Proof that the universal first order calculus satisfies its' universal property in the noncommutative case.

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Recently I've been reading this paper, and in the first section on (differential calculus on associative algebras) they reference a theorem from Bourbaki's Algebra I Chapter 3. I have a problem with the proof of this theorem.



We consider a commutative ring $R$, and an associative $R$-algebra $A$.



Definition. If $Gamma$ is an $A$-bimodule, then we say a homomorphism $g:Arightarrow Gamma$ is a derivation of $A$ into $Gamma$ if $g(ab)=g(a)b+ag(b)$.



Definition. A first order calculus over $A$ is a pair $(B,d)$ where $d$ is a derivation of $A$ into $B$, and $B$ is the minimal left-$A$-module containing $operatornameimd$.



Then, we define an $A$-bimodule homomorphism $$
beginaligned
mu:Aotimes_R A&rightarrow A\
sum_iin Ia_iotimes b_i&mapsto sum_iin Ia_i b_i. \
endaligned
$$
We also define an $R$-linear map $$
beginaligned
d:A&longrightarrow operatornamekermusubset Aotimes_R A\
a&longmapsto 1otimes a - aotimes 1
endaligned
$$and it can be shown that $d$ is a derivation of $A$ into $operatornamekermu$ (we will call this kernel $I$ from now on).



Then the universal first order calculus over $A$ is the pair $(I,d)$.



What I would like to prove is this:



Theorem. For every first order differential calculus $(Gamma,g)$, there exists a unique epimorphism $p:Irightarrow Gamma$ such that $pcirc d=g$.



The paper references Bourbaki for this theorem, but I don't really follow the proof. The first thing I saw in Bourbaki was the claim "for any $A$-bimodule homomorphism $f:Irightarrow Gamma$, $fcirc d$ is a derivation of $A$ into $Gamma$" - which I don't understand at all. We would have that $$
beginaligned
fcirc d(ab)&=f(d(ab))\
&=f(d(a)b+ad(b))\
&=f(d(a)b)+f(ad(b))\
&=fcirc d(a)f(b)+f(a)fcirc d(b)
endaligned
$$but I don't see the logic behind this being a derivation unless we define the $A$ action using $f$.



Any help would be appreciated, thank you!










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    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    Recently I've been reading this paper, and in the first section on (differential calculus on associative algebras) they reference a theorem from Bourbaki's Algebra I Chapter 3. I have a problem with the proof of this theorem.



    We consider a commutative ring $R$, and an associative $R$-algebra $A$.



    Definition. If $Gamma$ is an $A$-bimodule, then we say a homomorphism $g:Arightarrow Gamma$ is a derivation of $A$ into $Gamma$ if $g(ab)=g(a)b+ag(b)$.



    Definition. A first order calculus over $A$ is a pair $(B,d)$ where $d$ is a derivation of $A$ into $B$, and $B$ is the minimal left-$A$-module containing $operatornameimd$.



    Then, we define an $A$-bimodule homomorphism $$
    beginaligned
    mu:Aotimes_R A&rightarrow A\
    sum_iin Ia_iotimes b_i&mapsto sum_iin Ia_i b_i. \
    endaligned
    $$
    We also define an $R$-linear map $$
    beginaligned
    d:A&longrightarrow operatornamekermusubset Aotimes_R A\
    a&longmapsto 1otimes a - aotimes 1
    endaligned
    $$and it can be shown that $d$ is a derivation of $A$ into $operatornamekermu$ (we will call this kernel $I$ from now on).



    Then the universal first order calculus over $A$ is the pair $(I,d)$.



    What I would like to prove is this:



    Theorem. For every first order differential calculus $(Gamma,g)$, there exists a unique epimorphism $p:Irightarrow Gamma$ such that $pcirc d=g$.



    The paper references Bourbaki for this theorem, but I don't really follow the proof. The first thing I saw in Bourbaki was the claim "for any $A$-bimodule homomorphism $f:Irightarrow Gamma$, $fcirc d$ is a derivation of $A$ into $Gamma$" - which I don't understand at all. We would have that $$
    beginaligned
    fcirc d(ab)&=f(d(ab))\
    &=f(d(a)b+ad(b))\
    &=f(d(a)b)+f(ad(b))\
    &=fcirc d(a)f(b)+f(a)fcirc d(b)
    endaligned
    $$but I don't see the logic behind this being a derivation unless we define the $A$ action using $f$.



    Any help would be appreciated, thank you!










    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Recently I've been reading this paper, and in the first section on (differential calculus on associative algebras) they reference a theorem from Bourbaki's Algebra I Chapter 3. I have a problem with the proof of this theorem.



      We consider a commutative ring $R$, and an associative $R$-algebra $A$.



      Definition. If $Gamma$ is an $A$-bimodule, then we say a homomorphism $g:Arightarrow Gamma$ is a derivation of $A$ into $Gamma$ if $g(ab)=g(a)b+ag(b)$.



      Definition. A first order calculus over $A$ is a pair $(B,d)$ where $d$ is a derivation of $A$ into $B$, and $B$ is the minimal left-$A$-module containing $operatornameimd$.



      Then, we define an $A$-bimodule homomorphism $$
      beginaligned
      mu:Aotimes_R A&rightarrow A\
      sum_iin Ia_iotimes b_i&mapsto sum_iin Ia_i b_i. \
      endaligned
      $$
      We also define an $R$-linear map $$
      beginaligned
      d:A&longrightarrow operatornamekermusubset Aotimes_R A\
      a&longmapsto 1otimes a - aotimes 1
      endaligned
      $$and it can be shown that $d$ is a derivation of $A$ into $operatornamekermu$ (we will call this kernel $I$ from now on).



      Then the universal first order calculus over $A$ is the pair $(I,d)$.



      What I would like to prove is this:



      Theorem. For every first order differential calculus $(Gamma,g)$, there exists a unique epimorphism $p:Irightarrow Gamma$ such that $pcirc d=g$.



      The paper references Bourbaki for this theorem, but I don't really follow the proof. The first thing I saw in Bourbaki was the claim "for any $A$-bimodule homomorphism $f:Irightarrow Gamma$, $fcirc d$ is a derivation of $A$ into $Gamma$" - which I don't understand at all. We would have that $$
      beginaligned
      fcirc d(ab)&=f(d(ab))\
      &=f(d(a)b+ad(b))\
      &=f(d(a)b)+f(ad(b))\
      &=fcirc d(a)f(b)+f(a)fcirc d(b)
      endaligned
      $$but I don't see the logic behind this being a derivation unless we define the $A$ action using $f$.



      Any help would be appreciated, thank you!










      share|cite|improve this question













      Recently I've been reading this paper, and in the first section on (differential calculus on associative algebras) they reference a theorem from Bourbaki's Algebra I Chapter 3. I have a problem with the proof of this theorem.



      We consider a commutative ring $R$, and an associative $R$-algebra $A$.



      Definition. If $Gamma$ is an $A$-bimodule, then we say a homomorphism $g:Arightarrow Gamma$ is a derivation of $A$ into $Gamma$ if $g(ab)=g(a)b+ag(b)$.



      Definition. A first order calculus over $A$ is a pair $(B,d)$ where $d$ is a derivation of $A$ into $B$, and $B$ is the minimal left-$A$-module containing $operatornameimd$.



      Then, we define an $A$-bimodule homomorphism $$
      beginaligned
      mu:Aotimes_R A&rightarrow A\
      sum_iin Ia_iotimes b_i&mapsto sum_iin Ia_i b_i. \
      endaligned
      $$
      We also define an $R$-linear map $$
      beginaligned
      d:A&longrightarrow operatornamekermusubset Aotimes_R A\
      a&longmapsto 1otimes a - aotimes 1
      endaligned
      $$and it can be shown that $d$ is a derivation of $A$ into $operatornamekermu$ (we will call this kernel $I$ from now on).



      Then the universal first order calculus over $A$ is the pair $(I,d)$.



      What I would like to prove is this:



      Theorem. For every first order differential calculus $(Gamma,g)$, there exists a unique epimorphism $p:Irightarrow Gamma$ such that $pcirc d=g$.



      The paper references Bourbaki for this theorem, but I don't really follow the proof. The first thing I saw in Bourbaki was the claim "for any $A$-bimodule homomorphism $f:Irightarrow Gamma$, $fcirc d$ is a derivation of $A$ into $Gamma$" - which I don't understand at all. We would have that $$
      beginaligned
      fcirc d(ab)&=f(d(ab))\
      &=f(d(a)b+ad(b))\
      &=f(d(a)b)+f(ad(b))\
      &=fcirc d(a)f(b)+f(a)fcirc d(b)
      endaligned
      $$but I don't see the logic behind this being a derivation unless we define the $A$ action using $f$.



      Any help would be appreciated, thank you!







      abstract-algebra differential-algebra






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      asked Sep 4 at 12:10









      Floyd Everest

      1367




      1367




















          1 Answer
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          The last line of your calculation is incorrect: $f$ is not a map of algebras, it is a map of bimodules. This means that
          $$
          f(ax)=af(x);;;mboxand;;;f(xa)=f(x)a
          $$
          for all $xin I$ and $ain A$. Therefore, the last line in your calculation should be
          $$
          (fcirc d)(ab)=(fcirc d)(a)b+a(fcirc d)(b).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Of course - I feel quite silly now. Thank you very much!
            – Floyd Everest
            Sep 5 at 9:16











          Your Answer




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          1 Answer
          1






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          active

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          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          The last line of your calculation is incorrect: $f$ is not a map of algebras, it is a map of bimodules. This means that
          $$
          f(ax)=af(x);;;mboxand;;;f(xa)=f(x)a
          $$
          for all $xin I$ and $ain A$. Therefore, the last line in your calculation should be
          $$
          (fcirc d)(ab)=(fcirc d)(a)b+a(fcirc d)(b).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Of course - I feel quite silly now. Thank you very much!
            – Floyd Everest
            Sep 5 at 9:16















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          The last line of your calculation is incorrect: $f$ is not a map of algebras, it is a map of bimodules. This means that
          $$
          f(ax)=af(x);;;mboxand;;;f(xa)=f(x)a
          $$
          for all $xin I$ and $ain A$. Therefore, the last line in your calculation should be
          $$
          (fcirc d)(ab)=(fcirc d)(a)b+a(fcirc d)(b).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Of course - I feel quite silly now. Thank you very much!
            – Floyd Everest
            Sep 5 at 9:16













          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          The last line of your calculation is incorrect: $f$ is not a map of algebras, it is a map of bimodules. This means that
          $$
          f(ax)=af(x);;;mboxand;;;f(xa)=f(x)a
          $$
          for all $xin I$ and $ain A$. Therefore, the last line in your calculation should be
          $$
          (fcirc d)(ab)=(fcirc d)(a)b+a(fcirc d)(b).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer












          The last line of your calculation is incorrect: $f$ is not a map of algebras, it is a map of bimodules. This means that
          $$
          f(ax)=af(x);;;mboxand;;;f(xa)=f(x)a
          $$
          for all $xin I$ and $ain A$. Therefore, the last line in your calculation should be
          $$
          (fcirc d)(ab)=(fcirc d)(a)b+a(fcirc d)(b).
          $$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Sep 4 at 17:02









          David Hill

          8,2231618




          8,2231618











          • Of course - I feel quite silly now. Thank you very much!
            – Floyd Everest
            Sep 5 at 9:16

















          • Of course - I feel quite silly now. Thank you very much!
            – Floyd Everest
            Sep 5 at 9:16
















          Of course - I feel quite silly now. Thank you very much!
          – Floyd Everest
          Sep 5 at 9:16





          Of course - I feel quite silly now. Thank you very much!
          – Floyd Everest
          Sep 5 at 9:16


















           

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