Every convergent sequence in a metric space has a unique limit.

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1












I'm reading through a proof in my lecture notes:




Every convergent sequence of a metric space has a unique limit.




Suppose $lim_n to infty x_n = l$ and $lim_n to infty x_n = m.$ Then for every $epsilon > 0,$ there exists $N$ such that for every $n geqslant N,$
$$d(l,m) leqslant d(l,x_n) + d(x_n,m) < epsilon + epsilon = 2 epsilon. $$



So $(star) hspace1mm 0 leqslant fracd(l,m)2 < epsilon Longrightarrow hspace1mm (star^prime) hspace1mm fracd(l,m)2 =0 Longrightarrow l = m.$



I can follow the proof up until the jump from $(star)$ to $(star^prime)$. Why does $fracd(l,m)2=0$?










share|cite|improve this question























  • You've successfully shown that $d(l,m) leq 2varepsilon$ for all $varepsilon$. There is only one nonnegative number that is smaller than every positive number.
    – Mike Miller
    Nov 8 '15 at 23:54











  • Choose $epsilon = d(ell, m)/2$, then you have $d(ell, m) < d(ell, m)$. There is the contradiction.
    – Nameless
    Nov 8 '15 at 23:54











  • We've concluded that $0leqfracd(l,m)2<varepsilon$. Since $varepsilon$ is an arbitrary small quantity, that means that $d(l,m)$ is smaller than any positive quantity I can think of. Hence, it must be 0
    – EA304GT
    Nov 8 '15 at 23:56










  • My extraordinary professor Claude Chabauty called the first axiom in definition of metric ($d(x,y)=0iff x=y$) "Axiome de séparation". This is what determine the uniqueness of the limit.
    – Piquito
    Nov 9 '15 at 0:07














up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1












I'm reading through a proof in my lecture notes:




Every convergent sequence of a metric space has a unique limit.




Suppose $lim_n to infty x_n = l$ and $lim_n to infty x_n = m.$ Then for every $epsilon > 0,$ there exists $N$ such that for every $n geqslant N,$
$$d(l,m) leqslant d(l,x_n) + d(x_n,m) < epsilon + epsilon = 2 epsilon. $$



So $(star) hspace1mm 0 leqslant fracd(l,m)2 < epsilon Longrightarrow hspace1mm (star^prime) hspace1mm fracd(l,m)2 =0 Longrightarrow l = m.$



I can follow the proof up until the jump from $(star)$ to $(star^prime)$. Why does $fracd(l,m)2=0$?










share|cite|improve this question























  • You've successfully shown that $d(l,m) leq 2varepsilon$ for all $varepsilon$. There is only one nonnegative number that is smaller than every positive number.
    – Mike Miller
    Nov 8 '15 at 23:54











  • Choose $epsilon = d(ell, m)/2$, then you have $d(ell, m) < d(ell, m)$. There is the contradiction.
    – Nameless
    Nov 8 '15 at 23:54











  • We've concluded that $0leqfracd(l,m)2<varepsilon$. Since $varepsilon$ is an arbitrary small quantity, that means that $d(l,m)$ is smaller than any positive quantity I can think of. Hence, it must be 0
    – EA304GT
    Nov 8 '15 at 23:56










  • My extraordinary professor Claude Chabauty called the first axiom in definition of metric ($d(x,y)=0iff x=y$) "Axiome de séparation". This is what determine the uniqueness of the limit.
    – Piquito
    Nov 9 '15 at 0:07












up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1






1





I'm reading through a proof in my lecture notes:




Every convergent sequence of a metric space has a unique limit.




Suppose $lim_n to infty x_n = l$ and $lim_n to infty x_n = m.$ Then for every $epsilon > 0,$ there exists $N$ such that for every $n geqslant N,$
$$d(l,m) leqslant d(l,x_n) + d(x_n,m) < epsilon + epsilon = 2 epsilon. $$



So $(star) hspace1mm 0 leqslant fracd(l,m)2 < epsilon Longrightarrow hspace1mm (star^prime) hspace1mm fracd(l,m)2 =0 Longrightarrow l = m.$



I can follow the proof up until the jump from $(star)$ to $(star^prime)$. Why does $fracd(l,m)2=0$?










share|cite|improve this question















I'm reading through a proof in my lecture notes:




Every convergent sequence of a metric space has a unique limit.




Suppose $lim_n to infty x_n = l$ and $lim_n to infty x_n = m.$ Then for every $epsilon > 0,$ there exists $N$ such that for every $n geqslant N,$
$$d(l,m) leqslant d(l,x_n) + d(x_n,m) < epsilon + epsilon = 2 epsilon. $$



So $(star) hspace1mm 0 leqslant fracd(l,m)2 < epsilon Longrightarrow hspace1mm (star^prime) hspace1mm fracd(l,m)2 =0 Longrightarrow l = m.$



I can follow the proof up until the jump from $(star)$ to $(star^prime)$. Why does $fracd(l,m)2=0$?







sequences-and-series general-topology metric-spaces






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Sep 5 at 12:02









Cameron Buie

83.8k771154




83.8k771154










asked Nov 8 '15 at 23:51









St Vincent

9761228




9761228











  • You've successfully shown that $d(l,m) leq 2varepsilon$ for all $varepsilon$. There is only one nonnegative number that is smaller than every positive number.
    – Mike Miller
    Nov 8 '15 at 23:54











  • Choose $epsilon = d(ell, m)/2$, then you have $d(ell, m) < d(ell, m)$. There is the contradiction.
    – Nameless
    Nov 8 '15 at 23:54











  • We've concluded that $0leqfracd(l,m)2<varepsilon$. Since $varepsilon$ is an arbitrary small quantity, that means that $d(l,m)$ is smaller than any positive quantity I can think of. Hence, it must be 0
    – EA304GT
    Nov 8 '15 at 23:56










  • My extraordinary professor Claude Chabauty called the first axiom in definition of metric ($d(x,y)=0iff x=y$) "Axiome de séparation". This is what determine the uniqueness of the limit.
    – Piquito
    Nov 9 '15 at 0:07
















  • You've successfully shown that $d(l,m) leq 2varepsilon$ for all $varepsilon$. There is only one nonnegative number that is smaller than every positive number.
    – Mike Miller
    Nov 8 '15 at 23:54











  • Choose $epsilon = d(ell, m)/2$, then you have $d(ell, m) < d(ell, m)$. There is the contradiction.
    – Nameless
    Nov 8 '15 at 23:54











  • We've concluded that $0leqfracd(l,m)2<varepsilon$. Since $varepsilon$ is an arbitrary small quantity, that means that $d(l,m)$ is smaller than any positive quantity I can think of. Hence, it must be 0
    – EA304GT
    Nov 8 '15 at 23:56










  • My extraordinary professor Claude Chabauty called the first axiom in definition of metric ($d(x,y)=0iff x=y$) "Axiome de séparation". This is what determine the uniqueness of the limit.
    – Piquito
    Nov 9 '15 at 0:07















You've successfully shown that $d(l,m) leq 2varepsilon$ for all $varepsilon$. There is only one nonnegative number that is smaller than every positive number.
– Mike Miller
Nov 8 '15 at 23:54





You've successfully shown that $d(l,m) leq 2varepsilon$ for all $varepsilon$. There is only one nonnegative number that is smaller than every positive number.
– Mike Miller
Nov 8 '15 at 23:54













Choose $epsilon = d(ell, m)/2$, then you have $d(ell, m) < d(ell, m)$. There is the contradiction.
– Nameless
Nov 8 '15 at 23:54





Choose $epsilon = d(ell, m)/2$, then you have $d(ell, m) < d(ell, m)$. There is the contradiction.
– Nameless
Nov 8 '15 at 23:54













We've concluded that $0leqfracd(l,m)2<varepsilon$. Since $varepsilon$ is an arbitrary small quantity, that means that $d(l,m)$ is smaller than any positive quantity I can think of. Hence, it must be 0
– EA304GT
Nov 8 '15 at 23:56




We've concluded that $0leqfracd(l,m)2<varepsilon$. Since $varepsilon$ is an arbitrary small quantity, that means that $d(l,m)$ is smaller than any positive quantity I can think of. Hence, it must be 0
– EA304GT
Nov 8 '15 at 23:56












My extraordinary professor Claude Chabauty called the first axiom in definition of metric ($d(x,y)=0iff x=y$) "Axiome de séparation". This is what determine the uniqueness of the limit.
– Piquito
Nov 9 '15 at 0:07




My extraordinary professor Claude Chabauty called the first axiom in definition of metric ($d(x,y)=0iff x=y$) "Axiome de séparation". This is what determine the uniqueness of the limit.
– Piquito
Nov 9 '15 at 0:07










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
4
down vote



accepted










It’s badly stated. The point is that



$$0lefracd(ell,m)2<epsilon$$



for every $epsilon>0$, which is possible only if $fracd(ell,m)2=0$: otherwise it would be less than itself!






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Do you have any advice on understanding This Question? I would greatly appreciate it.
    – M.A.
    Nov 11 '15 at 16:02


















up vote
2
down vote













One has the following statement:




Let $X$ be a Hausdorff space and $(x_n)_ninmathbbNin X^mathbbN$, then $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ has at most one limit in $X$.




Assume that $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_1in X$ and assume there exists $x_2in Xsetminusx_1$ such that $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_2$. Since $x_1neq x_2$ and $X$ is Hausdorff, there exists $V_1$ an open neighborhood of $x_1$ in $X$ and $V_2$ an open neighborhood of $x_2$ in $X$ such that $V_1cap V_2=varnothing$. Since $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_1$ there exists $N_1inmathbbN$ such that for all $ngeqslant N_1,x_nin V_1$, likewise there exists $N_2inmathbbN$ such that for all $ngeqslant N_2,x_nin V_2$. Define $N:=max(N_1,N_2)$, one has $x_Nin V_1cap V_2$, a contradiction.



Now, notice that, one has:




Let $(X,d)$ a metric space, then $X$ is Haussdorf.




Let $(x,y)in X^2$ such that $xneq y$, then one has:
$$d:=d(x,y)>0.$$
$V_x:=Bleft(x,fracd2right)$ is an open neighborhood of $x$ and $V_y:=Bleft(y,fracd2right)$ is an open neighborhood of $y$, one has:$$V_xcap V_y=varnothing.$$
Indeed, otherwise there exists $zin V_1cap V_2$ and one has:
$$d(x,z)<fracd2textrm and d(y,z)<fracd2.$$
Using triangle inequality it follows: $$d=d(x,y)<d,$$
which is a contradiction.



N.B. This answer is only here to show you that uniqueness of a limit of a sequence is not only true in metric spaces which are a particular case of Hausdorff spaces.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    If $d(l,m)/2<epsilon$ for every $epsilon>0$, then $d(l,m)/2=0$ otherwise $d(l,m)/2<d(l,m)/2$ which is a contradiction.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















      Your Answer




      StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
      return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
      StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
      StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
      );
      );
      , "mathjax-editing");

      StackExchange.ready(function()
      var channelOptions =
      tags: "".split(" "),
      id: "69"
      ;
      initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

      StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
      // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
      if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
      StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
      createEditor();
      );

      else
      createEditor();

      );

      function createEditor()
      StackExchange.prepareEditor(
      heartbeatType: 'answer',
      convertImagesToLinks: true,
      noModals: false,
      showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
      reputationToPostImages: 10,
      bindNavPrevention: true,
      postfix: "",
      noCode: true, onDemand: true,
      discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
      ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
      );



      );













       

      draft saved


      draft discarded


















      StackExchange.ready(
      function ()
      StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1519941%2fevery-convergent-sequence-in-a-metric-space-has-a-unique-limit%23new-answer', 'question_page');

      );

      Post as a guest






























      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      4
      down vote



      accepted










      It’s badly stated. The point is that



      $$0lefracd(ell,m)2<epsilon$$



      for every $epsilon>0$, which is possible only if $fracd(ell,m)2=0$: otherwise it would be less than itself!






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Do you have any advice on understanding This Question? I would greatly appreciate it.
        – M.A.
        Nov 11 '15 at 16:02















      up vote
      4
      down vote



      accepted










      It’s badly stated. The point is that



      $$0lefracd(ell,m)2<epsilon$$



      for every $epsilon>0$, which is possible only if $fracd(ell,m)2=0$: otherwise it would be less than itself!






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Do you have any advice on understanding This Question? I would greatly appreciate it.
        – M.A.
        Nov 11 '15 at 16:02













      up vote
      4
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      4
      down vote



      accepted






      It’s badly stated. The point is that



      $$0lefracd(ell,m)2<epsilon$$



      for every $epsilon>0$, which is possible only if $fracd(ell,m)2=0$: otherwise it would be less than itself!






      share|cite|improve this answer












      It’s badly stated. The point is that



      $$0lefracd(ell,m)2<epsilon$$



      for every $epsilon>0$, which is possible only if $fracd(ell,m)2=0$: otherwise it would be less than itself!







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Nov 8 '15 at 23:54









      Brian M. Scott

      450k39497885




      450k39497885











      • Do you have any advice on understanding This Question? I would greatly appreciate it.
        – M.A.
        Nov 11 '15 at 16:02

















      • Do you have any advice on understanding This Question? I would greatly appreciate it.
        – M.A.
        Nov 11 '15 at 16:02
















      Do you have any advice on understanding This Question? I would greatly appreciate it.
      – M.A.
      Nov 11 '15 at 16:02





      Do you have any advice on understanding This Question? I would greatly appreciate it.
      – M.A.
      Nov 11 '15 at 16:02











      up vote
      2
      down vote













      One has the following statement:




      Let $X$ be a Hausdorff space and $(x_n)_ninmathbbNin X^mathbbN$, then $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ has at most one limit in $X$.




      Assume that $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_1in X$ and assume there exists $x_2in Xsetminusx_1$ such that $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_2$. Since $x_1neq x_2$ and $X$ is Hausdorff, there exists $V_1$ an open neighborhood of $x_1$ in $X$ and $V_2$ an open neighborhood of $x_2$ in $X$ such that $V_1cap V_2=varnothing$. Since $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_1$ there exists $N_1inmathbbN$ such that for all $ngeqslant N_1,x_nin V_1$, likewise there exists $N_2inmathbbN$ such that for all $ngeqslant N_2,x_nin V_2$. Define $N:=max(N_1,N_2)$, one has $x_Nin V_1cap V_2$, a contradiction.



      Now, notice that, one has:




      Let $(X,d)$ a metric space, then $X$ is Haussdorf.




      Let $(x,y)in X^2$ such that $xneq y$, then one has:
      $$d:=d(x,y)>0.$$
      $V_x:=Bleft(x,fracd2right)$ is an open neighborhood of $x$ and $V_y:=Bleft(y,fracd2right)$ is an open neighborhood of $y$, one has:$$V_xcap V_y=varnothing.$$
      Indeed, otherwise there exists $zin V_1cap V_2$ and one has:
      $$d(x,z)<fracd2textrm and d(y,z)<fracd2.$$
      Using triangle inequality it follows: $$d=d(x,y)<d,$$
      which is a contradiction.



      N.B. This answer is only here to show you that uniqueness of a limit of a sequence is not only true in metric spaces which are a particular case of Hausdorff spaces.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        2
        down vote













        One has the following statement:




        Let $X$ be a Hausdorff space and $(x_n)_ninmathbbNin X^mathbbN$, then $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ has at most one limit in $X$.




        Assume that $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_1in X$ and assume there exists $x_2in Xsetminusx_1$ such that $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_2$. Since $x_1neq x_2$ and $X$ is Hausdorff, there exists $V_1$ an open neighborhood of $x_1$ in $X$ and $V_2$ an open neighborhood of $x_2$ in $X$ such that $V_1cap V_2=varnothing$. Since $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_1$ there exists $N_1inmathbbN$ such that for all $ngeqslant N_1,x_nin V_1$, likewise there exists $N_2inmathbbN$ such that for all $ngeqslant N_2,x_nin V_2$. Define $N:=max(N_1,N_2)$, one has $x_Nin V_1cap V_2$, a contradiction.



        Now, notice that, one has:




        Let $(X,d)$ a metric space, then $X$ is Haussdorf.




        Let $(x,y)in X^2$ such that $xneq y$, then one has:
        $$d:=d(x,y)>0.$$
        $V_x:=Bleft(x,fracd2right)$ is an open neighborhood of $x$ and $V_y:=Bleft(y,fracd2right)$ is an open neighborhood of $y$, one has:$$V_xcap V_y=varnothing.$$
        Indeed, otherwise there exists $zin V_1cap V_2$ and one has:
        $$d(x,z)<fracd2textrm and d(y,z)<fracd2.$$
        Using triangle inequality it follows: $$d=d(x,y)<d,$$
        which is a contradiction.



        N.B. This answer is only here to show you that uniqueness of a limit of a sequence is not only true in metric spaces which are a particular case of Hausdorff spaces.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          2
          down vote










          up vote
          2
          down vote









          One has the following statement:




          Let $X$ be a Hausdorff space and $(x_n)_ninmathbbNin X^mathbbN$, then $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ has at most one limit in $X$.




          Assume that $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_1in X$ and assume there exists $x_2in Xsetminusx_1$ such that $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_2$. Since $x_1neq x_2$ and $X$ is Hausdorff, there exists $V_1$ an open neighborhood of $x_1$ in $X$ and $V_2$ an open neighborhood of $x_2$ in $X$ such that $V_1cap V_2=varnothing$. Since $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_1$ there exists $N_1inmathbbN$ such that for all $ngeqslant N_1,x_nin V_1$, likewise there exists $N_2inmathbbN$ such that for all $ngeqslant N_2,x_nin V_2$. Define $N:=max(N_1,N_2)$, one has $x_Nin V_1cap V_2$, a contradiction.



          Now, notice that, one has:




          Let $(X,d)$ a metric space, then $X$ is Haussdorf.




          Let $(x,y)in X^2$ such that $xneq y$, then one has:
          $$d:=d(x,y)>0.$$
          $V_x:=Bleft(x,fracd2right)$ is an open neighborhood of $x$ and $V_y:=Bleft(y,fracd2right)$ is an open neighborhood of $y$, one has:$$V_xcap V_y=varnothing.$$
          Indeed, otherwise there exists $zin V_1cap V_2$ and one has:
          $$d(x,z)<fracd2textrm and d(y,z)<fracd2.$$
          Using triangle inequality it follows: $$d=d(x,y)<d,$$
          which is a contradiction.



          N.B. This answer is only here to show you that uniqueness of a limit of a sequence is not only true in metric spaces which are a particular case of Hausdorff spaces.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          One has the following statement:




          Let $X$ be a Hausdorff space and $(x_n)_ninmathbbNin X^mathbbN$, then $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ has at most one limit in $X$.




          Assume that $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_1in X$ and assume there exists $x_2in Xsetminusx_1$ such that $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_2$. Since $x_1neq x_2$ and $X$ is Hausdorff, there exists $V_1$ an open neighborhood of $x_1$ in $X$ and $V_2$ an open neighborhood of $x_2$ in $X$ such that $V_1cap V_2=varnothing$. Since $(x_n)_ninmathbbN$ is convergent to $x_1$ there exists $N_1inmathbbN$ such that for all $ngeqslant N_1,x_nin V_1$, likewise there exists $N_2inmathbbN$ such that for all $ngeqslant N_2,x_nin V_2$. Define $N:=max(N_1,N_2)$, one has $x_Nin V_1cap V_2$, a contradiction.



          Now, notice that, one has:




          Let $(X,d)$ a metric space, then $X$ is Haussdorf.




          Let $(x,y)in X^2$ such that $xneq y$, then one has:
          $$d:=d(x,y)>0.$$
          $V_x:=Bleft(x,fracd2right)$ is an open neighborhood of $x$ and $V_y:=Bleft(y,fracd2right)$ is an open neighborhood of $y$, one has:$$V_xcap V_y=varnothing.$$
          Indeed, otherwise there exists $zin V_1cap V_2$ and one has:
          $$d(x,z)<fracd2textrm and d(y,z)<fracd2.$$
          Using triangle inequality it follows: $$d=d(x,y)<d,$$
          which is a contradiction.



          N.B. This answer is only here to show you that uniqueness of a limit of a sequence is not only true in metric spaces which are a particular case of Hausdorff spaces.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 9 '15 at 0:12









          C. Falcon

          14.7k41749




          14.7k41749




















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              If $d(l,m)/2<epsilon$ for every $epsilon>0$, then $d(l,m)/2=0$ otherwise $d(l,m)/2<d(l,m)/2$ which is a contradiction.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                If $d(l,m)/2<epsilon$ for every $epsilon>0$, then $d(l,m)/2=0$ otherwise $d(l,m)/2<d(l,m)/2$ which is a contradiction.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  If $d(l,m)/2<epsilon$ for every $epsilon>0$, then $d(l,m)/2=0$ otherwise $d(l,m)/2<d(l,m)/2$ which is a contradiction.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  If $d(l,m)/2<epsilon$ for every $epsilon>0$, then $d(l,m)/2=0$ otherwise $d(l,m)/2<d(l,m)/2$ which is a contradiction.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 8 '15 at 23:55







                  user223391


































                       

                      draft saved


                      draft discarded















































                       


                      draft saved


                      draft discarded














                      StackExchange.ready(
                      function ()
                      StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1519941%2fevery-convergent-sequence-in-a-metric-space-has-a-unique-limit%23new-answer', 'question_page');

                      );

                      Post as a guest













































































                      這個網誌中的熱門文章

                      How to combine Bézier curves to a surface?

                      Mutual Information Always Non-negative

                      Why am i infinitely getting the same tweet with the Twitter Search API?