Is the normed linear space $X$ isometrically isomorphic to $Y$, if there is a linear operator $T: X to Y$ such that $|T|=1$?
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
My question is if $|T|=1$ a sufficient condition for isometric isomorphism. If yes, how to prove it? If not, which additional conditions are needed? Perhaps $|T^-1|=1$ is necessary?
linear-algebra functional-analysis normed-spaces isometry
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
My question is if $|T|=1$ a sufficient condition for isometric isomorphism. If yes, how to prove it? If not, which additional conditions are needed? Perhaps $|T^-1|=1$ is necessary?
linear-algebra functional-analysis normed-spaces isometry
@KaviRamaMurthy I ignored it because you already answered it. I just gave another counterexample for the first statement.
â mechanodroid
Sep 5 at 10:56
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
My question is if $|T|=1$ a sufficient condition for isometric isomorphism. If yes, how to prove it? If not, which additional conditions are needed? Perhaps $|T^-1|=1$ is necessary?
linear-algebra functional-analysis normed-spaces isometry
My question is if $|T|=1$ a sufficient condition for isometric isomorphism. If yes, how to prove it? If not, which additional conditions are needed? Perhaps $|T^-1|=1$ is necessary?
linear-algebra functional-analysis normed-spaces isometry
linear-algebra functional-analysis normed-spaces isometry
edited Sep 5 at 10:33
Saucy O'Path
3,826424
3,826424
asked Sep 5 at 10:01
Analysis Newbie
35117
35117
@KaviRamaMurthy I ignored it because you already answered it. I just gave another counterexample for the first statement.
â mechanodroid
Sep 5 at 10:56
add a comment |Â
@KaviRamaMurthy I ignored it because you already answered it. I just gave another counterexample for the first statement.
â mechanodroid
Sep 5 at 10:56
@KaviRamaMurthy I ignored it because you already answered it. I just gave another counterexample for the first statement.
â mechanodroid
Sep 5 at 10:56
@KaviRamaMurthy I ignored it because you already answered it. I just gave another counterexample for the first statement.
â mechanodroid
Sep 5 at 10:56
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
No, it is not sufficient. Take $operatornameIdcolon(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)longrightarrow(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$. Then $|operatornameId|=1$, but $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)$ and $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$ are not isometric.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Certainly, $|T|=1$ is not enough. In fact if $T$ is any nonzero operator then $S=frac 1 TT $ satisfies $|S||=1$ so such an operator exists for any two spaces (except $0$). Suppose $|T|=|T^-1|=1$. Then $|x||=||T^-1 Tx|| leq |Tx||$ and $|x||=||T T^-1x|| leq |T^-1x||$. Changing $x $ to $Tx$ in the second inequality we get $|Tx| leq ||x||$. Hence $T$ is an isometric isomorphism. Conversely, if $T$ is an isometric isomorphism then $|T^-1||=1$. So we can say that a bijective linear map $T$ of norm $1$ is an isometric isomorphism iff $|T^-1|=1$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
It is known that $c_0$ and $c$ equipped with the $|cdot|_infty$-norm are not isometrically isomorphic.
Hovewer, the inclusion $T : c_0 hookrightarrow c$ has norm $1$ (it is even isometric).
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
No, it is not sufficient. Take $operatornameIdcolon(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)longrightarrow(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$. Then $|operatornameId|=1$, but $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)$ and $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$ are not isometric.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
No, it is not sufficient. Take $operatornameIdcolon(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)longrightarrow(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$. Then $|operatornameId|=1$, but $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)$ and $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$ are not isometric.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
No, it is not sufficient. Take $operatornameIdcolon(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)longrightarrow(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$. Then $|operatornameId|=1$, but $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)$ and $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$ are not isometric.
No, it is not sufficient. Take $operatornameIdcolon(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)longrightarrow(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$. Then $|operatornameId|=1$, but $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_1)$ and $(mathbbR^2,|cdot|_2)$ are not isometric.
answered Sep 5 at 10:08
José Carlos Santos
122k16101186
122k16101186
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Certainly, $|T|=1$ is not enough. In fact if $T$ is any nonzero operator then $S=frac 1 TT $ satisfies $|S||=1$ so such an operator exists for any two spaces (except $0$). Suppose $|T|=|T^-1|=1$. Then $|x||=||T^-1 Tx|| leq |Tx||$ and $|x||=||T T^-1x|| leq |T^-1x||$. Changing $x $ to $Tx$ in the second inequality we get $|Tx| leq ||x||$. Hence $T$ is an isometric isomorphism. Conversely, if $T$ is an isometric isomorphism then $|T^-1||=1$. So we can say that a bijective linear map $T$ of norm $1$ is an isometric isomorphism iff $|T^-1|=1$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Certainly, $|T|=1$ is not enough. In fact if $T$ is any nonzero operator then $S=frac 1 TT $ satisfies $|S||=1$ so such an operator exists for any two spaces (except $0$). Suppose $|T|=|T^-1|=1$. Then $|x||=||T^-1 Tx|| leq |Tx||$ and $|x||=||T T^-1x|| leq |T^-1x||$. Changing $x $ to $Tx$ in the second inequality we get $|Tx| leq ||x||$. Hence $T$ is an isometric isomorphism. Conversely, if $T$ is an isometric isomorphism then $|T^-1||=1$. So we can say that a bijective linear map $T$ of norm $1$ is an isometric isomorphism iff $|T^-1|=1$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Certainly, $|T|=1$ is not enough. In fact if $T$ is any nonzero operator then $S=frac 1 TT $ satisfies $|S||=1$ so such an operator exists for any two spaces (except $0$). Suppose $|T|=|T^-1|=1$. Then $|x||=||T^-1 Tx|| leq |Tx||$ and $|x||=||T T^-1x|| leq |T^-1x||$. Changing $x $ to $Tx$ in the second inequality we get $|Tx| leq ||x||$. Hence $T$ is an isometric isomorphism. Conversely, if $T$ is an isometric isomorphism then $|T^-1||=1$. So we can say that a bijective linear map $T$ of norm $1$ is an isometric isomorphism iff $|T^-1|=1$.
Certainly, $|T|=1$ is not enough. In fact if $T$ is any nonzero operator then $S=frac 1 TT $ satisfies $|S||=1$ so such an operator exists for any two spaces (except $0$). Suppose $|T|=|T^-1|=1$. Then $|x||=||T^-1 Tx|| leq |Tx||$ and $|x||=||T T^-1x|| leq |T^-1x||$. Changing $x $ to $Tx$ in the second inequality we get $|Tx| leq ||x||$. Hence $T$ is an isometric isomorphism. Conversely, if $T$ is an isometric isomorphism then $|T^-1||=1$. So we can say that a bijective linear map $T$ of norm $1$ is an isometric isomorphism iff $|T^-1|=1$.
answered Sep 5 at 10:08
Kavi Rama Murthy
26.3k31438
26.3k31438
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
It is known that $c_0$ and $c$ equipped with the $|cdot|_infty$-norm are not isometrically isomorphic.
Hovewer, the inclusion $T : c_0 hookrightarrow c$ has norm $1$ (it is even isometric).
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
It is known that $c_0$ and $c$ equipped with the $|cdot|_infty$-norm are not isometrically isomorphic.
Hovewer, the inclusion $T : c_0 hookrightarrow c$ has norm $1$ (it is even isometric).
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
It is known that $c_0$ and $c$ equipped with the $|cdot|_infty$-norm are not isometrically isomorphic.
Hovewer, the inclusion $T : c_0 hookrightarrow c$ has norm $1$ (it is even isometric).
It is known that $c_0$ and $c$ equipped with the $|cdot|_infty$-norm are not isometrically isomorphic.
Hovewer, the inclusion $T : c_0 hookrightarrow c$ has norm $1$ (it is even isometric).
answered Sep 5 at 10:14
mechanodroid
24.4k62245
24.4k62245
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2906091%2fis-the-normed-linear-space-x-isometrically-isomorphic-to-y-if-there-is-a-li%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
@KaviRamaMurthy I ignored it because you already answered it. I just gave another counterexample for the first statement.
â mechanodroid
Sep 5 at 10:56