Is $(1+m)^1/m < (1+frac1m)^m$?

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If $(1+frac1m)^m<e$; $m in N $



How can we prove $(1+m)<e^m$ ?



I've been able to prove that above statement by mathematical induction but I'm unable to see it as a direct consequence of the give statement above.



If I can prove this $(1+m)^1/m < (1+frac1m)^m$ without using mathematical induction I shall be able to rest my case. Please help







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    up vote
    3
    down vote

    favorite
    2












    If $(1+frac1m)^m<e$; $m in N $



    How can we prove $(1+m)<e^m$ ?



    I've been able to prove that above statement by mathematical induction but I'm unable to see it as a direct consequence of the give statement above.



    If I can prove this $(1+m)^1/m < (1+frac1m)^m$ without using mathematical induction I shall be able to rest my case. Please help







    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite
      2









      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite
      2






      2





      If $(1+frac1m)^m<e$; $m in N $



      How can we prove $(1+m)<e^m$ ?



      I've been able to prove that above statement by mathematical induction but I'm unable to see it as a direct consequence of the give statement above.



      If I can prove this $(1+m)^1/m < (1+frac1m)^m$ without using mathematical induction I shall be able to rest my case. Please help







      share|cite|improve this question














      If $(1+frac1m)^m<e$; $m in N $



      How can we prove $(1+m)<e^m$ ?



      I've been able to prove that above statement by mathematical induction but I'm unable to see it as a direct consequence of the give statement above.



      If I can prove this $(1+m)^1/m < (1+frac1m)^m$ without using mathematical induction I shall be able to rest my case. Please help









      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 23 at 9:19

























      asked Aug 23 at 9:14









      Jyotishraj Thoudam

      289116




      289116




















          4 Answers
          4






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          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted










          By Bernoulli inequality



          $$(1+m)^1/mle1+frac1m m=2<e$$



          and



          $$left(1+frac1mright)^mge 1+mfrac 1m=2$$



          As an alternative by AM-GM inequality



          $$(1+m)^1/m=sqrt[m]overbrace1cdot 1cdot ldots cdot(1+m)^m, termsle fracoverbrace1+ 1+ ldots +(1+m)^m, termsm=frac2mm=2$$






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • The inequality is not strict. And can you provide a proof which doesn't use bernoulii??
            – Jyotishraj Thoudam
            Aug 23 at 9:28










          • @JyotishrajThoudam From the first one we obtain $$(1+m)^1/mle1+frac1m m=2<e$$ and equality holds only for $m=1$.
            – gimusi
            Aug 23 at 9:31











          • @JyotishrajThoudam I've added an alternative by AM-GM.
            – gimusi
            Aug 23 at 9:34

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Well, actually $(1+frac1m)^m<e$ holds for all $mgeq 0$. Thus in particular for $m'=frac1m$ the inequality holds. By substitution we obtain
          $$(1+m')^1/m'<e$$ from which you conclude using that functions of the type $x^q$ are increasing for all $qgeq0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer



























            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Alternatively note that
            $$ e^m = sum_j=0^infty fracm^jj! = 1 + m + sum_j=2^infty fracm^jj! > 1+m, $$
            for $m > 0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              Recall Bernoulli's inequality:




              $$(1+x)^n geq 1+nx, forall x>-1.$$




              Thus,we have $$1+m=left(1+m^2 cdot frac1mright)leq left(1+frac1mright)^m^2=left[left(1+frac1mright)^mright]^mleq e^m. $$






              share|cite|improve this answer




















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                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

                votes








                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes








                up vote
                4
                down vote



                accepted










                By Bernoulli inequality



                $$(1+m)^1/mle1+frac1m m=2<e$$



                and



                $$left(1+frac1mright)^mge 1+mfrac 1m=2$$



                As an alternative by AM-GM inequality



                $$(1+m)^1/m=sqrt[m]overbrace1cdot 1cdot ldots cdot(1+m)^m, termsle fracoverbrace1+ 1+ ldots +(1+m)^m, termsm=frac2mm=2$$






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                • The inequality is not strict. And can you provide a proof which doesn't use bernoulii??
                  – Jyotishraj Thoudam
                  Aug 23 at 9:28










                • @JyotishrajThoudam From the first one we obtain $$(1+m)^1/mle1+frac1m m=2<e$$ and equality holds only for $m=1$.
                  – gimusi
                  Aug 23 at 9:31











                • @JyotishrajThoudam I've added an alternative by AM-GM.
                  – gimusi
                  Aug 23 at 9:34














                up vote
                4
                down vote



                accepted










                By Bernoulli inequality



                $$(1+m)^1/mle1+frac1m m=2<e$$



                and



                $$left(1+frac1mright)^mge 1+mfrac 1m=2$$



                As an alternative by AM-GM inequality



                $$(1+m)^1/m=sqrt[m]overbrace1cdot 1cdot ldots cdot(1+m)^m, termsle fracoverbrace1+ 1+ ldots +(1+m)^m, termsm=frac2mm=2$$






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                • The inequality is not strict. And can you provide a proof which doesn't use bernoulii??
                  – Jyotishraj Thoudam
                  Aug 23 at 9:28










                • @JyotishrajThoudam From the first one we obtain $$(1+m)^1/mle1+frac1m m=2<e$$ and equality holds only for $m=1$.
                  – gimusi
                  Aug 23 at 9:31











                • @JyotishrajThoudam I've added an alternative by AM-GM.
                  – gimusi
                  Aug 23 at 9:34












                up vote
                4
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                4
                down vote



                accepted






                By Bernoulli inequality



                $$(1+m)^1/mle1+frac1m m=2<e$$



                and



                $$left(1+frac1mright)^mge 1+mfrac 1m=2$$



                As an alternative by AM-GM inequality



                $$(1+m)^1/m=sqrt[m]overbrace1cdot 1cdot ldots cdot(1+m)^m, termsle fracoverbrace1+ 1+ ldots +(1+m)^m, termsm=frac2mm=2$$






                share|cite|improve this answer














                By Bernoulli inequality



                $$(1+m)^1/mle1+frac1m m=2<e$$



                and



                $$left(1+frac1mright)^mge 1+mfrac 1m=2$$



                As an alternative by AM-GM inequality



                $$(1+m)^1/m=sqrt[m]overbrace1cdot 1cdot ldots cdot(1+m)^m, termsle fracoverbrace1+ 1+ ldots +(1+m)^m, termsm=frac2mm=2$$







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Aug 23 at 9:34

























                answered Aug 23 at 9:18









                gimusi

                69.4k73685




                69.4k73685











                • The inequality is not strict. And can you provide a proof which doesn't use bernoulii??
                  – Jyotishraj Thoudam
                  Aug 23 at 9:28










                • @JyotishrajThoudam From the first one we obtain $$(1+m)^1/mle1+frac1m m=2<e$$ and equality holds only for $m=1$.
                  – gimusi
                  Aug 23 at 9:31











                • @JyotishrajThoudam I've added an alternative by AM-GM.
                  – gimusi
                  Aug 23 at 9:34
















                • The inequality is not strict. And can you provide a proof which doesn't use bernoulii??
                  – Jyotishraj Thoudam
                  Aug 23 at 9:28










                • @JyotishrajThoudam From the first one we obtain $$(1+m)^1/mle1+frac1m m=2<e$$ and equality holds only for $m=1$.
                  – gimusi
                  Aug 23 at 9:31











                • @JyotishrajThoudam I've added an alternative by AM-GM.
                  – gimusi
                  Aug 23 at 9:34















                The inequality is not strict. And can you provide a proof which doesn't use bernoulii??
                – Jyotishraj Thoudam
                Aug 23 at 9:28




                The inequality is not strict. And can you provide a proof which doesn't use bernoulii??
                – Jyotishraj Thoudam
                Aug 23 at 9:28












                @JyotishrajThoudam From the first one we obtain $$(1+m)^1/mle1+frac1m m=2<e$$ and equality holds only for $m=1$.
                – gimusi
                Aug 23 at 9:31





                @JyotishrajThoudam From the first one we obtain $$(1+m)^1/mle1+frac1m m=2<e$$ and equality holds only for $m=1$.
                – gimusi
                Aug 23 at 9:31













                @JyotishrajThoudam I've added an alternative by AM-GM.
                – gimusi
                Aug 23 at 9:34




                @JyotishrajThoudam I've added an alternative by AM-GM.
                – gimusi
                Aug 23 at 9:34










                up vote
                0
                down vote













                Well, actually $(1+frac1m)^m<e$ holds for all $mgeq 0$. Thus in particular for $m'=frac1m$ the inequality holds. By substitution we obtain
                $$(1+m')^1/m'<e$$ from which you conclude using that functions of the type $x^q$ are increasing for all $qgeq0$.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote













                  Well, actually $(1+frac1m)^m<e$ holds for all $mgeq 0$. Thus in particular for $m'=frac1m$ the inequality holds. By substitution we obtain
                  $$(1+m')^1/m'<e$$ from which you conclude using that functions of the type $x^q$ are increasing for all $qgeq0$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer






















                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote









                    Well, actually $(1+frac1m)^m<e$ holds for all $mgeq 0$. Thus in particular for $m'=frac1m$ the inequality holds. By substitution we obtain
                    $$(1+m')^1/m'<e$$ from which you conclude using that functions of the type $x^q$ are increasing for all $qgeq0$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    Well, actually $(1+frac1m)^m<e$ holds for all $mgeq 0$. Thus in particular for $m'=frac1m$ the inequality holds. By substitution we obtain
                    $$(1+m')^1/m'<e$$ from which you conclude using that functions of the type $x^q$ are increasing for all $qgeq0$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Aug 23 at 9:19









                    b00n heT

                    8,21411431




                    8,21411431




















                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        Alternatively note that
                        $$ e^m = sum_j=0^infty fracm^jj! = 1 + m + sum_j=2^infty fracm^jj! > 1+m, $$
                        for $m > 0$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote













                          Alternatively note that
                          $$ e^m = sum_j=0^infty fracm^jj! = 1 + m + sum_j=2^infty fracm^jj! > 1+m, $$
                          for $m > 0$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer






















                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote









                            Alternatively note that
                            $$ e^m = sum_j=0^infty fracm^jj! = 1 + m + sum_j=2^infty fracm^jj! > 1+m, $$
                            for $m > 0$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            Alternatively note that
                            $$ e^m = sum_j=0^infty fracm^jj! = 1 + m + sum_j=2^infty fracm^jj! > 1+m, $$
                            for $m > 0$.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Aug 23 at 9:24









                            Sobi

                            2,105314




                            2,105314




















                                up vote
                                0
                                down vote













                                Recall Bernoulli's inequality:




                                $$(1+x)^n geq 1+nx, forall x>-1.$$




                                Thus,we have $$1+m=left(1+m^2 cdot frac1mright)leq left(1+frac1mright)^m^2=left[left(1+frac1mright)^mright]^mleq e^m. $$






                                share|cite|improve this answer
























                                  up vote
                                  0
                                  down vote













                                  Recall Bernoulli's inequality:




                                  $$(1+x)^n geq 1+nx, forall x>-1.$$




                                  Thus,we have $$1+m=left(1+m^2 cdot frac1mright)leq left(1+frac1mright)^m^2=left[left(1+frac1mright)^mright]^mleq e^m. $$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer






















                                    up vote
                                    0
                                    down vote










                                    up vote
                                    0
                                    down vote









                                    Recall Bernoulli's inequality:




                                    $$(1+x)^n geq 1+nx, forall x>-1.$$




                                    Thus,we have $$1+m=left(1+m^2 cdot frac1mright)leq left(1+frac1mright)^m^2=left[left(1+frac1mright)^mright]^mleq e^m. $$






                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    Recall Bernoulli's inequality:




                                    $$(1+x)^n geq 1+nx, forall x>-1.$$




                                    Thus,we have $$1+m=left(1+m^2 cdot frac1mright)leq left(1+frac1mright)^m^2=left[left(1+frac1mright)^mright]^mleq e^m. $$







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Aug 23 at 10:01









                                    mengdie1982

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