Use probability to prove or interpret $ fracp(1-p)e^t(1-p+p e^t)^2 le frac 1 4$

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While we can prove the following with AM-GM inequality, $$ fracp(1-p)e^t(1-p+p e^t)^2 le frac 1 4, t in mathbb R, p in [0,1]$$
I want to find a proof that involves probability or alternatively to give a probabilistic interpretation of the inequality. We are given that $t$ is a real number and $p,1-p in [0,1]$, so we have that $p(1-p) le frac 1 4$. Thus, if we can prove that
$$ frace^t(1-p+p e^t)^2 le 1, p in (0,1),$$
then we will have our result.
I was thinking to use Hoffeding's Lemma or Chernoff bound and to consider a binomially distributed random variable $X$ with parameters $n=2, p in (0,1)$. Then, we have
$$E[e^Xt] = (1-p+pe^t)^2$$
$$E[e^(X-2p)t] = e^-2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2$$
Hoffeding's Lemma gives
$$E[e^t(X-2p)] le e^fract^22$$
Chernoff bound gives for $a>0$ (the assumption in Markov inequality, of which the Chernoff bound is based)
$$e^taP(X-2p ge a) le E[e^t(X-2p)]$$
Hence,
$$e^taP(X-2p ge a) le e^-2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2 le e^fract^22$$
$$implies frac1e^taP(X-2p ge a) ge frace^2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2 ge e^frac-t^22$$
I guess Hoffeding's Lemma doesn't help (Btw, this problem is kind of a converse to Hoffeding's Lemma I guess), so let's use Chernoff bound to say
$$frace^2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frac1e^taP(X-2p ge a)$$
$$implies frac1(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frac1e^2tpe^taP(X-2p ge a)$$
$$implies frac1(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frac1e^t(a-2p)P(X-2p ge a)$$
$$implies frace^t(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frace^te^t(a-2p)P(X-2p ge a) = frace^(t)(1-a+2p)P(X-2p ge a) = frace^(t)(1-a+2p)1-F_X(2p+a-1)$$
I guess either there's some special $a$ to pick or we take limits as $a to infty$ or $a to b^+$ or something. What $a$ or $b$ might I pick?
I also thought of something like for degenerate $Y=c=1$, we might show
$$ textmgf of degenerate = e^ct le (1-p+pe^t)^2 = textmgf of Bin(2,p) for c=1$$
probability inequality probability-distributions integral-inequality moment-generating-functions
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up vote
0
down vote
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While we can prove the following with AM-GM inequality, $$ fracp(1-p)e^t(1-p+p e^t)^2 le frac 1 4, t in mathbb R, p in [0,1]$$
I want to find a proof that involves probability or alternatively to give a probabilistic interpretation of the inequality. We are given that $t$ is a real number and $p,1-p in [0,1]$, so we have that $p(1-p) le frac 1 4$. Thus, if we can prove that
$$ frace^t(1-p+p e^t)^2 le 1, p in (0,1),$$
then we will have our result.
I was thinking to use Hoffeding's Lemma or Chernoff bound and to consider a binomially distributed random variable $X$ with parameters $n=2, p in (0,1)$. Then, we have
$$E[e^Xt] = (1-p+pe^t)^2$$
$$E[e^(X-2p)t] = e^-2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2$$
Hoffeding's Lemma gives
$$E[e^t(X-2p)] le e^fract^22$$
Chernoff bound gives for $a>0$ (the assumption in Markov inequality, of which the Chernoff bound is based)
$$e^taP(X-2p ge a) le E[e^t(X-2p)]$$
Hence,
$$e^taP(X-2p ge a) le e^-2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2 le e^fract^22$$
$$implies frac1e^taP(X-2p ge a) ge frace^2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2 ge e^frac-t^22$$
I guess Hoffeding's Lemma doesn't help (Btw, this problem is kind of a converse to Hoffeding's Lemma I guess), so let's use Chernoff bound to say
$$frace^2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frac1e^taP(X-2p ge a)$$
$$implies frac1(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frac1e^2tpe^taP(X-2p ge a)$$
$$implies frac1(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frac1e^t(a-2p)P(X-2p ge a)$$
$$implies frace^t(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frace^te^t(a-2p)P(X-2p ge a) = frace^(t)(1-a+2p)P(X-2p ge a) = frace^(t)(1-a+2p)1-F_X(2p+a-1)$$
I guess either there's some special $a$ to pick or we take limits as $a to infty$ or $a to b^+$ or something. What $a$ or $b$ might I pick?
I also thought of something like for degenerate $Y=c=1$, we might show
$$ textmgf of degenerate = e^ct le (1-p+pe^t)^2 = textmgf of Bin(2,p) for c=1$$
probability inequality probability-distributions integral-inequality moment-generating-functions
2
One line answer: use the inequality $$fracxy(x+y)^2leqslantfrac14$$ for every nonnegative $(x,y)$, for $$x=1-pqquad y=pe^t$$
â Did
Sep 5 at 6:02
yep it is AM-GM
â qwr
Sep 5 at 6:10
@Did , what is the probabilistic interpretation of the inequality?
â BCLC
Sep 5 at 6:31
@qwr How do you use probability to prove the inequality?
â BCLC
Sep 5 at 6:35
1
@Did well that is AM-GM in its simplest case. but ok
â qwr
Sep 5 at 6:54
 |Â
show 2 more comments
up vote
0
down vote
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up vote
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down vote
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While we can prove the following with AM-GM inequality, $$ fracp(1-p)e^t(1-p+p e^t)^2 le frac 1 4, t in mathbb R, p in [0,1]$$
I want to find a proof that involves probability or alternatively to give a probabilistic interpretation of the inequality. We are given that $t$ is a real number and $p,1-p in [0,1]$, so we have that $p(1-p) le frac 1 4$. Thus, if we can prove that
$$ frace^t(1-p+p e^t)^2 le 1, p in (0,1),$$
then we will have our result.
I was thinking to use Hoffeding's Lemma or Chernoff bound and to consider a binomially distributed random variable $X$ with parameters $n=2, p in (0,1)$. Then, we have
$$E[e^Xt] = (1-p+pe^t)^2$$
$$E[e^(X-2p)t] = e^-2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2$$
Hoffeding's Lemma gives
$$E[e^t(X-2p)] le e^fract^22$$
Chernoff bound gives for $a>0$ (the assumption in Markov inequality, of which the Chernoff bound is based)
$$e^taP(X-2p ge a) le E[e^t(X-2p)]$$
Hence,
$$e^taP(X-2p ge a) le e^-2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2 le e^fract^22$$
$$implies frac1e^taP(X-2p ge a) ge frace^2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2 ge e^frac-t^22$$
I guess Hoffeding's Lemma doesn't help (Btw, this problem is kind of a converse to Hoffeding's Lemma I guess), so let's use Chernoff bound to say
$$frace^2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frac1e^taP(X-2p ge a)$$
$$implies frac1(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frac1e^2tpe^taP(X-2p ge a)$$
$$implies frac1(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frac1e^t(a-2p)P(X-2p ge a)$$
$$implies frace^t(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frace^te^t(a-2p)P(X-2p ge a) = frace^(t)(1-a+2p)P(X-2p ge a) = frace^(t)(1-a+2p)1-F_X(2p+a-1)$$
I guess either there's some special $a$ to pick or we take limits as $a to infty$ or $a to b^+$ or something. What $a$ or $b$ might I pick?
I also thought of something like for degenerate $Y=c=1$, we might show
$$ textmgf of degenerate = e^ct le (1-p+pe^t)^2 = textmgf of Bin(2,p) for c=1$$
probability inequality probability-distributions integral-inequality moment-generating-functions
While we can prove the following with AM-GM inequality, $$ fracp(1-p)e^t(1-p+p e^t)^2 le frac 1 4, t in mathbb R, p in [0,1]$$
I want to find a proof that involves probability or alternatively to give a probabilistic interpretation of the inequality. We are given that $t$ is a real number and $p,1-p in [0,1]$, so we have that $p(1-p) le frac 1 4$. Thus, if we can prove that
$$ frace^t(1-p+p e^t)^2 le 1, p in (0,1),$$
then we will have our result.
I was thinking to use Hoffeding's Lemma or Chernoff bound and to consider a binomially distributed random variable $X$ with parameters $n=2, p in (0,1)$. Then, we have
$$E[e^Xt] = (1-p+pe^t)^2$$
$$E[e^(X-2p)t] = e^-2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2$$
Hoffeding's Lemma gives
$$E[e^t(X-2p)] le e^fract^22$$
Chernoff bound gives for $a>0$ (the assumption in Markov inequality, of which the Chernoff bound is based)
$$e^taP(X-2p ge a) le E[e^t(X-2p)]$$
Hence,
$$e^taP(X-2p ge a) le e^-2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2 le e^fract^22$$
$$implies frac1e^taP(X-2p ge a) ge frace^2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2 ge e^frac-t^22$$
I guess Hoffeding's Lemma doesn't help (Btw, this problem is kind of a converse to Hoffeding's Lemma I guess), so let's use Chernoff bound to say
$$frace^2tp(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frac1e^taP(X-2p ge a)$$
$$implies frac1(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frac1e^2tpe^taP(X-2p ge a)$$
$$implies frac1(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frac1e^t(a-2p)P(X-2p ge a)$$
$$implies frace^t(1-p+pe^t)^2 le frace^te^t(a-2p)P(X-2p ge a) = frace^(t)(1-a+2p)P(X-2p ge a) = frace^(t)(1-a+2p)1-F_X(2p+a-1)$$
I guess either there's some special $a$ to pick or we take limits as $a to infty$ or $a to b^+$ or something. What $a$ or $b$ might I pick?
I also thought of something like for degenerate $Y=c=1$, we might show
$$ textmgf of degenerate = e^ct le (1-p+pe^t)^2 = textmgf of Bin(2,p) for c=1$$
probability inequality probability-distributions integral-inequality moment-generating-functions
probability inequality probability-distributions integral-inequality moment-generating-functions
edited Sep 8 at 8:49
asked Sep 5 at 5:54
BCLC
1
1
2
One line answer: use the inequality $$fracxy(x+y)^2leqslantfrac14$$ for every nonnegative $(x,y)$, for $$x=1-pqquad y=pe^t$$
â Did
Sep 5 at 6:02
yep it is AM-GM
â qwr
Sep 5 at 6:10
@Did , what is the probabilistic interpretation of the inequality?
â BCLC
Sep 5 at 6:31
@qwr How do you use probability to prove the inequality?
â BCLC
Sep 5 at 6:35
1
@Did well that is AM-GM in its simplest case. but ok
â qwr
Sep 5 at 6:54
 |Â
show 2 more comments
2
One line answer: use the inequality $$fracxy(x+y)^2leqslantfrac14$$ for every nonnegative $(x,y)$, for $$x=1-pqquad y=pe^t$$
â Did
Sep 5 at 6:02
yep it is AM-GM
â qwr
Sep 5 at 6:10
@Did , what is the probabilistic interpretation of the inequality?
â BCLC
Sep 5 at 6:31
@qwr How do you use probability to prove the inequality?
â BCLC
Sep 5 at 6:35
1
@Did well that is AM-GM in its simplest case. but ok
â qwr
Sep 5 at 6:54
2
2
One line answer: use the inequality $$fracxy(x+y)^2leqslantfrac14$$ for every nonnegative $(x,y)$, for $$x=1-pqquad y=pe^t$$
â Did
Sep 5 at 6:02
One line answer: use the inequality $$fracxy(x+y)^2leqslantfrac14$$ for every nonnegative $(x,y)$, for $$x=1-pqquad y=pe^t$$
â Did
Sep 5 at 6:02
yep it is AM-GM
â qwr
Sep 5 at 6:10
yep it is AM-GM
â qwr
Sep 5 at 6:10
@Did , what is the probabilistic interpretation of the inequality?
â BCLC
Sep 5 at 6:31
@Did , what is the probabilistic interpretation of the inequality?
â BCLC
Sep 5 at 6:31
@qwr How do you use probability to prove the inequality?
â BCLC
Sep 5 at 6:35
@qwr How do you use probability to prove the inequality?
â BCLC
Sep 5 at 6:35
1
1
@Did well that is AM-GM in its simplest case. but ok
â qwr
Sep 5 at 6:54
@Did well that is AM-GM in its simplest case. but ok
â qwr
Sep 5 at 6:54
 |Â
show 2 more comments
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2
One line answer: use the inequality $$fracxy(x+y)^2leqslantfrac14$$ for every nonnegative $(x,y)$, for $$x=1-pqquad y=pe^t$$
â Did
Sep 5 at 6:02
yep it is AM-GM
â qwr
Sep 5 at 6:10
@Did , what is the probabilistic interpretation of the inequality?
â BCLC
Sep 5 at 6:31
@qwr How do you use probability to prove the inequality?
â BCLC
Sep 5 at 6:35
1
@Did well that is AM-GM in its simplest case. but ok
â qwr
Sep 5 at 6:54