunately, even if the groups are not abelian, anything in any of the factors will commute with anything in a different factor. So the same type of argument applies.
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Feb 20 '14 at 14:16












  • 1




    Fortunately, even if the groups are not abelian, anything in any of the factors will commute with anything in a different factor. So the same type of argument applies.
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Feb 20 '14 at 14:16







1




1




Fortunately, even if the groups are not abelian, anything in any of the factors will commute with anything in a different factor. So the same type of argument applies.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 20 '14 at 14:16




Fortunately, even if the groups are not abelian, anything in any of the factors will commute with anything in a different factor. So the same type of argument applies.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 20 '14 at 14:16










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The best way I know to do this is by induction, it's one of those nice cases where $n=1$ isn't saying anything, and the inductive step for general $n$ is really just the inductive step for $n=2$, since $G_1times dots times G_n=(G_1times dots times G_n-1)times G_n$ and:



lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n)=$ lcm$($lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n-1),a_n))$



So, can you show that $o(g_1,g_2) = lcm(o(g_1),o(g_2))$? Clearly if one of the $g_i$ has infinite order, then so does $(g_1,g_2)$, so that just leaves the finite case. Remember that if the order of an element $g$ is $d$, then $g^n=1 iff d|n$.






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    The best way I know to do this is by induction, it's one of those nice cases where $n=1$ isn't saying anything, and the inductive step for general $n$ is really just the inductive step for $n=2$, since $G_1times dots times G_n=(G_1times dots times G_n-1)times G_n$ and:



    lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n)=$ lcm$($lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n-1),a_n))$



    So, can you show that $o(g_1,g_2) = lcm(o(g_1),o(g_2))$? Clearly if one of the $g_i$ has infinite order, then so does $(g_1,g_2)$, so that just leaves the finite case. Remember that if the order of an element $g$ is $d$, then $g^n=1 iff d|n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      2
      down vote













      The best way I know to do this is by induction, it's one of those nice cases where $n=1$ isn't saying anything, and the inductive step for general $n$ is really just the inductive step for $n=2$, since $G_1times dots times G_n=(G_1times dots times G_n-1)times G_n$ and:



      lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n)=$ lcm$($lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n-1),a_n))$



      So, can you show that $o(g_1,g_2) = lcm(o(g_1),o(g_2))$? Clearly if one of the $g_i$ has infinite order, then so does $(g_1,g_2)$, so that just leaves the finite case. Remember that if the order of an element $g$ is $d$, then $g^n=1 iff d|n$.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        2
        down vote










        up vote
        2
        down vote









        The best way I know to do this is by induction, it's one of those nice cases where $n=1$ isn't saying anything, and the inductive step for general $n$ is really just the inductive step for $n=2$, since $G_1times dots times G_n=(G_1times dots times G_n-1)times G_n$ and:



        lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n)=$ lcm$($lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n-1),a_n))$



        So, can you show that $o(g_1,g_2) = lcm(o(g_1),o(g_2))$? Clearly if one of the $g_i$ has infinite order, then so does $(g_1,g_2)$, so that just leaves the finite case. Remember that if the order of an element $g$ is $d$, then $g^n=1 iff d|n$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        The best way I know to do this is by induction, it's one of those nice cases where $n=1$ isn't saying anything, and the inductive step for general $n$ is really just the inductive step for $n=2$, since $G_1times dots times G_n=(G_1times dots times G_n-1)times G_n$ and:



        lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n)=$ lcm$($lcm$(a_1,dots,a_n-1),a_n))$



        So, can you show that $o(g_1,g_2) = lcm(o(g_1),o(g_2))$? Clearly if one of the $g_i$ has infinite order, then so does $(g_1,g_2)$, so that just leaves the finite case. Remember that if the order of an element $g$ is $d$, then $g^n=1 iff d|n$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Feb 20 '14 at 16:23









        Tom Oldfield

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