There exists $x^*neq 0$ such that $Ax^* = 0$ $iff det A = 0$ or $det A neq 0$?

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1
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Let $AinmathbbR^ntimes n$ and $xinmathbbR^n$. Which of the
followinf affirmations is true? Prove or give a counterexample.
a) There exists $x^*$ such that $Ax^* = 0$ if $det A = 0$
b) There exists $x^*neq 0$ such that $Ax^* = 0$ $iff det A = 0$
c) There exists $x^*neq 0$ such that $Ax^* = 0iff det A neq 0$
a)
I know that if $det A neq 0$ we cannot simply multiply by $A^-1$ and say $x=0$, so I guess there should exist $x$ that solves this equation for some A's. One example is $x=0$. Can I guarantee that there's always a nonzero one? I guess this is the question below so there's no need to answer it here.
b) This is the quetion that appeared to be above
c) I now that if $det Aneq 0$ then we can multiply by the inverse to get $x^*=0$ as a solution. However I don't know if this is the unique solution. On the other way, if there is $xneq 0$ such that $Ax=0$ then all I know is that this is a syste with a solution.
How these things are proved in linear algebra? I know that there a lots of ways to deal with determinants and system of solutions, but I've never seen a proof of these arguments.
UPDATE:
b)
As pointed below in an answer, $det A=0implies $one of the eigenvalues is $0$, lets call it $v$. Then $Av = lambda v = 0$, then $v$ is our nonzero vector $x^*$ such that $Ax^*=0$.
How to prove the converse? One thing I tried: By hypothesis $Ax^*=0$ and $x^*neq 0$. Then suppose $det Aneq 0$, then we can multiply by the inverse on both sides to get $A^-1Ax^* = x^* = 0$, but we supposed $x^*neq 0$, which is a contradiction. Is this true?
c)
$leftarrow$ is false because since by b) is true, we have:
There exists $x^*neq 0$ such that $Ax^* = 0$ $implies det A = 0$ so the converse says
$det A neq 0implies $ for all $xneq 0, Ax^*neq 0$
How do I prove $rightarrow$?
linear-algebra systems-of-equations
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Let $AinmathbbR^ntimes n$ and $xinmathbbR^n$. Which of the
followinf affirmations is true? Prove or give a counterexample.
a) There exists $x^*$ such that $Ax^* = 0$ if $det A = 0$
b) There exists $x^*neq 0$ such that $Ax^* = 0$ $iff det A = 0$
c) There exists $x^*neq 0$ such that $Ax^* = 0iff det A neq 0$
a)
I know that if $det A neq 0$ we cannot simply multiply by $A^-1$ and say $x=0$, so I guess there should exist $x$ that solves this equation for some A's. One example is $x=0$. Can I guarantee that there's always a nonzero one? I guess this is the question below so there's no need to answer it here.
b) This is the quetion that appeared to be above
c) I now that if $det Aneq 0$ then we can multiply by the inverse to get $x^*=0$ as a solution. However I don't know if this is the unique solution. On the other way, if there is $xneq 0$ such that $Ax=0$ then all I know is that this is a syste with a solution.
How these things are proved in linear algebra? I know that there a lots of ways to deal with determinants and system of solutions, but I've never seen a proof of these arguments.
UPDATE:
b)
As pointed below in an answer, $det A=0implies $one of the eigenvalues is $0$, lets call it $v$. Then $Av = lambda v = 0$, then $v$ is our nonzero vector $x^*$ such that $Ax^*=0$.
How to prove the converse? One thing I tried: By hypothesis $Ax^*=0$ and $x^*neq 0$. Then suppose $det Aneq 0$, then we can multiply by the inverse on both sides to get $A^-1Ax^* = x^* = 0$, but we supposed $x^*neq 0$, which is a contradiction. Is this true?
c)
$leftarrow$ is false because since by b) is true, we have:
There exists $x^*neq 0$ such that $Ax^* = 0$ $implies det A = 0$ so the converse says
$det A neq 0implies $ for all $xneq 0, Ax^*neq 0$
How do I prove $rightarrow$?
linear-algebra systems-of-equations
Which statements of the Invertible Matrix Theorem do you know already? You can cop out and make the leap!
â Sean Roberson
Sep 5 at 4:00
@SeanRoberson I have some fragments of knowledge about matrix determinants. What I know is that if the determinant is nonzero, I can find the solution to a system $Ax=0$. However I do not know if the solution is unique. I only know this because I once found the solution by hand of a 2x2 generic system and I could only find the solution if the determinant was nonzero (the determinant appeared in the formula for a solution).
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 4:08
@SeanRoberson I'm a little confused because ixquick-proxy.com/do/spg/⦠this shows that I can solve a system when the determinant is nonzero. However here mathworld.wolfram.com/InvertibleMatrixTheorem.html it says that when the matrix is invertible (therefore determinant nonzero) there's no solution other than $x=0$
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 4:19
In terms of your questions about how to prove these things, it heavily depends on the definition you use for the determinant, and the theorems you're happy to take for granted. The cofactor expansion algorithm functions fine as a recursive definition, except that it makes proving most properties painful (with the arguable exception of $det(AB) = det(A)det(B)$, but the proof is still decently messy).
â Theo Bendit
Sep 5 at 5:12
On update (b): I think your proof is correct. Another way is if $exists x neq varnothing$ and $Ax=varnothing$, then $Ax=varnothing=0x$. So by definition $0$ is an eigenvalue, therefore $|A| = 0$
â William Wong
Sep 9 at 6:58
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Let $AinmathbbR^ntimes n$ and $xinmathbbR^n$. Which of the
followinf affirmations is true? Prove or give a counterexample.
a) There exists $x^*$ such that $Ax^* = 0$ if $det A = 0$
b) There exists $x^*neq 0$ such that $Ax^* = 0$ $iff det A = 0$
c) There exists $x^*neq 0$ such that $Ax^* = 0iff det A neq 0$
a)
I know that if $det A neq 0$ we cannot simply multiply by $A^-1$ and say $x=0$, so I guess there should exist $x$ that solves this equation for some A's. One example is $x=0$. Can I guarantee that there's always a nonzero one? I guess this is the question below so there's no need to answer it here.
b) This is the quetion that appeared to be above
c) I now that if $det Aneq 0$ then we can multiply by the inverse to get $x^*=0$ as a solution. However I don't know if this is the unique solution. On the other way, if there is $xneq 0$ such that $Ax=0$ then all I know is that this is a syste with a solution.
How these things are proved in linear algebra? I know that there a lots of ways to deal with determinants and system of solutions, but I've never seen a proof of these arguments.
UPDATE:
b)
As pointed below in an answer, $det A=0implies $one of the eigenvalues is $0$, lets call it $v$. Then $Av = lambda v = 0$, then $v$ is our nonzero vector $x^*$ such that $Ax^*=0$.
How to prove the converse? One thing I tried: By hypothesis $Ax^*=0$ and $x^*neq 0$. Then suppose $det Aneq 0$, then we can multiply by the inverse on both sides to get $A^-1Ax^* = x^* = 0$, but we supposed $x^*neq 0$, which is a contradiction. Is this true?
c)
$leftarrow$ is false because since by b) is true, we have:
There exists $x^*neq 0$ such that $Ax^* = 0$ $implies det A = 0$ so the converse says
$det A neq 0implies $ for all $xneq 0, Ax^*neq 0$
How do I prove $rightarrow$?
linear-algebra systems-of-equations
Let $AinmathbbR^ntimes n$ and $xinmathbbR^n$. Which of the
followinf affirmations is true? Prove or give a counterexample.
a) There exists $x^*$ such that $Ax^* = 0$ if $det A = 0$
b) There exists $x^*neq 0$ such that $Ax^* = 0$ $iff det A = 0$
c) There exists $x^*neq 0$ such that $Ax^* = 0iff det A neq 0$
a)
I know that if $det A neq 0$ we cannot simply multiply by $A^-1$ and say $x=0$, so I guess there should exist $x$ that solves this equation for some A's. One example is $x=0$. Can I guarantee that there's always a nonzero one? I guess this is the question below so there's no need to answer it here.
b) This is the quetion that appeared to be above
c) I now that if $det Aneq 0$ then we can multiply by the inverse to get $x^*=0$ as a solution. However I don't know if this is the unique solution. On the other way, if there is $xneq 0$ such that $Ax=0$ then all I know is that this is a syste with a solution.
How these things are proved in linear algebra? I know that there a lots of ways to deal with determinants and system of solutions, but I've never seen a proof of these arguments.
UPDATE:
b)
As pointed below in an answer, $det A=0implies $one of the eigenvalues is $0$, lets call it $v$. Then $Av = lambda v = 0$, then $v$ is our nonzero vector $x^*$ such that $Ax^*=0$.
How to prove the converse? One thing I tried: By hypothesis $Ax^*=0$ and $x^*neq 0$. Then suppose $det Aneq 0$, then we can multiply by the inverse on both sides to get $A^-1Ax^* = x^* = 0$, but we supposed $x^*neq 0$, which is a contradiction. Is this true?
c)
$leftarrow$ is false because since by b) is true, we have:
There exists $x^*neq 0$ such that $Ax^* = 0$ $implies det A = 0$ so the converse says
$det A neq 0implies $ for all $xneq 0, Ax^*neq 0$
How do I prove $rightarrow$?
linear-algebra systems-of-equations
linear-algebra systems-of-equations
edited Sep 8 at 21:38
asked Sep 5 at 3:57
Paprika
267111
267111
Which statements of the Invertible Matrix Theorem do you know already? You can cop out and make the leap!
â Sean Roberson
Sep 5 at 4:00
@SeanRoberson I have some fragments of knowledge about matrix determinants. What I know is that if the determinant is nonzero, I can find the solution to a system $Ax=0$. However I do not know if the solution is unique. I only know this because I once found the solution by hand of a 2x2 generic system and I could only find the solution if the determinant was nonzero (the determinant appeared in the formula for a solution).
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 4:08
@SeanRoberson I'm a little confused because ixquick-proxy.com/do/spg/⦠this shows that I can solve a system when the determinant is nonzero. However here mathworld.wolfram.com/InvertibleMatrixTheorem.html it says that when the matrix is invertible (therefore determinant nonzero) there's no solution other than $x=0$
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 4:19
In terms of your questions about how to prove these things, it heavily depends on the definition you use for the determinant, and the theorems you're happy to take for granted. The cofactor expansion algorithm functions fine as a recursive definition, except that it makes proving most properties painful (with the arguable exception of $det(AB) = det(A)det(B)$, but the proof is still decently messy).
â Theo Bendit
Sep 5 at 5:12
On update (b): I think your proof is correct. Another way is if $exists x neq varnothing$ and $Ax=varnothing$, then $Ax=varnothing=0x$. So by definition $0$ is an eigenvalue, therefore $|A| = 0$
â William Wong
Sep 9 at 6:58
 |Â
show 1 more comment
Which statements of the Invertible Matrix Theorem do you know already? You can cop out and make the leap!
â Sean Roberson
Sep 5 at 4:00
@SeanRoberson I have some fragments of knowledge about matrix determinants. What I know is that if the determinant is nonzero, I can find the solution to a system $Ax=0$. However I do not know if the solution is unique. I only know this because I once found the solution by hand of a 2x2 generic system and I could only find the solution if the determinant was nonzero (the determinant appeared in the formula for a solution).
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 4:08
@SeanRoberson I'm a little confused because ixquick-proxy.com/do/spg/⦠this shows that I can solve a system when the determinant is nonzero. However here mathworld.wolfram.com/InvertibleMatrixTheorem.html it says that when the matrix is invertible (therefore determinant nonzero) there's no solution other than $x=0$
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 4:19
In terms of your questions about how to prove these things, it heavily depends on the definition you use for the determinant, and the theorems you're happy to take for granted. The cofactor expansion algorithm functions fine as a recursive definition, except that it makes proving most properties painful (with the arguable exception of $det(AB) = det(A)det(B)$, but the proof is still decently messy).
â Theo Bendit
Sep 5 at 5:12
On update (b): I think your proof is correct. Another way is if $exists x neq varnothing$ and $Ax=varnothing$, then $Ax=varnothing=0x$. So by definition $0$ is an eigenvalue, therefore $|A| = 0$
â William Wong
Sep 9 at 6:58
Which statements of the Invertible Matrix Theorem do you know already? You can cop out and make the leap!
â Sean Roberson
Sep 5 at 4:00
Which statements of the Invertible Matrix Theorem do you know already? You can cop out and make the leap!
â Sean Roberson
Sep 5 at 4:00
@SeanRoberson I have some fragments of knowledge about matrix determinants. What I know is that if the determinant is nonzero, I can find the solution to a system $Ax=0$. However I do not know if the solution is unique. I only know this because I once found the solution by hand of a 2x2 generic system and I could only find the solution if the determinant was nonzero (the determinant appeared in the formula for a solution).
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 4:08
@SeanRoberson I have some fragments of knowledge about matrix determinants. What I know is that if the determinant is nonzero, I can find the solution to a system $Ax=0$. However I do not know if the solution is unique. I only know this because I once found the solution by hand of a 2x2 generic system and I could only find the solution if the determinant was nonzero (the determinant appeared in the formula for a solution).
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 4:08
@SeanRoberson I'm a little confused because ixquick-proxy.com/do/spg/⦠this shows that I can solve a system when the determinant is nonzero. However here mathworld.wolfram.com/InvertibleMatrixTheorem.html it says that when the matrix is invertible (therefore determinant nonzero) there's no solution other than $x=0$
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 4:19
@SeanRoberson I'm a little confused because ixquick-proxy.com/do/spg/⦠this shows that I can solve a system when the determinant is nonzero. However here mathworld.wolfram.com/InvertibleMatrixTheorem.html it says that when the matrix is invertible (therefore determinant nonzero) there's no solution other than $x=0$
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 4:19
In terms of your questions about how to prove these things, it heavily depends on the definition you use for the determinant, and the theorems you're happy to take for granted. The cofactor expansion algorithm functions fine as a recursive definition, except that it makes proving most properties painful (with the arguable exception of $det(AB) = det(A)det(B)$, but the proof is still decently messy).
â Theo Bendit
Sep 5 at 5:12
In terms of your questions about how to prove these things, it heavily depends on the definition you use for the determinant, and the theorems you're happy to take for granted. The cofactor expansion algorithm functions fine as a recursive definition, except that it makes proving most properties painful (with the arguable exception of $det(AB) = det(A)det(B)$, but the proof is still decently messy).
â Theo Bendit
Sep 5 at 5:12
On update (b): I think your proof is correct. Another way is if $exists x neq varnothing$ and $Ax=varnothing$, then $Ax=varnothing=0x$. So by definition $0$ is an eigenvalue, therefore $|A| = 0$
â William Wong
Sep 9 at 6:58
On update (b): I think your proof is correct. Another way is if $exists x neq varnothing$ and $Ax=varnothing$, then $Ax=varnothing=0x$. So by definition $0$ is an eigenvalue, therefore $|A| = 0$
â William Wong
Sep 9 at 6:58
 |Â
show 1 more comment
1 Answer
1
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oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
(a) True. This is trivial, as you pointed out you may set $x=varnothing$, i.e. the zero vector.
(c) False. This is the negation of (b), and (b) is provably true.
(b) True.
There are many ways to "prove" (b). But in this statement of the form S1 iff S2, both S1 and S2 are essentially saying the same thing: the columns of A are linearly dependent.
One argument is that det(A) is the volume of the parallelotope formed by the columns of A (and their translation). If det(A)=0, that means at least one such column is in the proper subspace spanned by the other columns so that the parallelotope's volume degenerates to zero. This implies $exists x_i$, not all zeros, such that $sum_i A_i x_i = varnothing = Ax$, where $A_i$ are the columns of $A$. The proof of the other direction is similar.
Another argument is $det(A)=Pi_i lambda_i$, where $lambda_i$ are eigenvalues of A. If $det(A)=0$, at least one eigenvalue is zero (without loss, let it be $lambda_1$), with corresponding eigenvector $v_1$. By definition, $v_1 neq varnothing$ and $Av_1 = lambda_1 v_1 = varnothing$. The proof of the other direction is similar.
In the proof of c what you actually proved is that when the determinant is $0$ then there exists nonzero vector such that $Av_1=0$. This is actually what b says. Shouldn't $b$ be true instead?
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 16:58
I did say (b) True above. And said (c) False.
â William Wong
Sep 5 at 17:05
Could you take a look at my update? I'll accept your answer anyways
â Paprika
Sep 8 at 21:38
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
(a) True. This is trivial, as you pointed out you may set $x=varnothing$, i.e. the zero vector.
(c) False. This is the negation of (b), and (b) is provably true.
(b) True.
There are many ways to "prove" (b). But in this statement of the form S1 iff S2, both S1 and S2 are essentially saying the same thing: the columns of A are linearly dependent.
One argument is that det(A) is the volume of the parallelotope formed by the columns of A (and their translation). If det(A)=0, that means at least one such column is in the proper subspace spanned by the other columns so that the parallelotope's volume degenerates to zero. This implies $exists x_i$, not all zeros, such that $sum_i A_i x_i = varnothing = Ax$, where $A_i$ are the columns of $A$. The proof of the other direction is similar.
Another argument is $det(A)=Pi_i lambda_i$, where $lambda_i$ are eigenvalues of A. If $det(A)=0$, at least one eigenvalue is zero (without loss, let it be $lambda_1$), with corresponding eigenvector $v_1$. By definition, $v_1 neq varnothing$ and $Av_1 = lambda_1 v_1 = varnothing$. The proof of the other direction is similar.
In the proof of c what you actually proved is that when the determinant is $0$ then there exists nonzero vector such that $Av_1=0$. This is actually what b says. Shouldn't $b$ be true instead?
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 16:58
I did say (b) True above. And said (c) False.
â William Wong
Sep 5 at 17:05
Could you take a look at my update? I'll accept your answer anyways
â Paprika
Sep 8 at 21:38
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
(a) True. This is trivial, as you pointed out you may set $x=varnothing$, i.e. the zero vector.
(c) False. This is the negation of (b), and (b) is provably true.
(b) True.
There are many ways to "prove" (b). But in this statement of the form S1 iff S2, both S1 and S2 are essentially saying the same thing: the columns of A are linearly dependent.
One argument is that det(A) is the volume of the parallelotope formed by the columns of A (and their translation). If det(A)=0, that means at least one such column is in the proper subspace spanned by the other columns so that the parallelotope's volume degenerates to zero. This implies $exists x_i$, not all zeros, such that $sum_i A_i x_i = varnothing = Ax$, where $A_i$ are the columns of $A$. The proof of the other direction is similar.
Another argument is $det(A)=Pi_i lambda_i$, where $lambda_i$ are eigenvalues of A. If $det(A)=0$, at least one eigenvalue is zero (without loss, let it be $lambda_1$), with corresponding eigenvector $v_1$. By definition, $v_1 neq varnothing$ and $Av_1 = lambda_1 v_1 = varnothing$. The proof of the other direction is similar.
In the proof of c what you actually proved is that when the determinant is $0$ then there exists nonzero vector such that $Av_1=0$. This is actually what b says. Shouldn't $b$ be true instead?
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 16:58
I did say (b) True above. And said (c) False.
â William Wong
Sep 5 at 17:05
Could you take a look at my update? I'll accept your answer anyways
â Paprika
Sep 8 at 21:38
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
(a) True. This is trivial, as you pointed out you may set $x=varnothing$, i.e. the zero vector.
(c) False. This is the negation of (b), and (b) is provably true.
(b) True.
There are many ways to "prove" (b). But in this statement of the form S1 iff S2, both S1 and S2 are essentially saying the same thing: the columns of A are linearly dependent.
One argument is that det(A) is the volume of the parallelotope formed by the columns of A (and their translation). If det(A)=0, that means at least one such column is in the proper subspace spanned by the other columns so that the parallelotope's volume degenerates to zero. This implies $exists x_i$, not all zeros, such that $sum_i A_i x_i = varnothing = Ax$, where $A_i$ are the columns of $A$. The proof of the other direction is similar.
Another argument is $det(A)=Pi_i lambda_i$, where $lambda_i$ are eigenvalues of A. If $det(A)=0$, at least one eigenvalue is zero (without loss, let it be $lambda_1$), with corresponding eigenvector $v_1$. By definition, $v_1 neq varnothing$ and $Av_1 = lambda_1 v_1 = varnothing$. The proof of the other direction is similar.
(a) True. This is trivial, as you pointed out you may set $x=varnothing$, i.e. the zero vector.
(c) False. This is the negation of (b), and (b) is provably true.
(b) True.
There are many ways to "prove" (b). But in this statement of the form S1 iff S2, both S1 and S2 are essentially saying the same thing: the columns of A are linearly dependent.
One argument is that det(A) is the volume of the parallelotope formed by the columns of A (and their translation). If det(A)=0, that means at least one such column is in the proper subspace spanned by the other columns so that the parallelotope's volume degenerates to zero. This implies $exists x_i$, not all zeros, such that $sum_i A_i x_i = varnothing = Ax$, where $A_i$ are the columns of $A$. The proof of the other direction is similar.
Another argument is $det(A)=Pi_i lambda_i$, where $lambda_i$ are eigenvalues of A. If $det(A)=0$, at least one eigenvalue is zero (without loss, let it be $lambda_1$), with corresponding eigenvector $v_1$. By definition, $v_1 neq varnothing$ and $Av_1 = lambda_1 v_1 = varnothing$. The proof of the other direction is similar.
answered Sep 5 at 5:36
William Wong
864
864
In the proof of c what you actually proved is that when the determinant is $0$ then there exists nonzero vector such that $Av_1=0$. This is actually what b says. Shouldn't $b$ be true instead?
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 16:58
I did say (b) True above. And said (c) False.
â William Wong
Sep 5 at 17:05
Could you take a look at my update? I'll accept your answer anyways
â Paprika
Sep 8 at 21:38
add a comment |Â
In the proof of c what you actually proved is that when the determinant is $0$ then there exists nonzero vector such that $Av_1=0$. This is actually what b says. Shouldn't $b$ be true instead?
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 16:58
I did say (b) True above. And said (c) False.
â William Wong
Sep 5 at 17:05
Could you take a look at my update? I'll accept your answer anyways
â Paprika
Sep 8 at 21:38
In the proof of c what you actually proved is that when the determinant is $0$ then there exists nonzero vector such that $Av_1=0$. This is actually what b says. Shouldn't $b$ be true instead?
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 16:58
In the proof of c what you actually proved is that when the determinant is $0$ then there exists nonzero vector such that $Av_1=0$. This is actually what b says. Shouldn't $b$ be true instead?
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 16:58
I did say (b) True above. And said (c) False.
â William Wong
Sep 5 at 17:05
I did say (b) True above. And said (c) False.
â William Wong
Sep 5 at 17:05
Could you take a look at my update? I'll accept your answer anyways
â Paprika
Sep 8 at 21:38
Could you take a look at my update? I'll accept your answer anyways
â Paprika
Sep 8 at 21:38
add a comment |Â
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Which statements of the Invertible Matrix Theorem do you know already? You can cop out and make the leap!
â Sean Roberson
Sep 5 at 4:00
@SeanRoberson I have some fragments of knowledge about matrix determinants. What I know is that if the determinant is nonzero, I can find the solution to a system $Ax=0$. However I do not know if the solution is unique. I only know this because I once found the solution by hand of a 2x2 generic system and I could only find the solution if the determinant was nonzero (the determinant appeared in the formula for a solution).
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 4:08
@SeanRoberson I'm a little confused because ixquick-proxy.com/do/spg/⦠this shows that I can solve a system when the determinant is nonzero. However here mathworld.wolfram.com/InvertibleMatrixTheorem.html it says that when the matrix is invertible (therefore determinant nonzero) there's no solution other than $x=0$
â Paprika
Sep 5 at 4:19
In terms of your questions about how to prove these things, it heavily depends on the definition you use for the determinant, and the theorems you're happy to take for granted. The cofactor expansion algorithm functions fine as a recursive definition, except that it makes proving most properties painful (with the arguable exception of $det(AB) = det(A)det(B)$, but the proof is still decently messy).
â Theo Bendit
Sep 5 at 5:12
On update (b): I think your proof is correct. Another way is if $exists x neq varnothing$ and $Ax=varnothing$, then $Ax=varnothing=0x$. So by definition $0$ is an eigenvalue, therefore $|A| = 0$
â William Wong
Sep 9 at 6:58