Show this function series converge uniformly to a derivative function on $mathbbR$.

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We define $f_n(x) = fracn x^2 sin(nx)n^4 + x^4$. We have to prove that $$ sum_n=1^infty f_n $$ converges uniformly to a derivative function on $mathbbR$. To prove that, it suffices to show that there exists $x_0 in mathbbR$ so that $sum_n=1^infty f_n(x_0)$ converges (just take $x_0 = 0$) and that $$ sum_n=1^infty f_n'$$ converges uniformly to a certain function on $mathbbR$. If we do the derivative, we obtain $$ f_n'(x) = frac(2nx sin(nx) + n^2x^2 cos(nx))(n^4+x^4) - 4nx^5 sin(nx)(n^4+x^4)^2. $$ Now, to show the uniform convergence of the series, I think we must use the Weierstrass criterion, but I don't know how to obtain an upper bound valid on $mathbbR$ for $f_n'$.



Can anyone help me? Thank you.










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  • You do not need to find an upper bound on all of $mathbb R$. It is sufficient to find bounds $M_n(a)$ on each $[0,a]$, $a>0$, for $f_n'$ such that the sum of these bounds converges. That is straightforward: Estimate $sin,cos$ by 1, $x$ by $a$ in the numerator, $x$ by 0 in the denominator.
    – Helmut
    Sep 5 at 10:02











  • Yes, that was my first idea, but I wasn't very sure that uniform convergence in every compact subset of $mathbbR$ implies uniform convergence on $mathbbR$.
    – Javier González
    Sep 5 at 10:08










  • Use the local uniform convergence to prove the differentiability, then extend this to the whole axis.
    – xbh
    Sep 5 at 10:09










  • I see that the series would converge uniformly on every compact set of the real line to a derivative function on $mathbbR$, but how can I prove that I have uniform convergence on the whole real line?
    – Javier González
    Sep 5 at 10:13










  • @JavierGonzález Robert Z did not prove uniform convergence on $mathbb R$.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Sep 5 at 10:15














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












We define $f_n(x) = fracn x^2 sin(nx)n^4 + x^4$. We have to prove that $$ sum_n=1^infty f_n $$ converges uniformly to a derivative function on $mathbbR$. To prove that, it suffices to show that there exists $x_0 in mathbbR$ so that $sum_n=1^infty f_n(x_0)$ converges (just take $x_0 = 0$) and that $$ sum_n=1^infty f_n'$$ converges uniformly to a certain function on $mathbbR$. If we do the derivative, we obtain $$ f_n'(x) = frac(2nx sin(nx) + n^2x^2 cos(nx))(n^4+x^4) - 4nx^5 sin(nx)(n^4+x^4)^2. $$ Now, to show the uniform convergence of the series, I think we must use the Weierstrass criterion, but I don't know how to obtain an upper bound valid on $mathbbR$ for $f_n'$.



Can anyone help me? Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question





















  • You do not need to find an upper bound on all of $mathbb R$. It is sufficient to find bounds $M_n(a)$ on each $[0,a]$, $a>0$, for $f_n'$ such that the sum of these bounds converges. That is straightforward: Estimate $sin,cos$ by 1, $x$ by $a$ in the numerator, $x$ by 0 in the denominator.
    – Helmut
    Sep 5 at 10:02











  • Yes, that was my first idea, but I wasn't very sure that uniform convergence in every compact subset of $mathbbR$ implies uniform convergence on $mathbbR$.
    – Javier González
    Sep 5 at 10:08










  • Use the local uniform convergence to prove the differentiability, then extend this to the whole axis.
    – xbh
    Sep 5 at 10:09










  • I see that the series would converge uniformly on every compact set of the real line to a derivative function on $mathbbR$, but how can I prove that I have uniform convergence on the whole real line?
    – Javier González
    Sep 5 at 10:13










  • @JavierGonzález Robert Z did not prove uniform convergence on $mathbb R$.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Sep 5 at 10:15












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











We define $f_n(x) = fracn x^2 sin(nx)n^4 + x^4$. We have to prove that $$ sum_n=1^infty f_n $$ converges uniformly to a derivative function on $mathbbR$. To prove that, it suffices to show that there exists $x_0 in mathbbR$ so that $sum_n=1^infty f_n(x_0)$ converges (just take $x_0 = 0$) and that $$ sum_n=1^infty f_n'$$ converges uniformly to a certain function on $mathbbR$. If we do the derivative, we obtain $$ f_n'(x) = frac(2nx sin(nx) + n^2x^2 cos(nx))(n^4+x^4) - 4nx^5 sin(nx)(n^4+x^4)^2. $$ Now, to show the uniform convergence of the series, I think we must use the Weierstrass criterion, but I don't know how to obtain an upper bound valid on $mathbbR$ for $f_n'$.



Can anyone help me? Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question













We define $f_n(x) = fracn x^2 sin(nx)n^4 + x^4$. We have to prove that $$ sum_n=1^infty f_n $$ converges uniformly to a derivative function on $mathbbR$. To prove that, it suffices to show that there exists $x_0 in mathbbR$ so that $sum_n=1^infty f_n(x_0)$ converges (just take $x_0 = 0$) and that $$ sum_n=1^infty f_n'$$ converges uniformly to a certain function on $mathbbR$. If we do the derivative, we obtain $$ f_n'(x) = frac(2nx sin(nx) + n^2x^2 cos(nx))(n^4+x^4) - 4nx^5 sin(nx)(n^4+x^4)^2. $$ Now, to show the uniform convergence of the series, I think we must use the Weierstrass criterion, but I don't know how to obtain an upper bound valid on $mathbbR$ for $f_n'$.



Can anyone help me? Thank you.







real-analysis sequences-and-series uniform-convergence






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asked Sep 5 at 9:55









Javier González

809




809











  • You do not need to find an upper bound on all of $mathbb R$. It is sufficient to find bounds $M_n(a)$ on each $[0,a]$, $a>0$, for $f_n'$ such that the sum of these bounds converges. That is straightforward: Estimate $sin,cos$ by 1, $x$ by $a$ in the numerator, $x$ by 0 in the denominator.
    – Helmut
    Sep 5 at 10:02











  • Yes, that was my first idea, but I wasn't very sure that uniform convergence in every compact subset of $mathbbR$ implies uniform convergence on $mathbbR$.
    – Javier González
    Sep 5 at 10:08










  • Use the local uniform convergence to prove the differentiability, then extend this to the whole axis.
    – xbh
    Sep 5 at 10:09










  • I see that the series would converge uniformly on every compact set of the real line to a derivative function on $mathbbR$, but how can I prove that I have uniform convergence on the whole real line?
    – Javier González
    Sep 5 at 10:13










  • @JavierGonzález Robert Z did not prove uniform convergence on $mathbb R$.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Sep 5 at 10:15
















  • You do not need to find an upper bound on all of $mathbb R$. It is sufficient to find bounds $M_n(a)$ on each $[0,a]$, $a>0$, for $f_n'$ such that the sum of these bounds converges. That is straightforward: Estimate $sin,cos$ by 1, $x$ by $a$ in the numerator, $x$ by 0 in the denominator.
    – Helmut
    Sep 5 at 10:02











  • Yes, that was my first idea, but I wasn't very sure that uniform convergence in every compact subset of $mathbbR$ implies uniform convergence on $mathbbR$.
    – Javier González
    Sep 5 at 10:08










  • Use the local uniform convergence to prove the differentiability, then extend this to the whole axis.
    – xbh
    Sep 5 at 10:09










  • I see that the series would converge uniformly on every compact set of the real line to a derivative function on $mathbbR$, but how can I prove that I have uniform convergence on the whole real line?
    – Javier González
    Sep 5 at 10:13










  • @JavierGonzález Robert Z did not prove uniform convergence on $mathbb R$.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Sep 5 at 10:15















You do not need to find an upper bound on all of $mathbb R$. It is sufficient to find bounds $M_n(a)$ on each $[0,a]$, $a>0$, for $f_n'$ such that the sum of these bounds converges. That is straightforward: Estimate $sin,cos$ by 1, $x$ by $a$ in the numerator, $x$ by 0 in the denominator.
– Helmut
Sep 5 at 10:02





You do not need to find an upper bound on all of $mathbb R$. It is sufficient to find bounds $M_n(a)$ on each $[0,a]$, $a>0$, for $f_n'$ such that the sum of these bounds converges. That is straightforward: Estimate $sin,cos$ by 1, $x$ by $a$ in the numerator, $x$ by 0 in the denominator.
– Helmut
Sep 5 at 10:02













Yes, that was my first idea, but I wasn't very sure that uniform convergence in every compact subset of $mathbbR$ implies uniform convergence on $mathbbR$.
– Javier González
Sep 5 at 10:08




Yes, that was my first idea, but I wasn't very sure that uniform convergence in every compact subset of $mathbbR$ implies uniform convergence on $mathbbR$.
– Javier González
Sep 5 at 10:08












Use the local uniform convergence to prove the differentiability, then extend this to the whole axis.
– xbh
Sep 5 at 10:09




Use the local uniform convergence to prove the differentiability, then extend this to the whole axis.
– xbh
Sep 5 at 10:09












I see that the series would converge uniformly on every compact set of the real line to a derivative function on $mathbbR$, but how can I prove that I have uniform convergence on the whole real line?
– Javier González
Sep 5 at 10:13




I see that the series would converge uniformly on every compact set of the real line to a derivative function on $mathbbR$, but how can I prove that I have uniform convergence on the whole real line?
– Javier González
Sep 5 at 10:13












@JavierGonzález Robert Z did not prove uniform convergence on $mathbb R$.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Sep 5 at 10:15




@JavierGonzález Robert Z did not prove uniform convergence on $mathbb R$.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Sep 5 at 10:15










1 Answer
1






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0
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accepted










1) Uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ in $mathbbR$: note that
$$sum_n=1^infty f_n(x)=x^2sum_n=1^infty fracn sin(nx)n^4 + x^4$$
and $left|fracnsin(nx)n^4 + x^4right|leq frac1n^3$, then by the $M$-test the series converges uniformly in $mathbbR$ to some continuous function $F$.



2) As regards the differentiability of $F$, all you need is the convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n'$ in the compact set $[-R,R]$ for all $R>0$: for $xin [-R,R]$, and for $ngeq1$,
$$|f'_n(x)|leq frac(2nR + n^2R^2)(n^4+R^4) + 4nR^5n^8leq fracC_Rn^2$$
for some constant $C_R$ (which depends on $R$). Then $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ converges uniformly to the derivative of $F$ on $[-R,R]$ for all $R>|x_0|$ (recall that differentiability is a local property).






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • How do you prove it?
    – Javier González
    Sep 5 at 10:17






  • 1




    @JavierGonzález See my edit.
    – Robert Z
    Sep 5 at 11:36










  • @KaviRamaMurthy OP is asking for uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ in $mathbbR$ AND that the limit function is differentiable (not necessarily the uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f'_n$ in $mathbbR$.
    – Robert Z
    Sep 5 at 11:38










  • @KaviRamaMurthy "Uniform convergence is asserted on the whole line" for $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ not for $sum_n=1^infty f_n'$!
    – Robert Z
    Sep 6 at 5:49










  • @RobertZ You are right as far the question is concerned. But OP has given an argument and he wants some help with in completing it. He has asserted that the differentiated series also converges uniformly.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Sep 6 at 5:53










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1 Answer
1






active

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
0
down vote



accepted










1) Uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ in $mathbbR$: note that
$$sum_n=1^infty f_n(x)=x^2sum_n=1^infty fracn sin(nx)n^4 + x^4$$
and $left|fracnsin(nx)n^4 + x^4right|leq frac1n^3$, then by the $M$-test the series converges uniformly in $mathbbR$ to some continuous function $F$.



2) As regards the differentiability of $F$, all you need is the convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n'$ in the compact set $[-R,R]$ for all $R>0$: for $xin [-R,R]$, and for $ngeq1$,
$$|f'_n(x)|leq frac(2nR + n^2R^2)(n^4+R^4) + 4nR^5n^8leq fracC_Rn^2$$
for some constant $C_R$ (which depends on $R$). Then $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ converges uniformly to the derivative of $F$ on $[-R,R]$ for all $R>|x_0|$ (recall that differentiability is a local property).






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • How do you prove it?
    – Javier González
    Sep 5 at 10:17






  • 1




    @JavierGonzález See my edit.
    – Robert Z
    Sep 5 at 11:36










  • @KaviRamaMurthy OP is asking for uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ in $mathbbR$ AND that the limit function is differentiable (not necessarily the uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f'_n$ in $mathbbR$.
    – Robert Z
    Sep 5 at 11:38










  • @KaviRamaMurthy "Uniform convergence is asserted on the whole line" for $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ not for $sum_n=1^infty f_n'$!
    – Robert Z
    Sep 6 at 5:49










  • @RobertZ You are right as far the question is concerned. But OP has given an argument and he wants some help with in completing it. He has asserted that the differentiated series also converges uniformly.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Sep 6 at 5:53














up vote
0
down vote



accepted










1) Uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ in $mathbbR$: note that
$$sum_n=1^infty f_n(x)=x^2sum_n=1^infty fracn sin(nx)n^4 + x^4$$
and $left|fracnsin(nx)n^4 + x^4right|leq frac1n^3$, then by the $M$-test the series converges uniformly in $mathbbR$ to some continuous function $F$.



2) As regards the differentiability of $F$, all you need is the convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n'$ in the compact set $[-R,R]$ for all $R>0$: for $xin [-R,R]$, and for $ngeq1$,
$$|f'_n(x)|leq frac(2nR + n^2R^2)(n^4+R^4) + 4nR^5n^8leq fracC_Rn^2$$
for some constant $C_R$ (which depends on $R$). Then $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ converges uniformly to the derivative of $F$ on $[-R,R]$ for all $R>|x_0|$ (recall that differentiability is a local property).






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • How do you prove it?
    – Javier González
    Sep 5 at 10:17






  • 1




    @JavierGonzález See my edit.
    – Robert Z
    Sep 5 at 11:36










  • @KaviRamaMurthy OP is asking for uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ in $mathbbR$ AND that the limit function is differentiable (not necessarily the uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f'_n$ in $mathbbR$.
    – Robert Z
    Sep 5 at 11:38










  • @KaviRamaMurthy "Uniform convergence is asserted on the whole line" for $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ not for $sum_n=1^infty f_n'$!
    – Robert Z
    Sep 6 at 5:49










  • @RobertZ You are right as far the question is concerned. But OP has given an argument and he wants some help with in completing it. He has asserted that the differentiated series also converges uniformly.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Sep 6 at 5:53












up vote
0
down vote



accepted







up vote
0
down vote



accepted






1) Uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ in $mathbbR$: note that
$$sum_n=1^infty f_n(x)=x^2sum_n=1^infty fracn sin(nx)n^4 + x^4$$
and $left|fracnsin(nx)n^4 + x^4right|leq frac1n^3$, then by the $M$-test the series converges uniformly in $mathbbR$ to some continuous function $F$.



2) As regards the differentiability of $F$, all you need is the convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n'$ in the compact set $[-R,R]$ for all $R>0$: for $xin [-R,R]$, and for $ngeq1$,
$$|f'_n(x)|leq frac(2nR + n^2R^2)(n^4+R^4) + 4nR^5n^8leq fracC_Rn^2$$
for some constant $C_R$ (which depends on $R$). Then $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ converges uniformly to the derivative of $F$ on $[-R,R]$ for all $R>|x_0|$ (recall that differentiability is a local property).






share|cite|improve this answer














1) Uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ in $mathbbR$: note that
$$sum_n=1^infty f_n(x)=x^2sum_n=1^infty fracn sin(nx)n^4 + x^4$$
and $left|fracnsin(nx)n^4 + x^4right|leq frac1n^3$, then by the $M$-test the series converges uniformly in $mathbbR$ to some continuous function $F$.



2) As regards the differentiability of $F$, all you need is the convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n'$ in the compact set $[-R,R]$ for all $R>0$: for $xin [-R,R]$, and for $ngeq1$,
$$|f'_n(x)|leq frac(2nR + n^2R^2)(n^4+R^4) + 4nR^5n^8leq fracC_Rn^2$$
for some constant $C_R$ (which depends on $R$). Then $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ converges uniformly to the derivative of $F$ on $[-R,R]$ for all $R>|x_0|$ (recall that differentiability is a local property).







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Sep 5 at 15:09

























answered Sep 5 at 10:08









Robert Z

85.8k1056124




85.8k1056124











  • How do you prove it?
    – Javier González
    Sep 5 at 10:17






  • 1




    @JavierGonzález See my edit.
    – Robert Z
    Sep 5 at 11:36










  • @KaviRamaMurthy OP is asking for uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ in $mathbbR$ AND that the limit function is differentiable (not necessarily the uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f'_n$ in $mathbbR$.
    – Robert Z
    Sep 5 at 11:38










  • @KaviRamaMurthy "Uniform convergence is asserted on the whole line" for $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ not for $sum_n=1^infty f_n'$!
    – Robert Z
    Sep 6 at 5:49










  • @RobertZ You are right as far the question is concerned. But OP has given an argument and he wants some help with in completing it. He has asserted that the differentiated series also converges uniformly.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Sep 6 at 5:53
















  • How do you prove it?
    – Javier González
    Sep 5 at 10:17






  • 1




    @JavierGonzález See my edit.
    – Robert Z
    Sep 5 at 11:36










  • @KaviRamaMurthy OP is asking for uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ in $mathbbR$ AND that the limit function is differentiable (not necessarily the uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f'_n$ in $mathbbR$.
    – Robert Z
    Sep 5 at 11:38










  • @KaviRamaMurthy "Uniform convergence is asserted on the whole line" for $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ not for $sum_n=1^infty f_n'$!
    – Robert Z
    Sep 6 at 5:49










  • @RobertZ You are right as far the question is concerned. But OP has given an argument and he wants some help with in completing it. He has asserted that the differentiated series also converges uniformly.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Sep 6 at 5:53















How do you prove it?
– Javier González
Sep 5 at 10:17




How do you prove it?
– Javier González
Sep 5 at 10:17




1




1




@JavierGonzález See my edit.
– Robert Z
Sep 5 at 11:36




@JavierGonzález See my edit.
– Robert Z
Sep 5 at 11:36












@KaviRamaMurthy OP is asking for uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ in $mathbbR$ AND that the limit function is differentiable (not necessarily the uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f'_n$ in $mathbbR$.
– Robert Z
Sep 5 at 11:38




@KaviRamaMurthy OP is asking for uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ in $mathbbR$ AND that the limit function is differentiable (not necessarily the uniform convergence of $sum_n=1^infty f'_n$ in $mathbbR$.
– Robert Z
Sep 5 at 11:38












@KaviRamaMurthy "Uniform convergence is asserted on the whole line" for $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ not for $sum_n=1^infty f_n'$!
– Robert Z
Sep 6 at 5:49




@KaviRamaMurthy "Uniform convergence is asserted on the whole line" for $sum_n=1^infty f_n$ not for $sum_n=1^infty f_n'$!
– Robert Z
Sep 6 at 5:49












@RobertZ You are right as far the question is concerned. But OP has given an argument and he wants some help with in completing it. He has asserted that the differentiated series also converges uniformly.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Sep 6 at 5:53




@RobertZ You are right as far the question is concerned. But OP has given an argument and he wants some help with in completing it. He has asserted that the differentiated series also converges uniformly.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Sep 6 at 5:53

















 

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