Is the normed linear space $X$ isometrically isomorphic to $Y$, if there is a linear operator $T: X to Y$ such that $|T|=1$?

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My question is if $|T|=1$ a sufficient condition for isometric isomorphism. If yes, how to prove it? If not, which additional conditions are needed? Perhaps $|T^-1|=1$ is necessary?










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  • @KaviRamaMurthy I ignored it because you already answered it. I just gave another counterexample for the first statement.
    – mechanodroid
    Sep 5 at 10:56














up vote
3
down vote

favorite












My question is if $|T|=1$ a sufficient condition for isometric isomorphism. If yes, how to prove it? If not, which additional conditions are needed? Perhaps $|T^-1|=1$ is necessary?










share|cite|improve this question























  • @KaviRamaMurthy I ignored it because you already answered it. I just gave another counterexample for the first statement.
    – mechanodroid
    Sep 5 at 10:56












up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











My question is if $|T|=1$ a sufficient condition for isometric isomorphism. If yes, how to prove it? If not, which additional conditions are needed? Perhaps $|T^-1|=1$ is necessary?










share|cite|improve this question















My question is if $|T|=1$ a sufficient condition for isometric isomorphism. If yes, how to prove it? If not, which additional conditions are needed? Perhaps $|T^-1|=1$ is necessary?







linear-algebra functional-analysis normed-spaces isometry






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edited Sep 5 at 10:33









Saucy O'Path

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asked Sep 5 at 10:01









Analysis Newbie

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  • @KaviRamaMurthy I ignored it because you already answered it. I just gave another counterexample for the first statement.
    – mechanodroid
    Sep 5 at 10:56
















  • @KaviRamaMurthy I ignored it because you already answered it. I just gave another counterexample for the first statement.
    – mechanodroid
    Sep 5 at 10:56















@KaviRamaMurthy I ignored it because you already answered it. I just gave another counterexample for the first statement.
– mechanodroid
Sep 5 at 10:56




@KaviRamaMurthy I ignored it because you already answered it. I just gave another counterexample for the first statement.
– mechanodroid
Sep 5 at 10:56










3 Answers
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No, it is not sufficient. Take $operatornameIdcolon(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)longrightarrow(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$. Then $|operatornameId|=1$, but $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)$ and $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$ are not isometric.






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    Certainly, $|T|=1$ is not enough. In fact if $T$ is any nonzero operator then $S=frac 1 TT $ satisfies $|S||=1$ so such an operator exists for any two spaces (except $0$). Suppose $|T|=|T^-1|=1$. Then $|x||=||T^-1 Tx|| leq |Tx||$ and $|x||=||T T^-1x|| leq |T^-1x||$. Changing $x $ to $Tx$ in the second inequality we get $|Tx| leq ||x||$. Hence $T$ is an isometric isomorphism. Conversely, if $T$ is an isometric isomorphism then $|T^-1||=1$. So we can say that a bijective linear map $T$ of norm $1$ is an isometric isomorphism iff $|T^-1|=1$.






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      It is known that $c_0$ and $c$ equipped with the $|cdot|_infty$-norm are not isometrically isomorphic.



      Hovewer, the inclusion $T : c_0 hookrightarrow c$ has norm $1$ (it is even isometric).






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        3 Answers
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        No, it is not sufficient. Take $operatornameIdcolon(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)longrightarrow(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$. Then $|operatornameId|=1$, but $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)$ and $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$ are not isometric.






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          No, it is not sufficient. Take $operatornameIdcolon(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)longrightarrow(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$. Then $|operatornameId|=1$, but $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)$ and $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$ are not isometric.






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            No, it is not sufficient. Take $operatornameIdcolon(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)longrightarrow(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$. Then $|operatornameId|=1$, but $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)$ and $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$ are not isometric.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            No, it is not sufficient. Take $operatornameIdcolon(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)longrightarrow(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$. Then $|operatornameId|=1$, but $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)$ and $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$ are not isometric.







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            answered Sep 5 at 10:08









            José Carlos Santos

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                Certainly, $|T|=1$ is not enough. In fact if $T$ is any nonzero operator then $S=frac 1 TT $ satisfies $|S||=1$ so such an operator exists for any two spaces (except $0$). Suppose $|T|=|T^-1|=1$. Then $|x||=||T^-1 Tx|| leq |Tx||$ and $|x||=||T T^-1x|| leq |T^-1x||$. Changing $x $ to $Tx$ in the second inequality we get $|Tx| leq ||x||$. Hence $T$ is an isometric isomorphism. Conversely, if $T$ is an isometric isomorphism then $|T^-1||=1$. So we can say that a bijective linear map $T$ of norm $1$ is an isometric isomorphism iff $|T^-1|=1$.






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                  Certainly, $|T|=1$ is not enough. In fact if $T$ is any nonzero operator then $S=frac 1 TT $ satisfies $|S||=1$ so such an operator exists for any two spaces (except $0$). Suppose $|T|=|T^-1|=1$. Then $|x||=||T^-1 Tx|| leq |Tx||$ and $|x||=||T T^-1x|| leq |T^-1x||$. Changing $x $ to $Tx$ in the second inequality we get $|Tx| leq ||x||$. Hence $T$ is an isometric isomorphism. Conversely, if $T$ is an isometric isomorphism then $|T^-1||=1$. So we can say that a bijective linear map $T$ of norm $1$ is an isometric isomorphism iff $|T^-1|=1$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer






















                    up vote
                    1
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                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote









                    Certainly, $|T|=1$ is not enough. In fact if $T$ is any nonzero operator then $S=frac 1 TT $ satisfies $|S||=1$ so such an operator exists for any two spaces (except $0$). Suppose $|T|=|T^-1|=1$. Then $|x||=||T^-1 Tx|| leq |Tx||$ and $|x||=||T T^-1x|| leq |T^-1x||$. Changing $x $ to $Tx$ in the second inequality we get $|Tx| leq ||x||$. Hence $T$ is an isometric isomorphism. Conversely, if $T$ is an isometric isomorphism then $|T^-1||=1$. So we can say that a bijective linear map $T$ of norm $1$ is an isometric isomorphism iff $|T^-1|=1$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    Certainly, $|T|=1$ is not enough. In fact if $T$ is any nonzero operator then $S=frac 1 TT $ satisfies $|S||=1$ so such an operator exists for any two spaces (except $0$). Suppose $|T|=|T^-1|=1$. Then $|x||=||T^-1 Tx|| leq |Tx||$ and $|x||=||T T^-1x|| leq |T^-1x||$. Changing $x $ to $Tx$ in the second inequality we get $|Tx| leq ||x||$. Hence $T$ is an isometric isomorphism. Conversely, if $T$ is an isometric isomorphism then $|T^-1||=1$. So we can say that a bijective linear map $T$ of norm $1$ is an isometric isomorphism iff $|T^-1|=1$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Sep 5 at 10:08









                    Kavi Rama Murthy

                    26.3k31438




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                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        It is known that $c_0$ and $c$ equipped with the $|cdot|_infty$-norm are not isometrically isomorphic.



                        Hovewer, the inclusion $T : c_0 hookrightarrow c$ has norm $1$ (it is even isometric).






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote













                          It is known that $c_0$ and $c$ equipped with the $|cdot|_infty$-norm are not isometrically isomorphic.



                          Hovewer, the inclusion $T : c_0 hookrightarrow c$ has norm $1$ (it is even isometric).






                          share|cite|improve this answer






















                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote









                            It is known that $c_0$ and $c$ equipped with the $|cdot|_infty$-norm are not isometrically isomorphic.



                            Hovewer, the inclusion $T : c_0 hookrightarrow c$ has norm $1$ (it is even isometric).






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            It is known that $c_0$ and $c$ equipped with the $|cdot|_infty$-norm are not isometrically isomorphic.



                            Hovewer, the inclusion $T : c_0 hookrightarrow c$ has norm $1$ (it is even isometric).







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Sep 5 at 10:14









                            mechanodroid

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