proof with induction $sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$

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prove with induction:




$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$




I'm stuck on
$$n[sum_k=0^n-1 (-1)^k binomn-1k (n-k+1)^n]= sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$



$$n[sum_k=1^n-1 (-1)^k-1 binomn-1k-1 (n-k+1)^n-1]=sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n$$



$$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k-1 k binomnk (n-k+1)^n-1 = sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n $$







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    up vote
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    prove with induction:




    $$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$




    I'm stuck on
    $$n[sum_k=0^n-1 (-1)^k binomn-1k (n-k+1)^n]= sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$



    $$n[sum_k=1^n-1 (-1)^k-1 binomn-1k-1 (n-k+1)^n-1]=sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n$$



    $$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k-1 k binomnk (n-k+1)^n-1 = sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n $$







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      up vote
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      prove with induction:




      $$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$




      I'm stuck on
      $$n[sum_k=0^n-1 (-1)^k binomn-1k (n-k+1)^n]= sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$



      $$n[sum_k=1^n-1 (-1)^k-1 binomn-1k-1 (n-k+1)^n-1]=sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n$$



      $$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k-1 k binomnk (n-k+1)^n-1 = sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n $$







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      prove with induction:




      $$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$




      I'm stuck on
      $$n[sum_k=0^n-1 (-1)^k binomn-1k (n-k+1)^n]= sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$



      $$n[sum_k=1^n-1 (-1)^k-1 binomn-1k-1 (n-k+1)^n-1]=sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n$$



      $$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k-1 k binomnk (n-k+1)^n-1 = sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n $$









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      edited Aug 23 at 7:56

























      asked Aug 23 at 3:31









      azmi

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          Let's assume
          $$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
          Do the following change of variable so that it looks easier:
          $$k leftarrow n-i$$
          So that the equation that needs to proved is now
          $$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomnn-i (i+1)^n = n!$$
          Notice that
          $$binomnn-i=binomni$$
          So why not write it as
          $$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n = n!$$



          The induction step that needs to be proved is
          beginequation
          (n+1)!=
          sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1
          endequation
          beginalign
          (n+1)! &= (n+1)n! \
          &= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n \
          &= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i fracn!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)n!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n-i)!(n+1-i) (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n+1-i)! (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2-(i+1))(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2)(i+1)^n
          -sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)(i+1)^n \
          &= (n+2)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
          +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1 \
          endalign
          But ( see here why )
          beginequation
          sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
          =
          (n+2)^n
          endequation
          So
          beginalign
          (n+1)! &= (n+2)(n+2)^n +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1\
          &= (n+2)^n+1 +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1\
          &= sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1
          endalign






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • how come in your link (see here why) subtracting the (n+2)n on the right over, this is equivalent $sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n-ibinomn+1i(i+1)^nstackrel?=0$
            –  azmi
            Aug 29 at 10:50











          • i think it's better to drop this comment on the answer in the other link. The contributor will respond to you.
            – Ahmad Bazzi
            Aug 29 at 13:11










          • ooo sory i'm understand now. tankyou
            –  azmi
            Aug 29 at 13:15










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          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Let's assume
          $$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
          Do the following change of variable so that it looks easier:
          $$k leftarrow n-i$$
          So that the equation that needs to proved is now
          $$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomnn-i (i+1)^n = n!$$
          Notice that
          $$binomnn-i=binomni$$
          So why not write it as
          $$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n = n!$$



          The induction step that needs to be proved is
          beginequation
          (n+1)!=
          sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1
          endequation
          beginalign
          (n+1)! &= (n+1)n! \
          &= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n \
          &= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i fracn!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)n!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n-i)!(n+1-i) (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n+1-i)! (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2-(i+1))(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2)(i+1)^n
          -sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)(i+1)^n \
          &= (n+2)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
          +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1 \
          endalign
          But ( see here why )
          beginequation
          sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
          =
          (n+2)^n
          endequation
          So
          beginalign
          (n+1)! &= (n+2)(n+2)^n +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1\
          &= (n+2)^n+1 +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1\
          &= sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1
          endalign






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • how come in your link (see here why) subtracting the (n+2)n on the right over, this is equivalent $sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n-ibinomn+1i(i+1)^nstackrel?=0$
            –  azmi
            Aug 29 at 10:50











          • i think it's better to drop this comment on the answer in the other link. The contributor will respond to you.
            – Ahmad Bazzi
            Aug 29 at 13:11










          • ooo sory i'm understand now. tankyou
            –  azmi
            Aug 29 at 13:15














          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Let's assume
          $$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
          Do the following change of variable so that it looks easier:
          $$k leftarrow n-i$$
          So that the equation that needs to proved is now
          $$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomnn-i (i+1)^n = n!$$
          Notice that
          $$binomnn-i=binomni$$
          So why not write it as
          $$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n = n!$$



          The induction step that needs to be proved is
          beginequation
          (n+1)!=
          sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1
          endequation
          beginalign
          (n+1)! &= (n+1)n! \
          &= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n \
          &= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i fracn!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)n!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n-i)!(n+1-i) (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n+1-i)! (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2-(i+1))(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2)(i+1)^n
          -sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)(i+1)^n \
          &= (n+2)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
          +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1 \
          endalign
          But ( see here why )
          beginequation
          sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
          =
          (n+2)^n
          endequation
          So
          beginalign
          (n+1)! &= (n+2)(n+2)^n +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1\
          &= (n+2)^n+1 +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1\
          &= sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1
          endalign






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • how come in your link (see here why) subtracting the (n+2)n on the right over, this is equivalent $sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n-ibinomn+1i(i+1)^nstackrel?=0$
            –  azmi
            Aug 29 at 10:50











          • i think it's better to drop this comment on the answer in the other link. The contributor will respond to you.
            – Ahmad Bazzi
            Aug 29 at 13:11










          • ooo sory i'm understand now. tankyou
            –  azmi
            Aug 29 at 13:15












          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          Let's assume
          $$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
          Do the following change of variable so that it looks easier:
          $$k leftarrow n-i$$
          So that the equation that needs to proved is now
          $$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomnn-i (i+1)^n = n!$$
          Notice that
          $$binomnn-i=binomni$$
          So why not write it as
          $$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n = n!$$



          The induction step that needs to be proved is
          beginequation
          (n+1)!=
          sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1
          endequation
          beginalign
          (n+1)! &= (n+1)n! \
          &= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n \
          &= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i fracn!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)n!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n-i)!(n+1-i) (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n+1-i)! (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2-(i+1))(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2)(i+1)^n
          -sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)(i+1)^n \
          &= (n+2)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
          +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1 \
          endalign
          But ( see here why )
          beginequation
          sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
          =
          (n+2)^n
          endequation
          So
          beginalign
          (n+1)! &= (n+2)(n+2)^n +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1\
          &= (n+2)^n+1 +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1\
          &= sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1
          endalign






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Let's assume
          $$sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk (n-k+1)^n = n!$$
          Do the following change of variable so that it looks easier:
          $$k leftarrow n-i$$
          So that the equation that needs to proved is now
          $$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomnn-i (i+1)^n = n!$$
          Notice that
          $$binomnn-i=binomni$$
          So why not write it as
          $$sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n = n!$$



          The induction step that needs to be proved is
          beginequation
          (n+1)!=
          sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1
          endequation
          beginalign
          (n+1)! &= (n+1)n! \
          &= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomni (i+1)^n \
          &= (n+1)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i fracn!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)n!i!(n-i)! (i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n-i)!(n+1-i) (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i frac(n+1)!i!(n+1-i)! (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+1-i)(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2-(i+1))(i+1)^n \
          &= sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (n+2)(i+1)^n
          -sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)(i+1)^n \
          &= (n+2)sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
          +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1 \
          endalign
          But ( see here why )
          beginequation
          sum_i=0^n (-1)^n-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n
          =
          (n+2)^n
          endequation
          So
          beginalign
          (n+1)! &= (n+2)(n+2)^n +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i (i+1)^n+1\
          &= (n+2)^n+1 +sum_i=0^n (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1\
          &= sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n+1-i binomn+1i(i+1)^n+1
          endalign







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 23 at 18:40

























          answered Aug 23 at 18:35









          Ahmad Bazzi

          3,6221421




          3,6221421











          • how come in your link (see here why) subtracting the (n+2)n on the right over, this is equivalent $sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n-ibinomn+1i(i+1)^nstackrel?=0$
            –  azmi
            Aug 29 at 10:50











          • i think it's better to drop this comment on the answer in the other link. The contributor will respond to you.
            – Ahmad Bazzi
            Aug 29 at 13:11










          • ooo sory i'm understand now. tankyou
            –  azmi
            Aug 29 at 13:15
















          • how come in your link (see here why) subtracting the (n+2)n on the right over, this is equivalent $sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n-ibinomn+1i(i+1)^nstackrel?=0$
            –  azmi
            Aug 29 at 10:50











          • i think it's better to drop this comment on the answer in the other link. The contributor will respond to you.
            – Ahmad Bazzi
            Aug 29 at 13:11










          • ooo sory i'm understand now. tankyou
            –  azmi
            Aug 29 at 13:15















          how come in your link (see here why) subtracting the (n+2)n on the right over, this is equivalent $sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n-ibinomn+1i(i+1)^nstackrel?=0$
          –  azmi
          Aug 29 at 10:50





          how come in your link (see here why) subtracting the (n+2)n on the right over, this is equivalent $sum_i=0^n+1 (-1)^n-ibinomn+1i(i+1)^nstackrel?=0$
          –  azmi
          Aug 29 at 10:50













          i think it's better to drop this comment on the answer in the other link. The contributor will respond to you.
          – Ahmad Bazzi
          Aug 29 at 13:11




          i think it's better to drop this comment on the answer in the other link. The contributor will respond to you.
          – Ahmad Bazzi
          Aug 29 at 13:11












          ooo sory i'm understand now. tankyou
          –  azmi
          Aug 29 at 13:15




          ooo sory i'm understand now. tankyou
          –  azmi
          Aug 29 at 13:15

















           

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