Change of variable for integral formula…why?

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0
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I'm reading a book on mathematical statistics and it states two properties of pdfs.



1) $f_X(x)geq 0$

2) $int_-infty^inftyf_X(t)dt = 1$



My question is this. Why is the integration variable a t, not an x in the second equation?



Thanks







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  • What's the difference anyway?
    – Vim
    Aug 23 at 5:20










  • I think this prevents confusion with the $X$.
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 23 at 5:23










  • hhhmmm, so there doesn't seem to be some mathematical motivation behind it, just more readability motivation.
    – Bucephalus
    Aug 23 at 5:26










  • Ok, well put that as an answer then @Actoh, and I will accept it if that's ok with you.
    – Bucephalus
    Aug 23 at 5:29














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I'm reading a book on mathematical statistics and it states two properties of pdfs.



1) $f_X(x)geq 0$

2) $int_-infty^inftyf_X(t)dt = 1$



My question is this. Why is the integration variable a t, not an x in the second equation?



Thanks







share|cite|improve this question




















  • What's the difference anyway?
    – Vim
    Aug 23 at 5:20










  • I think this prevents confusion with the $X$.
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 23 at 5:23










  • hhhmmm, so there doesn't seem to be some mathematical motivation behind it, just more readability motivation.
    – Bucephalus
    Aug 23 at 5:26










  • Ok, well put that as an answer then @Actoh, and I will accept it if that's ok with you.
    – Bucephalus
    Aug 23 at 5:29












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I'm reading a book on mathematical statistics and it states two properties of pdfs.



1) $f_X(x)geq 0$

2) $int_-infty^inftyf_X(t)dt = 1$



My question is this. Why is the integration variable a t, not an x in the second equation?



Thanks







share|cite|improve this question












I'm reading a book on mathematical statistics and it states two properties of pdfs.



1) $f_X(x)geq 0$

2) $int_-infty^inftyf_X(t)dt = 1$



My question is this. Why is the integration variable a t, not an x in the second equation?



Thanks









share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Aug 23 at 5:16









Bucephalus

446214




446214











  • What's the difference anyway?
    – Vim
    Aug 23 at 5:20










  • I think this prevents confusion with the $X$.
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 23 at 5:23










  • hhhmmm, so there doesn't seem to be some mathematical motivation behind it, just more readability motivation.
    – Bucephalus
    Aug 23 at 5:26










  • Ok, well put that as an answer then @Actoh, and I will accept it if that's ok with you.
    – Bucephalus
    Aug 23 at 5:29
















  • What's the difference anyway?
    – Vim
    Aug 23 at 5:20










  • I think this prevents confusion with the $X$.
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 23 at 5:23










  • hhhmmm, so there doesn't seem to be some mathematical motivation behind it, just more readability motivation.
    – Bucephalus
    Aug 23 at 5:26










  • Ok, well put that as an answer then @Actoh, and I will accept it if that's ok with you.
    – Bucephalus
    Aug 23 at 5:29















What's the difference anyway?
– Vim
Aug 23 at 5:20




What's the difference anyway?
– Vim
Aug 23 at 5:20












I think this prevents confusion with the $X$.
– Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Aug 23 at 5:23




I think this prevents confusion with the $X$.
– Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Aug 23 at 5:23












hhhmmm, so there doesn't seem to be some mathematical motivation behind it, just more readability motivation.
– Bucephalus
Aug 23 at 5:26




hhhmmm, so there doesn't seem to be some mathematical motivation behind it, just more readability motivation.
– Bucephalus
Aug 23 at 5:26












Ok, well put that as an answer then @Actoh, and I will accept it if that's ok with you.
– Bucephalus
Aug 23 at 5:29




Ok, well put that as an answer then @Actoh, and I will accept it if that's ok with you.
– Bucephalus
Aug 23 at 5:29










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










This is only to close the question.



Absolutely no mathematical motivation. Probably to remove confusion with the $X$. But remember , that choice of notation, especially while writing a book, must be very careful, since one requires it to be consistently maintained throughout the book.



Therefore, this notation may by repeated through the book : as you read on, you will realize the role of t instead of x.



If notation is cluttered or variables are not chosen nicely, you could land in trouble. For example, I could write $f_X(t)$ as $mathcal F_F(f)$ and there would be confusion as to what is what.




I should add that $t$ is varying from $-infty$ to $infty$. My guess is that $t$ usually varies over the reals in the book, as an integration variable. I have seen this in other books on probability as well.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • This was an important answer to me as we all, at varying points, want to understand why something is done, not just accept that something is done. Thanks @Actoh. yep, in fact the author goes on to state, that if the pdf has these two properties then it is for a continuous random variabl.
    – Bucephalus
    Aug 23 at 5:37










  • In other words: nobody cares; the variables are dummies.
    – Sean Roberson
    Aug 23 at 5:37










  • You are welcome! Having read some probability, I have also seen the same notation being stuck to by professors in class.
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 23 at 5:38










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










This is only to close the question.



Absolutely no mathematical motivation. Probably to remove confusion with the $X$. But remember , that choice of notation, especially while writing a book, must be very careful, since one requires it to be consistently maintained throughout the book.



Therefore, this notation may by repeated through the book : as you read on, you will realize the role of t instead of x.



If notation is cluttered or variables are not chosen nicely, you could land in trouble. For example, I could write $f_X(t)$ as $mathcal F_F(f)$ and there would be confusion as to what is what.




I should add that $t$ is varying from $-infty$ to $infty$. My guess is that $t$ usually varies over the reals in the book, as an integration variable. I have seen this in other books on probability as well.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • This was an important answer to me as we all, at varying points, want to understand why something is done, not just accept that something is done. Thanks @Actoh. yep, in fact the author goes on to state, that if the pdf has these two properties then it is for a continuous random variabl.
    – Bucephalus
    Aug 23 at 5:37










  • In other words: nobody cares; the variables are dummies.
    – Sean Roberson
    Aug 23 at 5:37










  • You are welcome! Having read some probability, I have also seen the same notation being stuck to by professors in class.
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 23 at 5:38














up vote
2
down vote



accepted










This is only to close the question.



Absolutely no mathematical motivation. Probably to remove confusion with the $X$. But remember , that choice of notation, especially while writing a book, must be very careful, since one requires it to be consistently maintained throughout the book.



Therefore, this notation may by repeated through the book : as you read on, you will realize the role of t instead of x.



If notation is cluttered or variables are not chosen nicely, you could land in trouble. For example, I could write $f_X(t)$ as $mathcal F_F(f)$ and there would be confusion as to what is what.




I should add that $t$ is varying from $-infty$ to $infty$. My guess is that $t$ usually varies over the reals in the book, as an integration variable. I have seen this in other books on probability as well.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • This was an important answer to me as we all, at varying points, want to understand why something is done, not just accept that something is done. Thanks @Actoh. yep, in fact the author goes on to state, that if the pdf has these two properties then it is for a continuous random variabl.
    – Bucephalus
    Aug 23 at 5:37










  • In other words: nobody cares; the variables are dummies.
    – Sean Roberson
    Aug 23 at 5:37










  • You are welcome! Having read some probability, I have also seen the same notation being stuck to by professors in class.
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 23 at 5:38












up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






This is only to close the question.



Absolutely no mathematical motivation. Probably to remove confusion with the $X$. But remember , that choice of notation, especially while writing a book, must be very careful, since one requires it to be consistently maintained throughout the book.



Therefore, this notation may by repeated through the book : as you read on, you will realize the role of t instead of x.



If notation is cluttered or variables are not chosen nicely, you could land in trouble. For example, I could write $f_X(t)$ as $mathcal F_F(f)$ and there would be confusion as to what is what.




I should add that $t$ is varying from $-infty$ to $infty$. My guess is that $t$ usually varies over the reals in the book, as an integration variable. I have seen this in other books on probability as well.






share|cite|improve this answer












This is only to close the question.



Absolutely no mathematical motivation. Probably to remove confusion with the $X$. But remember , that choice of notation, especially while writing a book, must be very careful, since one requires it to be consistently maintained throughout the book.



Therefore, this notation may by repeated through the book : as you read on, you will realize the role of t instead of x.



If notation is cluttered or variables are not chosen nicely, you could land in trouble. For example, I could write $f_X(t)$ as $mathcal F_F(f)$ and there would be confusion as to what is what.




I should add that $t$ is varying from $-infty$ to $infty$. My guess is that $t$ usually varies over the reals in the book, as an integration variable. I have seen this in other books on probability as well.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Aug 23 at 5:30









астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг

33.1k22665




33.1k22665











  • This was an important answer to me as we all, at varying points, want to understand why something is done, not just accept that something is done. Thanks @Actoh. yep, in fact the author goes on to state, that if the pdf has these two properties then it is for a continuous random variabl.
    – Bucephalus
    Aug 23 at 5:37










  • In other words: nobody cares; the variables are dummies.
    – Sean Roberson
    Aug 23 at 5:37










  • You are welcome! Having read some probability, I have also seen the same notation being stuck to by professors in class.
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 23 at 5:38
















  • This was an important answer to me as we all, at varying points, want to understand why something is done, not just accept that something is done. Thanks @Actoh. yep, in fact the author goes on to state, that if the pdf has these two properties then it is for a continuous random variabl.
    – Bucephalus
    Aug 23 at 5:37










  • In other words: nobody cares; the variables are dummies.
    – Sean Roberson
    Aug 23 at 5:37










  • You are welcome! Having read some probability, I have also seen the same notation being stuck to by professors in class.
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 23 at 5:38















This was an important answer to me as we all, at varying points, want to understand why something is done, not just accept that something is done. Thanks @Actoh. yep, in fact the author goes on to state, that if the pdf has these two properties then it is for a continuous random variabl.
– Bucephalus
Aug 23 at 5:37




This was an important answer to me as we all, at varying points, want to understand why something is done, not just accept that something is done. Thanks @Actoh. yep, in fact the author goes on to state, that if the pdf has these two properties then it is for a continuous random variabl.
– Bucephalus
Aug 23 at 5:37












In other words: nobody cares; the variables are dummies.
– Sean Roberson
Aug 23 at 5:37




In other words: nobody cares; the variables are dummies.
– Sean Roberson
Aug 23 at 5:37












You are welcome! Having read some probability, I have also seen the same notation being stuck to by professors in class.
– Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Aug 23 at 5:38




You are welcome! Having read some probability, I have also seen the same notation being stuck to by professors in class.
– Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Aug 23 at 5:38

















 

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