Which version of Recursion Theorem should I use to justify this construction of $f:mathbb N to X$?

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Suppose $X$ is infinite and $f_n: 1,cdots,n to X$ is injective for all $n in mathbb N$.



We define an injective mapping $f:mathbb N to X$ by recursive construction as follows: $$f(n)=f_n(i)$$ where $$i = min t in mathbb N mid f_n(t) notin f(1),cdots,f(n-1) $$



In other words, we take $f(n)$ to be $f_n(i)$, for the least $i$ such that $f_n(i)$ has not previously appeared as a value of $f(n)$.




This question arose when I tried to define a countably infinite subset of $X$. While I'm sure that this construction is justified by some version of Recursion Theorem, I only know the most primitive version, which is stated as:




Let $A$ be a set, $ain A$, and $f colon Ato A$ a mapping. Then there exists a unique mapping $g: Bbb Nto A$ such that



  1. $g(0)=a$

  2. $g(n+1)=f circ g(n)$



It seems that this basic version can not help me. Please give me some hints!










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    Suppose $X$ is infinite and $f_n: 1,cdots,n to X$ is injective for all $n in mathbb N$.



    We define an injective mapping $f:mathbb N to X$ by recursive construction as follows: $$f(n)=f_n(i)$$ where $$i = min t in mathbb N mid f_n(t) notin f(1),cdots,f(n-1) $$



    In other words, we take $f(n)$ to be $f_n(i)$, for the least $i$ such that $f_n(i)$ has not previously appeared as a value of $f(n)$.




    This question arose when I tried to define a countably infinite subset of $X$. While I'm sure that this construction is justified by some version of Recursion Theorem, I only know the most primitive version, which is stated as:




    Let $A$ be a set, $ain A$, and $f colon Ato A$ a mapping. Then there exists a unique mapping $g: Bbb Nto A$ such that



    1. $g(0)=a$

    2. $g(n+1)=f circ g(n)$



    It seems that this basic version can not help me. Please give me some hints!










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Suppose $X$ is infinite and $f_n: 1,cdots,n to X$ is injective for all $n in mathbb N$.



      We define an injective mapping $f:mathbb N to X$ by recursive construction as follows: $$f(n)=f_n(i)$$ where $$i = min t in mathbb N mid f_n(t) notin f(1),cdots,f(n-1) $$



      In other words, we take $f(n)$ to be $f_n(i)$, for the least $i$ such that $f_n(i)$ has not previously appeared as a value of $f(n)$.




      This question arose when I tried to define a countably infinite subset of $X$. While I'm sure that this construction is justified by some version of Recursion Theorem, I only know the most primitive version, which is stated as:




      Let $A$ be a set, $ain A$, and $f colon Ato A$ a mapping. Then there exists a unique mapping $g: Bbb Nto A$ such that



      1. $g(0)=a$

      2. $g(n+1)=f circ g(n)$



      It seems that this basic version can not help me. Please give me some hints!










      share|cite|improve this question















      Suppose $X$ is infinite and $f_n: 1,cdots,n to X$ is injective for all $n in mathbb N$.



      We define an injective mapping $f:mathbb N to X$ by recursive construction as follows: $$f(n)=f_n(i)$$ where $$i = min t in mathbb N mid f_n(t) notin f(1),cdots,f(n-1) $$



      In other words, we take $f(n)$ to be $f_n(i)$, for the least $i$ such that $f_n(i)$ has not previously appeared as a value of $f(n)$.




      This question arose when I tried to define a countably infinite subset of $X$. While I'm sure that this construction is justified by some version of Recursion Theorem, I only know the most primitive version, which is stated as:




      Let $A$ be a set, $ain A$, and $f colon Ato A$ a mapping. Then there exists a unique mapping $g: Bbb Nto A$ such that



      1. $g(0)=a$

      2. $g(n+1)=f circ g(n)$



      It seems that this basic version can not help me. Please give me some hints!







      elementary-set-theory recursion






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      edited Sep 5 at 6:38

























      asked Sep 5 at 4:09









      Le Anh Dung

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          The point here is that $A$ can be practically any set. And it is $X^<omega$, all the finite sequences from $X$. We then define $f(a)$ to be the following function: if $a$ is a sequence of length $k$ (namely, then domain of $a$ is $k$), then $f(a)$ is the sequence of length $k+1$ where we add the first element of $X$ appearing in the range of $f_k+1$ and not already appearing in $a$ itself.



          Now define $g$ as obtained by the starting condition $g(0)=varnothing$ (easily $g(1)=f_1$, by the way). By induction we can prove that $g(n)subseteq g(n+1)$ and $g(n)$ is also injective. Therefore $GcolonBbb Nto X$, given by $G(n)=g(n+1)(n)$ is an injective function as wanted.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • On the basis of your answer, I re-formulated your ideas into a detailed proof and posted it as an answer below, so that I have a feeling of truly understanding your ideas. Could you please have a check on it? Thank you so much!
            – Le Anh Dung
            Sep 6 at 3:29


















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          I re-formulate Asaf Karagila's sketch into a proof in detail. The motivation for this conduct is that I would like to truly understand every tiny aspect of Asaf Karagila's ideas. All credits are given to Asaf Karagila.




          Let $Bbb N =1,2,3,cdots$ be the set of natural numbers and $I_n = 1,cdots,n$.



          Let $X^<omega = h: I_k to X mid k in Bbb N$ be the set of all finite sequences from $X$. Consider



          $$begin
          arrayl
          H : & X^<omega
          & longrightarrow & X^<omega \
          & h & longmapsto & H(h) endarray$$



          where $h: I_k to X$.



          $H(h):I_k+1 to X$ is defined by $$H(h)restriction_I_k = h text and H(h)(k+1)=f_k+1(t)$$ where $t = min n in mathbb N mid f_k+1(n) notin operatornameranh$. Because $|operatornameranf_k+1| = k+1 > |operatornameranh| = k$, $n in mathbb N mid f_k+1(n) notin operatornameranh neq emptyset$ and consequently such $t$ does exists.



          By Recursion Theorem, there exists a unique mapping $g:Bbb N to X^<omega$ such that $g_1=f_1$ and $g_n+1=H circ g_n$.



          1. $g_n subseteq g_n+1$

          By definition, $g_n+1 = H circ g_n$, then $g_n+1(i)=g_n(i)$ for all $i in operatornamedomg_n$. Hence $g_n subseteq g_n+1$.



          1. $g_n$ is injective

          We prove this statement by induction on $n$. It's clear that $g_1=f_1$ is injective since $|operatornamedomf_1|=1$. Assume that $g_n$ is injective for $n=k$.



          Assume the contrary that $g_n+1$ is not injective, then $g_n+1(i_1)=g_n+1(i_2)$ for some $i_1 < i_2 le n+1$ or equivalently $H circ g_n(i_1) = H circ g_n(i_2)$ for some $i_1 < i_2 le n+1$.



          a. If $i_2 = n+1$. Then $H circ g_n(i_2)=H circ g_n(i_1) =g_n(i_1)$. Thus $H circ g_n(n+1)=H circ g_n(i_2) =g_n(i_1) in operatornamerang_n$. This contradicts the definition of $H circ g_n(n+1)$.



          b. If $i_2 < n+1$. Then $i_1,i_2 in operatornamedomg_n$, then $H circ g_n(i_1) = H circ g_n(i_2)$ $implies g_n(i_1)=g_n(i_2)$. This contradicts the inductive hypothesis that $g_n$ is injective.



          Hence $g_n+1$ is injective.



          We now define the required mapping $G:Bbb N to X$ by $G_n=g_n(n)$.



          1. $G$ is injective

          Assume the contrary that $G$ is not injective. Then there exists $n_1 < n_2$ such that $G_n_1 = G_n_2$, thus $g_n_1(n_1) = g_n_2(n_2)$.



          $g_n_1 subseteq g_n_1+1 subseteq g_n_1+2 subseteq cdots subseteq g_n_2 implies g_n_1 subseteq g_n_2$. It follows that $g_n_1(n_1)=g_n_2(n_1) neq g_n_2(n_2)$ since $g_n_2$ is injective. This contradicts the fact that $g_n_1(n_1) = g_n_2(n_2)$.



          Hence $G$ is injective.






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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
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            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted










            The point here is that $A$ can be practically any set. And it is $X^<omega$, all the finite sequences from $X$. We then define $f(a)$ to be the following function: if $a$ is a sequence of length $k$ (namely, then domain of $a$ is $k$), then $f(a)$ is the sequence of length $k+1$ where we add the first element of $X$ appearing in the range of $f_k+1$ and not already appearing in $a$ itself.



            Now define $g$ as obtained by the starting condition $g(0)=varnothing$ (easily $g(1)=f_1$, by the way). By induction we can prove that $g(n)subseteq g(n+1)$ and $g(n)$ is also injective. Therefore $GcolonBbb Nto X$, given by $G(n)=g(n+1)(n)$ is an injective function as wanted.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • On the basis of your answer, I re-formulated your ideas into a detailed proof and posted it as an answer below, so that I have a feeling of truly understanding your ideas. Could you please have a check on it? Thank you so much!
              – Le Anh Dung
              Sep 6 at 3:29















            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted










            The point here is that $A$ can be practically any set. And it is $X^<omega$, all the finite sequences from $X$. We then define $f(a)$ to be the following function: if $a$ is a sequence of length $k$ (namely, then domain of $a$ is $k$), then $f(a)$ is the sequence of length $k+1$ where we add the first element of $X$ appearing in the range of $f_k+1$ and not already appearing in $a$ itself.



            Now define $g$ as obtained by the starting condition $g(0)=varnothing$ (easily $g(1)=f_1$, by the way). By induction we can prove that $g(n)subseteq g(n+1)$ and $g(n)$ is also injective. Therefore $GcolonBbb Nto X$, given by $G(n)=g(n+1)(n)$ is an injective function as wanted.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • On the basis of your answer, I re-formulated your ideas into a detailed proof and posted it as an answer below, so that I have a feeling of truly understanding your ideas. Could you please have a check on it? Thank you so much!
              – Le Anh Dung
              Sep 6 at 3:29













            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted






            The point here is that $A$ can be practically any set. And it is $X^<omega$, all the finite sequences from $X$. We then define $f(a)$ to be the following function: if $a$ is a sequence of length $k$ (namely, then domain of $a$ is $k$), then $f(a)$ is the sequence of length $k+1$ where we add the first element of $X$ appearing in the range of $f_k+1$ and not already appearing in $a$ itself.



            Now define $g$ as obtained by the starting condition $g(0)=varnothing$ (easily $g(1)=f_1$, by the way). By induction we can prove that $g(n)subseteq g(n+1)$ and $g(n)$ is also injective. Therefore $GcolonBbb Nto X$, given by $G(n)=g(n+1)(n)$ is an injective function as wanted.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            The point here is that $A$ can be practically any set. And it is $X^<omega$, all the finite sequences from $X$. We then define $f(a)$ to be the following function: if $a$ is a sequence of length $k$ (namely, then domain of $a$ is $k$), then $f(a)$ is the sequence of length $k+1$ where we add the first element of $X$ appearing in the range of $f_k+1$ and not already appearing in $a$ itself.



            Now define $g$ as obtained by the starting condition $g(0)=varnothing$ (easily $g(1)=f_1$, by the way). By induction we can prove that $g(n)subseteq g(n+1)$ and $g(n)$ is also injective. Therefore $GcolonBbb Nto X$, given by $G(n)=g(n+1)(n)$ is an injective function as wanted.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Sep 5 at 8:02

























            answered Sep 5 at 7:46









            Asaf Karagila♦

            294k32410738




            294k32410738











            • On the basis of your answer, I re-formulated your ideas into a detailed proof and posted it as an answer below, so that I have a feeling of truly understanding your ideas. Could you please have a check on it? Thank you so much!
              – Le Anh Dung
              Sep 6 at 3:29

















            • On the basis of your answer, I re-formulated your ideas into a detailed proof and posted it as an answer below, so that I have a feeling of truly understanding your ideas. Could you please have a check on it? Thank you so much!
              – Le Anh Dung
              Sep 6 at 3:29
















            On the basis of your answer, I re-formulated your ideas into a detailed proof and posted it as an answer below, so that I have a feeling of truly understanding your ideas. Could you please have a check on it? Thank you so much!
            – Le Anh Dung
            Sep 6 at 3:29





            On the basis of your answer, I re-formulated your ideas into a detailed proof and posted it as an answer below, so that I have a feeling of truly understanding your ideas. Could you please have a check on it? Thank you so much!
            – Le Anh Dung
            Sep 6 at 3:29











            up vote
            0
            down vote













            I re-formulate Asaf Karagila's sketch into a proof in detail. The motivation for this conduct is that I would like to truly understand every tiny aspect of Asaf Karagila's ideas. All credits are given to Asaf Karagila.




            Let $Bbb N =1,2,3,cdots$ be the set of natural numbers and $I_n = 1,cdots,n$.



            Let $X^<omega = h: I_k to X mid k in Bbb N$ be the set of all finite sequences from $X$. Consider



            $$begin
            arrayl
            H : & X^<omega
            & longrightarrow & X^<omega \
            & h & longmapsto & H(h) endarray$$



            where $h: I_k to X$.



            $H(h):I_k+1 to X$ is defined by $$H(h)restriction_I_k = h text and H(h)(k+1)=f_k+1(t)$$ where $t = min n in mathbb N mid f_k+1(n) notin operatornameranh$. Because $|operatornameranf_k+1| = k+1 > |operatornameranh| = k$, $n in mathbb N mid f_k+1(n) notin operatornameranh neq emptyset$ and consequently such $t$ does exists.



            By Recursion Theorem, there exists a unique mapping $g:Bbb N to X^<omega$ such that $g_1=f_1$ and $g_n+1=H circ g_n$.



            1. $g_n subseteq g_n+1$

            By definition, $g_n+1 = H circ g_n$, then $g_n+1(i)=g_n(i)$ for all $i in operatornamedomg_n$. Hence $g_n subseteq g_n+1$.



            1. $g_n$ is injective

            We prove this statement by induction on $n$. It's clear that $g_1=f_1$ is injective since $|operatornamedomf_1|=1$. Assume that $g_n$ is injective for $n=k$.



            Assume the contrary that $g_n+1$ is not injective, then $g_n+1(i_1)=g_n+1(i_2)$ for some $i_1 < i_2 le n+1$ or equivalently $H circ g_n(i_1) = H circ g_n(i_2)$ for some $i_1 < i_2 le n+1$.



            a. If $i_2 = n+1$. Then $H circ g_n(i_2)=H circ g_n(i_1) =g_n(i_1)$. Thus $H circ g_n(n+1)=H circ g_n(i_2) =g_n(i_1) in operatornamerang_n$. This contradicts the definition of $H circ g_n(n+1)$.



            b. If $i_2 < n+1$. Then $i_1,i_2 in operatornamedomg_n$, then $H circ g_n(i_1) = H circ g_n(i_2)$ $implies g_n(i_1)=g_n(i_2)$. This contradicts the inductive hypothesis that $g_n$ is injective.



            Hence $g_n+1$ is injective.



            We now define the required mapping $G:Bbb N to X$ by $G_n=g_n(n)$.



            1. $G$ is injective

            Assume the contrary that $G$ is not injective. Then there exists $n_1 < n_2$ such that $G_n_1 = G_n_2$, thus $g_n_1(n_1) = g_n_2(n_2)$.



            $g_n_1 subseteq g_n_1+1 subseteq g_n_1+2 subseteq cdots subseteq g_n_2 implies g_n_1 subseteq g_n_2$. It follows that $g_n_1(n_1)=g_n_2(n_1) neq g_n_2(n_2)$ since $g_n_2$ is injective. This contradicts the fact that $g_n_1(n_1) = g_n_2(n_2)$.



            Hence $G$ is injective.






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              I re-formulate Asaf Karagila's sketch into a proof in detail. The motivation for this conduct is that I would like to truly understand every tiny aspect of Asaf Karagila's ideas. All credits are given to Asaf Karagila.




              Let $Bbb N =1,2,3,cdots$ be the set of natural numbers and $I_n = 1,cdots,n$.



              Let $X^<omega = h: I_k to X mid k in Bbb N$ be the set of all finite sequences from $X$. Consider



              $$begin
              arrayl
              H : & X^<omega
              & longrightarrow & X^<omega \
              & h & longmapsto & H(h) endarray$$



              where $h: I_k to X$.



              $H(h):I_k+1 to X$ is defined by $$H(h)restriction_I_k = h text and H(h)(k+1)=f_k+1(t)$$ where $t = min n in mathbb N mid f_k+1(n) notin operatornameranh$. Because $|operatornameranf_k+1| = k+1 > |operatornameranh| = k$, $n in mathbb N mid f_k+1(n) notin operatornameranh neq emptyset$ and consequently such $t$ does exists.



              By Recursion Theorem, there exists a unique mapping $g:Bbb N to X^<omega$ such that $g_1=f_1$ and $g_n+1=H circ g_n$.



              1. $g_n subseteq g_n+1$

              By definition, $g_n+1 = H circ g_n$, then $g_n+1(i)=g_n(i)$ for all $i in operatornamedomg_n$. Hence $g_n subseteq g_n+1$.



              1. $g_n$ is injective

              We prove this statement by induction on $n$. It's clear that $g_1=f_1$ is injective since $|operatornamedomf_1|=1$. Assume that $g_n$ is injective for $n=k$.



              Assume the contrary that $g_n+1$ is not injective, then $g_n+1(i_1)=g_n+1(i_2)$ for some $i_1 < i_2 le n+1$ or equivalently $H circ g_n(i_1) = H circ g_n(i_2)$ for some $i_1 < i_2 le n+1$.



              a. If $i_2 = n+1$. Then $H circ g_n(i_2)=H circ g_n(i_1) =g_n(i_1)$. Thus $H circ g_n(n+1)=H circ g_n(i_2) =g_n(i_1) in operatornamerang_n$. This contradicts the definition of $H circ g_n(n+1)$.



              b. If $i_2 < n+1$. Then $i_1,i_2 in operatornamedomg_n$, then $H circ g_n(i_1) = H circ g_n(i_2)$ $implies g_n(i_1)=g_n(i_2)$. This contradicts the inductive hypothesis that $g_n$ is injective.



              Hence $g_n+1$ is injective.



              We now define the required mapping $G:Bbb N to X$ by $G_n=g_n(n)$.



              1. $G$ is injective

              Assume the contrary that $G$ is not injective. Then there exists $n_1 < n_2$ such that $G_n_1 = G_n_2$, thus $g_n_1(n_1) = g_n_2(n_2)$.



              $g_n_1 subseteq g_n_1+1 subseteq g_n_1+2 subseteq cdots subseteq g_n_2 implies g_n_1 subseteq g_n_2$. It follows that $g_n_1(n_1)=g_n_2(n_1) neq g_n_2(n_2)$ since $g_n_2$ is injective. This contradicts the fact that $g_n_1(n_1) = g_n_2(n_2)$.



              Hence $G$ is injective.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                I re-formulate Asaf Karagila's sketch into a proof in detail. The motivation for this conduct is that I would like to truly understand every tiny aspect of Asaf Karagila's ideas. All credits are given to Asaf Karagila.




                Let $Bbb N =1,2,3,cdots$ be the set of natural numbers and $I_n = 1,cdots,n$.



                Let $X^<omega = h: I_k to X mid k in Bbb N$ be the set of all finite sequences from $X$. Consider



                $$begin
                arrayl
                H : & X^<omega
                & longrightarrow & X^<omega \
                & h & longmapsto & H(h) endarray$$



                where $h: I_k to X$.



                $H(h):I_k+1 to X$ is defined by $$H(h)restriction_I_k = h text and H(h)(k+1)=f_k+1(t)$$ where $t = min n in mathbb N mid f_k+1(n) notin operatornameranh$. Because $|operatornameranf_k+1| = k+1 > |operatornameranh| = k$, $n in mathbb N mid f_k+1(n) notin operatornameranh neq emptyset$ and consequently such $t$ does exists.



                By Recursion Theorem, there exists a unique mapping $g:Bbb N to X^<omega$ such that $g_1=f_1$ and $g_n+1=H circ g_n$.



                1. $g_n subseteq g_n+1$

                By definition, $g_n+1 = H circ g_n$, then $g_n+1(i)=g_n(i)$ for all $i in operatornamedomg_n$. Hence $g_n subseteq g_n+1$.



                1. $g_n$ is injective

                We prove this statement by induction on $n$. It's clear that $g_1=f_1$ is injective since $|operatornamedomf_1|=1$. Assume that $g_n$ is injective for $n=k$.



                Assume the contrary that $g_n+1$ is not injective, then $g_n+1(i_1)=g_n+1(i_2)$ for some $i_1 < i_2 le n+1$ or equivalently $H circ g_n(i_1) = H circ g_n(i_2)$ for some $i_1 < i_2 le n+1$.



                a. If $i_2 = n+1$. Then $H circ g_n(i_2)=H circ g_n(i_1) =g_n(i_1)$. Thus $H circ g_n(n+1)=H circ g_n(i_2) =g_n(i_1) in operatornamerang_n$. This contradicts the definition of $H circ g_n(n+1)$.



                b. If $i_2 < n+1$. Then $i_1,i_2 in operatornamedomg_n$, then $H circ g_n(i_1) = H circ g_n(i_2)$ $implies g_n(i_1)=g_n(i_2)$. This contradicts the inductive hypothesis that $g_n$ is injective.



                Hence $g_n+1$ is injective.



                We now define the required mapping $G:Bbb N to X$ by $G_n=g_n(n)$.



                1. $G$ is injective

                Assume the contrary that $G$ is not injective. Then there exists $n_1 < n_2$ such that $G_n_1 = G_n_2$, thus $g_n_1(n_1) = g_n_2(n_2)$.



                $g_n_1 subseteq g_n_1+1 subseteq g_n_1+2 subseteq cdots subseteq g_n_2 implies g_n_1 subseteq g_n_2$. It follows that $g_n_1(n_1)=g_n_2(n_1) neq g_n_2(n_2)$ since $g_n_2$ is injective. This contradicts the fact that $g_n_1(n_1) = g_n_2(n_2)$.



                Hence $G$ is injective.






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                I re-formulate Asaf Karagila's sketch into a proof in detail. The motivation for this conduct is that I would like to truly understand every tiny aspect of Asaf Karagila's ideas. All credits are given to Asaf Karagila.




                Let $Bbb N =1,2,3,cdots$ be the set of natural numbers and $I_n = 1,cdots,n$.



                Let $X^<omega = h: I_k to X mid k in Bbb N$ be the set of all finite sequences from $X$. Consider



                $$begin
                arrayl
                H : & X^<omega
                & longrightarrow & X^<omega \
                & h & longmapsto & H(h) endarray$$



                where $h: I_k to X$.



                $H(h):I_k+1 to X$ is defined by $$H(h)restriction_I_k = h text and H(h)(k+1)=f_k+1(t)$$ where $t = min n in mathbb N mid f_k+1(n) notin operatornameranh$. Because $|operatornameranf_k+1| = k+1 > |operatornameranh| = k$, $n in mathbb N mid f_k+1(n) notin operatornameranh neq emptyset$ and consequently such $t$ does exists.



                By Recursion Theorem, there exists a unique mapping $g:Bbb N to X^<omega$ such that $g_1=f_1$ and $g_n+1=H circ g_n$.



                1. $g_n subseteq g_n+1$

                By definition, $g_n+1 = H circ g_n$, then $g_n+1(i)=g_n(i)$ for all $i in operatornamedomg_n$. Hence $g_n subseteq g_n+1$.



                1. $g_n$ is injective

                We prove this statement by induction on $n$. It's clear that $g_1=f_1$ is injective since $|operatornamedomf_1|=1$. Assume that $g_n$ is injective for $n=k$.



                Assume the contrary that $g_n+1$ is not injective, then $g_n+1(i_1)=g_n+1(i_2)$ for some $i_1 < i_2 le n+1$ or equivalently $H circ g_n(i_1) = H circ g_n(i_2)$ for some $i_1 < i_2 le n+1$.



                a. If $i_2 = n+1$. Then $H circ g_n(i_2)=H circ g_n(i_1) =g_n(i_1)$. Thus $H circ g_n(n+1)=H circ g_n(i_2) =g_n(i_1) in operatornamerang_n$. This contradicts the definition of $H circ g_n(n+1)$.



                b. If $i_2 < n+1$. Then $i_1,i_2 in operatornamedomg_n$, then $H circ g_n(i_1) = H circ g_n(i_2)$ $implies g_n(i_1)=g_n(i_2)$. This contradicts the inductive hypothesis that $g_n$ is injective.



                Hence $g_n+1$ is injective.



                We now define the required mapping $G:Bbb N to X$ by $G_n=g_n(n)$.



                1. $G$ is injective

                Assume the contrary that $G$ is not injective. Then there exists $n_1 < n_2$ such that $G_n_1 = G_n_2$, thus $g_n_1(n_1) = g_n_2(n_2)$.



                $g_n_1 subseteq g_n_1+1 subseteq g_n_1+2 subseteq cdots subseteq g_n_2 implies g_n_1 subseteq g_n_2$. It follows that $g_n_1(n_1)=g_n_2(n_1) neq g_n_2(n_2)$ since $g_n_2$ is injective. This contradicts the fact that $g_n_1(n_1) = g_n_2(n_2)$.



                Hence $G$ is injective.







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                edited Sep 7 at 6:54

























                answered Sep 6 at 3:27









                Le Anh Dung

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                766419



























                     

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