How to prove that the function $f$ is continuous on $mathbbR$

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Let
$$f:mathbbRto mathbbR : f(x)=begincases a^x & textif $x in mathbbQ$ \ sup f(y):y<x text and y in mathbbQ & textif $x in mathbbR setminus mathbbQ$endcases$$ where $a>0$.



Prove that $f$ is continuous on $mathbbR$.










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  • I assume that $a>0$?
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Sep 5 at 8:03










  • @HagenvonEitzen..yes here a>0
    – Crack TheSolution
    Sep 5 at 8:04










  • How far have you gotten with the $epsilon$-$delta$? Where are you stuck?
    – Arthur
    Sep 5 at 8:09










  • @Arthur..i am trying to prove by sequential criterion but im not getting idea
    – Crack TheSolution
    Sep 5 at 8:10











  • I would follow the following steps: 1. Show $f|_mathbbQ$ is uniformly continuous on bounded intervals. Use Hagen's hint to do this. 2. Use the fact that a uniformly continuous function has a unique continuous extension to the space's completion to extend $f$ restricted to the various bounded intervals in $mathbbR$. 3. Show that these extensions are montone (depending on $a$) using continuity. 4. Show that all extensions agree with the definition of $f$ on their domains.
    – Theo Bendit
    Sep 5 at 8:16















up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1












Let
$$f:mathbbRto mathbbR : f(x)=begincases a^x & textif $x in mathbbQ$ \ sup f(y):y<x text and y in mathbbQ & textif $x in mathbbR setminus mathbbQ$endcases$$ where $a>0$.



Prove that $f$ is continuous on $mathbbR$.










share|cite|improve this question























  • I assume that $a>0$?
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Sep 5 at 8:03










  • @HagenvonEitzen..yes here a>0
    – Crack TheSolution
    Sep 5 at 8:04










  • How far have you gotten with the $epsilon$-$delta$? Where are you stuck?
    – Arthur
    Sep 5 at 8:09










  • @Arthur..i am trying to prove by sequential criterion but im not getting idea
    – Crack TheSolution
    Sep 5 at 8:10











  • I would follow the following steps: 1. Show $f|_mathbbQ$ is uniformly continuous on bounded intervals. Use Hagen's hint to do this. 2. Use the fact that a uniformly continuous function has a unique continuous extension to the space's completion to extend $f$ restricted to the various bounded intervals in $mathbbR$. 3. Show that these extensions are montone (depending on $a$) using continuity. 4. Show that all extensions agree with the definition of $f$ on their domains.
    – Theo Bendit
    Sep 5 at 8:16













up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1






1





Let
$$f:mathbbRto mathbbR : f(x)=begincases a^x & textif $x in mathbbQ$ \ sup f(y):y<x text and y in mathbbQ & textif $x in mathbbR setminus mathbbQ$endcases$$ where $a>0$.



Prove that $f$ is continuous on $mathbbR$.










share|cite|improve this question















Let
$$f:mathbbRto mathbbR : f(x)=begincases a^x & textif $x in mathbbQ$ \ sup f(y):y<x text and y in mathbbQ & textif $x in mathbbR setminus mathbbQ$endcases$$ where $a>0$.



Prove that $f$ is continuous on $mathbbR$.







real-analysis sequences-and-series limits






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edited Sep 5 at 9:08









José Carlos Santos

122k16101186




122k16101186










asked Sep 5 at 8:02









Crack TheSolution

214




214











  • I assume that $a>0$?
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Sep 5 at 8:03










  • @HagenvonEitzen..yes here a>0
    – Crack TheSolution
    Sep 5 at 8:04










  • How far have you gotten with the $epsilon$-$delta$? Where are you stuck?
    – Arthur
    Sep 5 at 8:09










  • @Arthur..i am trying to prove by sequential criterion but im not getting idea
    – Crack TheSolution
    Sep 5 at 8:10











  • I would follow the following steps: 1. Show $f|_mathbbQ$ is uniformly continuous on bounded intervals. Use Hagen's hint to do this. 2. Use the fact that a uniformly continuous function has a unique continuous extension to the space's completion to extend $f$ restricted to the various bounded intervals in $mathbbR$. 3. Show that these extensions are montone (depending on $a$) using continuity. 4. Show that all extensions agree with the definition of $f$ on their domains.
    – Theo Bendit
    Sep 5 at 8:16

















  • I assume that $a>0$?
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Sep 5 at 8:03










  • @HagenvonEitzen..yes here a>0
    – Crack TheSolution
    Sep 5 at 8:04










  • How far have you gotten with the $epsilon$-$delta$? Where are you stuck?
    – Arthur
    Sep 5 at 8:09










  • @Arthur..i am trying to prove by sequential criterion but im not getting idea
    – Crack TheSolution
    Sep 5 at 8:10











  • I would follow the following steps: 1. Show $f|_mathbbQ$ is uniformly continuous on bounded intervals. Use Hagen's hint to do this. 2. Use the fact that a uniformly continuous function has a unique continuous extension to the space's completion to extend $f$ restricted to the various bounded intervals in $mathbbR$. 3. Show that these extensions are montone (depending on $a$) using continuity. 4. Show that all extensions agree with the definition of $f$ on their domains.
    – Theo Bendit
    Sep 5 at 8:16
















I assume that $a>0$?
– Hagen von Eitzen
Sep 5 at 8:03




I assume that $a>0$?
– Hagen von Eitzen
Sep 5 at 8:03












@HagenvonEitzen..yes here a>0
– Crack TheSolution
Sep 5 at 8:04




@HagenvonEitzen..yes here a>0
– Crack TheSolution
Sep 5 at 8:04












How far have you gotten with the $epsilon$-$delta$? Where are you stuck?
– Arthur
Sep 5 at 8:09




How far have you gotten with the $epsilon$-$delta$? Where are you stuck?
– Arthur
Sep 5 at 8:09












@Arthur..i am trying to prove by sequential criterion but im not getting idea
– Crack TheSolution
Sep 5 at 8:10





@Arthur..i am trying to prove by sequential criterion but im not getting idea
– Crack TheSolution
Sep 5 at 8:10













I would follow the following steps: 1. Show $f|_mathbbQ$ is uniformly continuous on bounded intervals. Use Hagen's hint to do this. 2. Use the fact that a uniformly continuous function has a unique continuous extension to the space's completion to extend $f$ restricted to the various bounded intervals in $mathbbR$. 3. Show that these extensions are montone (depending on $a$) using continuity. 4. Show that all extensions agree with the definition of $f$ on their domains.
– Theo Bendit
Sep 5 at 8:16





I would follow the following steps: 1. Show $f|_mathbbQ$ is uniformly continuous on bounded intervals. Use Hagen's hint to do this. 2. Use the fact that a uniformly continuous function has a unique continuous extension to the space's completion to extend $f$ restricted to the various bounded intervals in $mathbbR$. 3. Show that these extensions are montone (depending on $a$) using continuity. 4. Show that all extensions agree with the definition of $f$ on their domains.
– Theo Bendit
Sep 5 at 8:16











3 Answers
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1
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Hint: Use $f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)$ for $x,yinBbb Q$ and $f(x)approx 1$ for $0approx xinBbb Q$.






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  • ...sorry not understand
    – Crack TheSolution
    Sep 5 at 8:07

















up vote
0
down vote













This is essentially a justification of the definition of the symbol $a^x$ for the case when $x$ is irrational. Moreover your definition requires $ageq 1$ and for $0<a<1$ you need to replace the $sup$ in your definition by $inf$.



The case $a=1$ as $f(x) =1$ for all $xinmathbb R $. Let's take $a>1$ and we prove that $lim_xto 0f(x)=1$ so that $f$ is continuous at $1$. Let's first observe that $f$ is increasing on $mathbb R $ (it is strictly increasing but we don't need that in the proof that follows).



We start with the standard result $lim_ntoinfty a^1/n=1$. Let $epsilon >0$ be arbitrary. Then there is a positive integer $m_1$ such that $|a^1/n-1|<epsilon$ for all $ngeq m_1$ and similarly there is a positive integer $m_2$ such that $|a^-1/n-1|<epsilon$ whenever $ngeq m_2$. Now we choose $delta=1/m, m=max(m_1,m_2)$ and if $-delta<x<delta$ then $$a^-1/m=f(-delta)leq f(x) leq f(delta) =a^1/m$$ Since both $a^-1/m$ and $a^1/m$ lie in interval $(1-epsilon, 1+epsilon) $ it follows that $f(x) $ also lies in the same interval so that $|f(x) - 1|<epsilon $ and this completes the proof that $f$ is continuous at $0$.



Next step is to prove that $f(x+y) =f(x) f(y) $ and this part is not difficult but rather long. Using the functional equation and continuity at $0$ one can then prove continuity of $f$ at any point $x$.






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    up vote
    -2
    down vote













    If $a geq 1$ there is nothing to prove as $f(x)=a^x$, $forall x$ by conitnuity of $a^x$ and the fact that $mathbbQ$ is dense in $mathbbR$.
    So let $a <1$. If $a < 1$ then $f(x) = infty$ for $x > 0$ and $x in mathbbR setminus mathbbQ$ and $f$ is not continuous as let $a=1/2$. $sup(1/2)^y : y < x,y in mathbbQ geq lim_n rightarrow infty (1/2)^(-n) = infty$.






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      3 Answers
      3






      active

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      3 Answers
      3






      active

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      active

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      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Hint: Use $f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)$ for $x,yinBbb Q$ and $f(x)approx 1$ for $0approx xinBbb Q$.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • ...sorry not understand
        – Crack TheSolution
        Sep 5 at 8:07














      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Hint: Use $f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)$ for $x,yinBbb Q$ and $f(x)approx 1$ for $0approx xinBbb Q$.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • ...sorry not understand
        – Crack TheSolution
        Sep 5 at 8:07












      up vote
      1
      down vote










      up vote
      1
      down vote









      Hint: Use $f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)$ for $x,yinBbb Q$ and $f(x)approx 1$ for $0approx xinBbb Q$.






      share|cite|improve this answer












      Hint: Use $f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)$ for $x,yinBbb Q$ and $f(x)approx 1$ for $0approx xinBbb Q$.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Sep 5 at 8:07









      Hagen von Eitzen

      267k21259482




      267k21259482











      • ...sorry not understand
        – Crack TheSolution
        Sep 5 at 8:07
















      • ...sorry not understand
        – Crack TheSolution
        Sep 5 at 8:07















      ...sorry not understand
      – Crack TheSolution
      Sep 5 at 8:07




      ...sorry not understand
      – Crack TheSolution
      Sep 5 at 8:07










      up vote
      0
      down vote













      This is essentially a justification of the definition of the symbol $a^x$ for the case when $x$ is irrational. Moreover your definition requires $ageq 1$ and for $0<a<1$ you need to replace the $sup$ in your definition by $inf$.



      The case $a=1$ as $f(x) =1$ for all $xinmathbb R $. Let's take $a>1$ and we prove that $lim_xto 0f(x)=1$ so that $f$ is continuous at $1$. Let's first observe that $f$ is increasing on $mathbb R $ (it is strictly increasing but we don't need that in the proof that follows).



      We start with the standard result $lim_ntoinfty a^1/n=1$. Let $epsilon >0$ be arbitrary. Then there is a positive integer $m_1$ such that $|a^1/n-1|<epsilon$ for all $ngeq m_1$ and similarly there is a positive integer $m_2$ such that $|a^-1/n-1|<epsilon$ whenever $ngeq m_2$. Now we choose $delta=1/m, m=max(m_1,m_2)$ and if $-delta<x<delta$ then $$a^-1/m=f(-delta)leq f(x) leq f(delta) =a^1/m$$ Since both $a^-1/m$ and $a^1/m$ lie in interval $(1-epsilon, 1+epsilon) $ it follows that $f(x) $ also lies in the same interval so that $|f(x) - 1|<epsilon $ and this completes the proof that $f$ is continuous at $0$.



      Next step is to prove that $f(x+y) =f(x) f(y) $ and this part is not difficult but rather long. Using the functional equation and continuity at $0$ one can then prove continuity of $f$ at any point $x$.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        0
        down vote













        This is essentially a justification of the definition of the symbol $a^x$ for the case when $x$ is irrational. Moreover your definition requires $ageq 1$ and for $0<a<1$ you need to replace the $sup$ in your definition by $inf$.



        The case $a=1$ as $f(x) =1$ for all $xinmathbb R $. Let's take $a>1$ and we prove that $lim_xto 0f(x)=1$ so that $f$ is continuous at $1$. Let's first observe that $f$ is increasing on $mathbb R $ (it is strictly increasing but we don't need that in the proof that follows).



        We start with the standard result $lim_ntoinfty a^1/n=1$. Let $epsilon >0$ be arbitrary. Then there is a positive integer $m_1$ such that $|a^1/n-1|<epsilon$ for all $ngeq m_1$ and similarly there is a positive integer $m_2$ such that $|a^-1/n-1|<epsilon$ whenever $ngeq m_2$. Now we choose $delta=1/m, m=max(m_1,m_2)$ and if $-delta<x<delta$ then $$a^-1/m=f(-delta)leq f(x) leq f(delta) =a^1/m$$ Since both $a^-1/m$ and $a^1/m$ lie in interval $(1-epsilon, 1+epsilon) $ it follows that $f(x) $ also lies in the same interval so that $|f(x) - 1|<epsilon $ and this completes the proof that $f$ is continuous at $0$.



        Next step is to prove that $f(x+y) =f(x) f(y) $ and this part is not difficult but rather long. Using the functional equation and continuity at $0$ one can then prove continuity of $f$ at any point $x$.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          This is essentially a justification of the definition of the symbol $a^x$ for the case when $x$ is irrational. Moreover your definition requires $ageq 1$ and for $0<a<1$ you need to replace the $sup$ in your definition by $inf$.



          The case $a=1$ as $f(x) =1$ for all $xinmathbb R $. Let's take $a>1$ and we prove that $lim_xto 0f(x)=1$ so that $f$ is continuous at $1$. Let's first observe that $f$ is increasing on $mathbb R $ (it is strictly increasing but we don't need that in the proof that follows).



          We start with the standard result $lim_ntoinfty a^1/n=1$. Let $epsilon >0$ be arbitrary. Then there is a positive integer $m_1$ such that $|a^1/n-1|<epsilon$ for all $ngeq m_1$ and similarly there is a positive integer $m_2$ such that $|a^-1/n-1|<epsilon$ whenever $ngeq m_2$. Now we choose $delta=1/m, m=max(m_1,m_2)$ and if $-delta<x<delta$ then $$a^-1/m=f(-delta)leq f(x) leq f(delta) =a^1/m$$ Since both $a^-1/m$ and $a^1/m$ lie in interval $(1-epsilon, 1+epsilon) $ it follows that $f(x) $ also lies in the same interval so that $|f(x) - 1|<epsilon $ and this completes the proof that $f$ is continuous at $0$.



          Next step is to prove that $f(x+y) =f(x) f(y) $ and this part is not difficult but rather long. Using the functional equation and continuity at $0$ one can then prove continuity of $f$ at any point $x$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          This is essentially a justification of the definition of the symbol $a^x$ for the case when $x$ is irrational. Moreover your definition requires $ageq 1$ and for $0<a<1$ you need to replace the $sup$ in your definition by $inf$.



          The case $a=1$ as $f(x) =1$ for all $xinmathbb R $. Let's take $a>1$ and we prove that $lim_xto 0f(x)=1$ so that $f$ is continuous at $1$. Let's first observe that $f$ is increasing on $mathbb R $ (it is strictly increasing but we don't need that in the proof that follows).



          We start with the standard result $lim_ntoinfty a^1/n=1$. Let $epsilon >0$ be arbitrary. Then there is a positive integer $m_1$ such that $|a^1/n-1|<epsilon$ for all $ngeq m_1$ and similarly there is a positive integer $m_2$ such that $|a^-1/n-1|<epsilon$ whenever $ngeq m_2$. Now we choose $delta=1/m, m=max(m_1,m_2)$ and if $-delta<x<delta$ then $$a^-1/m=f(-delta)leq f(x) leq f(delta) =a^1/m$$ Since both $a^-1/m$ and $a^1/m$ lie in interval $(1-epsilon, 1+epsilon) $ it follows that $f(x) $ also lies in the same interval so that $|f(x) - 1|<epsilon $ and this completes the proof that $f$ is continuous at $0$.



          Next step is to prove that $f(x+y) =f(x) f(y) $ and this part is not difficult but rather long. Using the functional equation and continuity at $0$ one can then prove continuity of $f$ at any point $x$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












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          answered Sep 5 at 17:10









          Paramanand Singh

          45.7k554144




          45.7k554144




















              up vote
              -2
              down vote













              If $a geq 1$ there is nothing to prove as $f(x)=a^x$, $forall x$ by conitnuity of $a^x$ and the fact that $mathbbQ$ is dense in $mathbbR$.
              So let $a <1$. If $a < 1$ then $f(x) = infty$ for $x > 0$ and $x in mathbbR setminus mathbbQ$ and $f$ is not continuous as let $a=1/2$. $sup(1/2)^y : y < x,y in mathbbQ geq lim_n rightarrow infty (1/2)^(-n) = infty$.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                -2
                down vote













                If $a geq 1$ there is nothing to prove as $f(x)=a^x$, $forall x$ by conitnuity of $a^x$ and the fact that $mathbbQ$ is dense in $mathbbR$.
                So let $a <1$. If $a < 1$ then $f(x) = infty$ for $x > 0$ and $x in mathbbR setminus mathbbQ$ and $f$ is not continuous as let $a=1/2$. $sup(1/2)^y : y < x,y in mathbbQ geq lim_n rightarrow infty (1/2)^(-n) = infty$.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  -2
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  -2
                  down vote









                  If $a geq 1$ there is nothing to prove as $f(x)=a^x$, $forall x$ by conitnuity of $a^x$ and the fact that $mathbbQ$ is dense in $mathbbR$.
                  So let $a <1$. If $a < 1$ then $f(x) = infty$ for $x > 0$ and $x in mathbbR setminus mathbbQ$ and $f$ is not continuous as let $a=1/2$. $sup(1/2)^y : y < x,y in mathbbQ geq lim_n rightarrow infty (1/2)^(-n) = infty$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  If $a geq 1$ there is nothing to prove as $f(x)=a^x$, $forall x$ by conitnuity of $a^x$ and the fact that $mathbbQ$ is dense in $mathbbR$.
                  So let $a <1$. If $a < 1$ then $f(x) = infty$ for $x > 0$ and $x in mathbbR setminus mathbbQ$ and $f$ is not continuous as let $a=1/2$. $sup(1/2)^y : y < x,y in mathbbQ geq lim_n rightarrow infty (1/2)^(-n) = infty$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












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                  answered Sep 5 at 8:24









                  Balaji sb

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