Prove formally that a sequence $a_n = 1/n$ converges to $0$. [closed]
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Prove formally that a sequence $a_n = 1/n$ converges to $0$ using formal definition of continuity.
probability-theory
closed as off-topic by amWhy, Adrian Keister, José Carlos Santos, Delta-u, Theoretical Economist Sep 5 at 1:43
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
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Prove formally that a sequence $a_n = 1/n$ converges to $0$ using formal definition of continuity.
probability-theory
closed as off-topic by amWhy, Adrian Keister, José Carlos Santos, Delta-u, Theoretical Economist Sep 5 at 1:43
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â amWhy, Adrian Keister, José Carlos Santos, Delta-u, Theoretical Economist
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Have you heard of Archimedean property?
â Devendra Singh Rana
Sep 4 at 11:12
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up vote
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down vote
favorite
Prove formally that a sequence $a_n = 1/n$ converges to $0$ using formal definition of continuity.
probability-theory
Prove formally that a sequence $a_n = 1/n$ converges to $0$ using formal definition of continuity.
probability-theory
probability-theory
edited Sep 4 at 11:12
asked Sep 4 at 11:08
Chintu
779
779
closed as off-topic by amWhy, Adrian Keister, José Carlos Santos, Delta-u, Theoretical Economist Sep 5 at 1:43
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â amWhy, Adrian Keister, José Carlos Santos, Delta-u, Theoretical Economist
closed as off-topic by amWhy, Adrian Keister, José Carlos Santos, Delta-u, Theoretical Economist Sep 5 at 1:43
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â amWhy, Adrian Keister, José Carlos Santos, Delta-u, Theoretical Economist
2
Have you heard of Archimedean property?
â Devendra Singh Rana
Sep 4 at 11:12
add a comment |Â
2
Have you heard of Archimedean property?
â Devendra Singh Rana
Sep 4 at 11:12
2
2
Have you heard of Archimedean property?
â Devendra Singh Rana
Sep 4 at 11:12
Have you heard of Archimedean property?
â Devendra Singh Rana
Sep 4 at 11:12
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
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To say that $1/n$ converges to $0$ is to say that you can make the difference
$$vert frac1n -0 vert = vert frac1n vert = frac1n$$
less than any $epsilon$, no matter how small, just by taking a big enough $n$, going far enough in the sequence.
Now if $epsilon$ is arbitrary, what $n$ do you have to choose to make sure that
$$frac1n < epsilon quad text?$$
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The sequence $a_n_n=1^infty$, where $a_n$ is defined as $a_n=frac1n$, is a convergent sequence. You can prove the fact that it is convergent with a limit of $L$ by showing that
For every $epsilon > 0$, there exists some $Ninmathbb N$ such that for every $n>N$, the inequality $|a_n-L|<epsilon$
On the other hand, the series
$$sum_i=1^infty frac 1n$$ is divergent. This is because the sequence $S_n_n=1^infty$, defined as $$S_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1i$$ is divergent.
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Proof
For any $varepsilon>0$, there exists a $N=[1/varepsilon]+1$ (where $[cdots]$ denotes the floor integer function) such that $$big|frac1n-0big|=frac1n<frac1N=frac1[1/varepsilon]+1<frac11/varepsilon=varepsilon$$ when $n>N.$ Thus, by the definition of the sequence limit, we are done.
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
To say that $1/n$ converges to $0$ is to say that you can make the difference
$$vert frac1n -0 vert = vert frac1n vert = frac1n$$
less than any $epsilon$, no matter how small, just by taking a big enough $n$, going far enough in the sequence.
Now if $epsilon$ is arbitrary, what $n$ do you have to choose to make sure that
$$frac1n < epsilon quad text?$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
To say that $1/n$ converges to $0$ is to say that you can make the difference
$$vert frac1n -0 vert = vert frac1n vert = frac1n$$
less than any $epsilon$, no matter how small, just by taking a big enough $n$, going far enough in the sequence.
Now if $epsilon$ is arbitrary, what $n$ do you have to choose to make sure that
$$frac1n < epsilon quad text?$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
To say that $1/n$ converges to $0$ is to say that you can make the difference
$$vert frac1n -0 vert = vert frac1n vert = frac1n$$
less than any $epsilon$, no matter how small, just by taking a big enough $n$, going far enough in the sequence.
Now if $epsilon$ is arbitrary, what $n$ do you have to choose to make sure that
$$frac1n < epsilon quad text?$$
To say that $1/n$ converges to $0$ is to say that you can make the difference
$$vert frac1n -0 vert = vert frac1n vert = frac1n$$
less than any $epsilon$, no matter how small, just by taking a big enough $n$, going far enough in the sequence.
Now if $epsilon$ is arbitrary, what $n$ do you have to choose to make sure that
$$frac1n < epsilon quad text?$$
answered Sep 4 at 11:22
JuliusL33t
1,260817
1,260817
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The sequence $a_n_n=1^infty$, where $a_n$ is defined as $a_n=frac1n$, is a convergent sequence. You can prove the fact that it is convergent with a limit of $L$ by showing that
For every $epsilon > 0$, there exists some $Ninmathbb N$ such that for every $n>N$, the inequality $|a_n-L|<epsilon$
On the other hand, the series
$$sum_i=1^infty frac 1n$$ is divergent. This is because the sequence $S_n_n=1^infty$, defined as $$S_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1i$$ is divergent.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
The sequence $a_n_n=1^infty$, where $a_n$ is defined as $a_n=frac1n$, is a convergent sequence. You can prove the fact that it is convergent with a limit of $L$ by showing that
For every $epsilon > 0$, there exists some $Ninmathbb N$ such that for every $n>N$, the inequality $|a_n-L|<epsilon$
On the other hand, the series
$$sum_i=1^infty frac 1n$$ is divergent. This is because the sequence $S_n_n=1^infty$, defined as $$S_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1i$$ is divergent.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
The sequence $a_n_n=1^infty$, where $a_n$ is defined as $a_n=frac1n$, is a convergent sequence. You can prove the fact that it is convergent with a limit of $L$ by showing that
For every $epsilon > 0$, there exists some $Ninmathbb N$ such that for every $n>N$, the inequality $|a_n-L|<epsilon$
On the other hand, the series
$$sum_i=1^infty frac 1n$$ is divergent. This is because the sequence $S_n_n=1^infty$, defined as $$S_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1i$$ is divergent.
The sequence $a_n_n=1^infty$, where $a_n$ is defined as $a_n=frac1n$, is a convergent sequence. You can prove the fact that it is convergent with a limit of $L$ by showing that
For every $epsilon > 0$, there exists some $Ninmathbb N$ such that for every $n>N$, the inequality $|a_n-L|<epsilon$
On the other hand, the series
$$sum_i=1^infty frac 1n$$ is divergent. This is because the sequence $S_n_n=1^infty$, defined as $$S_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1i$$ is divergent.
answered Sep 4 at 11:13
5xum
83.1k384148
83.1k384148
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Proof
For any $varepsilon>0$, there exists a $N=[1/varepsilon]+1$ (where $[cdots]$ denotes the floor integer function) such that $$big|frac1n-0big|=frac1n<frac1N=frac1[1/varepsilon]+1<frac11/varepsilon=varepsilon$$ when $n>N.$ Thus, by the definition of the sequence limit, we are done.
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up vote
0
down vote
Proof
For any $varepsilon>0$, there exists a $N=[1/varepsilon]+1$ (where $[cdots]$ denotes the floor integer function) such that $$big|frac1n-0big|=frac1n<frac1N=frac1[1/varepsilon]+1<frac11/varepsilon=varepsilon$$ when $n>N.$ Thus, by the definition of the sequence limit, we are done.
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up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Proof
For any $varepsilon>0$, there exists a $N=[1/varepsilon]+1$ (where $[cdots]$ denotes the floor integer function) such that $$big|frac1n-0big|=frac1n<frac1N=frac1[1/varepsilon]+1<frac11/varepsilon=varepsilon$$ when $n>N.$ Thus, by the definition of the sequence limit, we are done.
Proof
For any $varepsilon>0$, there exists a $N=[1/varepsilon]+1$ (where $[cdots]$ denotes the floor integer function) such that $$big|frac1n-0big|=frac1n<frac1N=frac1[1/varepsilon]+1<frac11/varepsilon=varepsilon$$ when $n>N.$ Thus, by the definition of the sequence limit, we are done.
answered Sep 4 at 14:10
mengdie1982
3,824216
3,824216
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2
Have you heard of Archimedean property?
â Devendra Singh Rana
Sep 4 at 11:12