proof with induction $sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$

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prove with induction:
$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
I'm stuck on
$$n[sum_k=0^n-1 (-1)^k binomn-1k (n-k+1)^n]= sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
$$n[sum_k=1^n-1 (-1)^k-1 binomn-1k-1 (n-k+1)^n-1]=sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n$$
$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k-1 k binomnk (n-k+1)^n-1 = sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n $$
combinatorics permutations induction
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up vote
1
down vote
favorite
prove with induction:
$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
I'm stuck on
$$n[sum_k=0^n-1 (-1)^k binomn-1k (n-k+1)^n]= sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
$$n[sum_k=1^n-1 (-1)^k-1 binomn-1k-1 (n-k+1)^n-1]=sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n$$
$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k-1 k binomnk (n-k+1)^n-1 = sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n $$
combinatorics permutations induction
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up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
prove with induction:
$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
I'm stuck on
$$n[sum_k=0^n-1 (-1)^k binomn-1k (n-k+1)^n]= sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
$$n[sum_k=1^n-1 (-1)^k-1 binomn-1k-1 (n-k+1)^n-1]=sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n$$
$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k-1 k binomnk (n-k+1)^n-1 = sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n $$
combinatorics permutations induction
prove with induction:
$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
I'm stuck on
$$n[sum_k=0^n-1 (-1)^k binomn-1k (n-k+1)^n]= sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
$$n[sum_k=1^n-1 (-1)^k-1 binomn-1k-1 (n-k+1)^n-1]=sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n$$
$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k-1 k binomnk (n-k+1)^n-1 = sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n $$
combinatorics permutations induction
edited Aug 23 at 7:56
asked Aug 23 at 3:31
azmi
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83
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1 Answer
1
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oldest
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up vote
1
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accepted
Let's assume
$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
Do the following change of variable so that it looks easier:
$$k leftarrow n-i$$
So that the equation that needs to proved is now
$$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomnn-i (i+1)^n = n!$$
Notice that
$$binomnn-i=binomni$$
So why not write it as
$$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n = n!$$
The induction step that needs to be proved is
beginequation
(n+1)!=
sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1
endequation
beginalign
(n+1)! &= (n+1)n! \
&= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n \
&= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i fracn!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)n!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n-i)!(n+1-i) (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n+1-i)! (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2-(i+1))(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2)(i+1)^n
-sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)(i+1)^n \
&= (n+2)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
+sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1 \
endalign
But ( see here why )
beginequation
sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
=
(n+2)^n
endequation
So
beginalign
(n+1)! &= (n+2)(n+2)^n +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1\
&= (n+2)^n+1 +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1\
&= sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1
endalign
how come in your link (see here why) subtracting the (n+2)n on the right over, this is equivalent $sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n-ibinomn+1i(i+1)^nstackrel?=0$
â azmi
Aug 29 at 10:50
i think it's better to drop this comment on the answer in the other link. The contributor will respond to you.
â Ahmad Bazzi
Aug 29 at 13:11
ooo sory i'm understand now. tankyou
â azmi
Aug 29 at 13:15
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Let's assume
$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
Do the following change of variable so that it looks easier:
$$k leftarrow n-i$$
So that the equation that needs to proved is now
$$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomnn-i (i+1)^n = n!$$
Notice that
$$binomnn-i=binomni$$
So why not write it as
$$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n = n!$$
The induction step that needs to be proved is
beginequation
(n+1)!=
sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1
endequation
beginalign
(n+1)! &= (n+1)n! \
&= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n \
&= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i fracn!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)n!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n-i)!(n+1-i) (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n+1-i)! (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2-(i+1))(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2)(i+1)^n
-sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)(i+1)^n \
&= (n+2)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
+sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1 \
endalign
But ( see here why )
beginequation
sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
=
(n+2)^n
endequation
So
beginalign
(n+1)! &= (n+2)(n+2)^n +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1\
&= (n+2)^n+1 +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1\
&= sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1
endalign
how come in your link (see here why) subtracting the (n+2)n on the right over, this is equivalent $sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n-ibinomn+1i(i+1)^nstackrel?=0$
â azmi
Aug 29 at 10:50
i think it's better to drop this comment on the answer in the other link. The contributor will respond to you.
â Ahmad Bazzi
Aug 29 at 13:11
ooo sory i'm understand now. tankyou
â azmi
Aug 29 at 13:15
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Let's assume
$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
Do the following change of variable so that it looks easier:
$$k leftarrow n-i$$
So that the equation that needs to proved is now
$$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomnn-i (i+1)^n = n!$$
Notice that
$$binomnn-i=binomni$$
So why not write it as
$$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n = n!$$
The induction step that needs to be proved is
beginequation
(n+1)!=
sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1
endequation
beginalign
(n+1)! &= (n+1)n! \
&= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n \
&= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i fracn!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)n!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n-i)!(n+1-i) (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n+1-i)! (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2-(i+1))(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2)(i+1)^n
-sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)(i+1)^n \
&= (n+2)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
+sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1 \
endalign
But ( see here why )
beginequation
sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
=
(n+2)^n
endequation
So
beginalign
(n+1)! &= (n+2)(n+2)^n +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1\
&= (n+2)^n+1 +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1\
&= sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1
endalign
how come in your link (see here why) subtracting the (n+2)n on the right over, this is equivalent $sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n-ibinomn+1i(i+1)^nstackrel?=0$
â azmi
Aug 29 at 10:50
i think it's better to drop this comment on the answer in the other link. The contributor will respond to you.
â Ahmad Bazzi
Aug 29 at 13:11
ooo sory i'm understand now. tankyou
â azmi
Aug 29 at 13:15
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Let's assume
$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
Do the following change of variable so that it looks easier:
$$k leftarrow n-i$$
So that the equation that needs to proved is now
$$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomnn-i (i+1)^n = n!$$
Notice that
$$binomnn-i=binomni$$
So why not write it as
$$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n = n!$$
The induction step that needs to be proved is
beginequation
(n+1)!=
sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1
endequation
beginalign
(n+1)! &= (n+1)n! \
&= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n \
&= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i fracn!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)n!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n-i)!(n+1-i) (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n+1-i)! (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2-(i+1))(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2)(i+1)^n
-sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)(i+1)^n \
&= (n+2)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
+sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1 \
endalign
But ( see here why )
beginequation
sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
=
(n+2)^n
endequation
So
beginalign
(n+1)! &= (n+2)(n+2)^n +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1\
&= (n+2)^n+1 +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1\
&= sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1
endalign
Let's assume
$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
Do the following change of variable so that it looks easier:
$$k leftarrow n-i$$
So that the equation that needs to proved is now
$$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomnn-i (i+1)^n = n!$$
Notice that
$$binomnn-i=binomni$$
So why not write it as
$$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n = n!$$
The induction step that needs to be proved is
beginequation
(n+1)!=
sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1
endequation
beginalign
(n+1)! &= (n+1)n! \
&= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n \
&= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i fracn!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)n!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n-i)!(n+1-i) (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n+1-i)! (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2-(i+1))(i+1)^n \
&= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2)(i+1)^n
-sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)(i+1)^n \
&= (n+2)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
+sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1 \
endalign
But ( see here why )
beginequation
sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
=
(n+2)^n
endequation
So
beginalign
(n+1)! &= (n+2)(n+2)^n +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1\
&= (n+2)^n+1 +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1\
&= sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1
endalign
edited Aug 23 at 18:40
answered Aug 23 at 18:35
Ahmad Bazzi
3,6221421
3,6221421
how come in your link (see here why) subtracting the (n+2)n on the right over, this is equivalent $sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n-ibinomn+1i(i+1)^nstackrel?=0$
â azmi
Aug 29 at 10:50
i think it's better to drop this comment on the answer in the other link. The contributor will respond to you.
â Ahmad Bazzi
Aug 29 at 13:11
ooo sory i'm understand now. tankyou
â azmi
Aug 29 at 13:15
add a comment |Â
how come in your link (see here why) subtracting the (n+2)n on the right over, this is equivalent $sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n-ibinomn+1i(i+1)^nstackrel?=0$
â azmi
Aug 29 at 10:50
i think it's better to drop this comment on the answer in the other link. The contributor will respond to you.
â Ahmad Bazzi
Aug 29 at 13:11
ooo sory i'm understand now. tankyou
â azmi
Aug 29 at 13:15
how come in your link (see here why) subtracting the (n+2)n on the right over, this is equivalent $sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n-ibinomn+1i(i+1)^nstackrel?=0$
â azmi
Aug 29 at 10:50
how come in your link (see here why) subtracting the (n+2)n on the right over, this is equivalent $sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n-ibinomn+1i(i+1)^nstackrel?=0$
â azmi
Aug 29 at 10:50
i think it's better to drop this comment on the answer in the other link. The contributor will respond to you.
â Ahmad Bazzi
Aug 29 at 13:11
i think it's better to drop this comment on the answer in the other link. The contributor will respond to you.
â Ahmad Bazzi
Aug 29 at 13:11
ooo sory i'm understand now. tankyou
â azmi
Aug 29 at 13:15
ooo sory i'm understand now. tankyou
â azmi
Aug 29 at 13:15
add a comment |Â
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