Finding a set of continuous functions with a certain property 2

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I need help finding the set of continuous functions $f : Bbb R to Bbb R$ such that for all $x in Bbb R$, the following integral converges:



$$int_0^1 frac f(x+t) - f(x) t^2 mathrm dt$$



I think it might be the set of constant functions but i havent been able to prove it :(



I was thinking that you can use the stone weiestrass theorem considering the set of continuous functions on a closed interval(non trivial) ,and a subset which contains the set of continuous functions whose integral above diverges in some point in that interval along with with the set of constant functions.
So in order to solve the problem i need only to prove that if two functions do not meet the condition of the problem then their product does not as well .



I hope you can provide some insight and thank you .










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  • 1




    Interesting question. Lebesgue or Riemann integral?
    – Theo Bendit
    Aug 30 at 2:22






  • 1




    If $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $f'(x)ne 0,$ then near $0$ the integrand looks like $f'(x)/t,$ which is not integrable. This is implies that if $f$ is differentiable everywhere, and satisfies the condition, then $f$ is constant.
    – zhw.
    Aug 30 at 2:26







  • 1




    I understand that. That's why it's a comment, not an answer.
    – zhw.
    Aug 30 at 2:33






  • 2




    @zhw: $dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2$ is continuous, therefore bounded on segment $[delta, 1]$ for every $delta > 0$. Therefore $intlimits_delta^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ exists for every $delta > 0$. The statement that $intlimits_0^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ converges is, by definition, the statement that $limlimits_delta to 0 intlimits_delta^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ exists. No boundedness of $dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2$ on the whole segment $[0, 1]$ is required.
    – Kaban-5
    Sep 2 at 16:42







  • 2




    Please do not repost questions.
    – quid♦
    Sep 8 at 16:26














up vote
9
down vote

favorite
4












I need help finding the set of continuous functions $f : Bbb R to Bbb R$ such that for all $x in Bbb R$, the following integral converges:



$$int_0^1 frac f(x+t) - f(x) t^2 mathrm dt$$



I think it might be the set of constant functions but i havent been able to prove it :(



I was thinking that you can use the stone weiestrass theorem considering the set of continuous functions on a closed interval(non trivial) ,and a subset which contains the set of continuous functions whose integral above diverges in some point in that interval along with with the set of constant functions.
So in order to solve the problem i need only to prove that if two functions do not meet the condition of the problem then their product does not as well .



I hope you can provide some insight and thank you .










share|cite|improve this question

















  • 1




    Interesting question. Lebesgue or Riemann integral?
    – Theo Bendit
    Aug 30 at 2:22






  • 1




    If $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $f'(x)ne 0,$ then near $0$ the integrand looks like $f'(x)/t,$ which is not integrable. This is implies that if $f$ is differentiable everywhere, and satisfies the condition, then $f$ is constant.
    – zhw.
    Aug 30 at 2:26







  • 1




    I understand that. That's why it's a comment, not an answer.
    – zhw.
    Aug 30 at 2:33






  • 2




    @zhw: $dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2$ is continuous, therefore bounded on segment $[delta, 1]$ for every $delta > 0$. Therefore $intlimits_delta^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ exists for every $delta > 0$. The statement that $intlimits_0^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ converges is, by definition, the statement that $limlimits_delta to 0 intlimits_delta^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ exists. No boundedness of $dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2$ on the whole segment $[0, 1]$ is required.
    – Kaban-5
    Sep 2 at 16:42







  • 2




    Please do not repost questions.
    – quid♦
    Sep 8 at 16:26












up vote
9
down vote

favorite
4









up vote
9
down vote

favorite
4






4





I need help finding the set of continuous functions $f : Bbb R to Bbb R$ such that for all $x in Bbb R$, the following integral converges:



$$int_0^1 frac f(x+t) - f(x) t^2 mathrm dt$$



I think it might be the set of constant functions but i havent been able to prove it :(



I was thinking that you can use the stone weiestrass theorem considering the set of continuous functions on a closed interval(non trivial) ,and a subset which contains the set of continuous functions whose integral above diverges in some point in that interval along with with the set of constant functions.
So in order to solve the problem i need only to prove that if two functions do not meet the condition of the problem then their product does not as well .



I hope you can provide some insight and thank you .










share|cite|improve this question













I need help finding the set of continuous functions $f : Bbb R to Bbb R$ such that for all $x in Bbb R$, the following integral converges:



$$int_0^1 frac f(x+t) - f(x) t^2 mathrm dt$$



I think it might be the set of constant functions but i havent been able to prove it :(



I was thinking that you can use the stone weiestrass theorem considering the set of continuous functions on a closed interval(non trivial) ,and a subset which contains the set of continuous functions whose integral above diverges in some point in that interval along with with the set of constant functions.
So in order to solve the problem i need only to prove that if two functions do not meet the condition of the problem then their product does not as well .



I hope you can provide some insight and thank you .







calculus real-analysis general-topology






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asked Aug 30 at 0:54









Mohammed M. Zerrak

529




529







  • 1




    Interesting question. Lebesgue or Riemann integral?
    – Theo Bendit
    Aug 30 at 2:22






  • 1




    If $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $f'(x)ne 0,$ then near $0$ the integrand looks like $f'(x)/t,$ which is not integrable. This is implies that if $f$ is differentiable everywhere, and satisfies the condition, then $f$ is constant.
    – zhw.
    Aug 30 at 2:26







  • 1




    I understand that. That's why it's a comment, not an answer.
    – zhw.
    Aug 30 at 2:33






  • 2




    @zhw: $dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2$ is continuous, therefore bounded on segment $[delta, 1]$ for every $delta > 0$. Therefore $intlimits_delta^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ exists for every $delta > 0$. The statement that $intlimits_0^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ converges is, by definition, the statement that $limlimits_delta to 0 intlimits_delta^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ exists. No boundedness of $dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2$ on the whole segment $[0, 1]$ is required.
    – Kaban-5
    Sep 2 at 16:42







  • 2




    Please do not repost questions.
    – quid♦
    Sep 8 at 16:26












  • 1




    Interesting question. Lebesgue or Riemann integral?
    – Theo Bendit
    Aug 30 at 2:22






  • 1




    If $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $f'(x)ne 0,$ then near $0$ the integrand looks like $f'(x)/t,$ which is not integrable. This is implies that if $f$ is differentiable everywhere, and satisfies the condition, then $f$ is constant.
    – zhw.
    Aug 30 at 2:26







  • 1




    I understand that. That's why it's a comment, not an answer.
    – zhw.
    Aug 30 at 2:33






  • 2




    @zhw: $dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2$ is continuous, therefore bounded on segment $[delta, 1]$ for every $delta > 0$. Therefore $intlimits_delta^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ exists for every $delta > 0$. The statement that $intlimits_0^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ converges is, by definition, the statement that $limlimits_delta to 0 intlimits_delta^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ exists. No boundedness of $dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2$ on the whole segment $[0, 1]$ is required.
    – Kaban-5
    Sep 2 at 16:42







  • 2




    Please do not repost questions.
    – quid♦
    Sep 8 at 16:26







1




1




Interesting question. Lebesgue or Riemann integral?
– Theo Bendit
Aug 30 at 2:22




Interesting question. Lebesgue or Riemann integral?
– Theo Bendit
Aug 30 at 2:22




1




1




If $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $f'(x)ne 0,$ then near $0$ the integrand looks like $f'(x)/t,$ which is not integrable. This is implies that if $f$ is differentiable everywhere, and satisfies the condition, then $f$ is constant.
– zhw.
Aug 30 at 2:26





If $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $f'(x)ne 0,$ then near $0$ the integrand looks like $f'(x)/t,$ which is not integrable. This is implies that if $f$ is differentiable everywhere, and satisfies the condition, then $f$ is constant.
– zhw.
Aug 30 at 2:26





1




1




I understand that. That's why it's a comment, not an answer.
– zhw.
Aug 30 at 2:33




I understand that. That's why it's a comment, not an answer.
– zhw.
Aug 30 at 2:33




2




2




@zhw: $dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2$ is continuous, therefore bounded on segment $[delta, 1]$ for every $delta > 0$. Therefore $intlimits_delta^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ exists for every $delta > 0$. The statement that $intlimits_0^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ converges is, by definition, the statement that $limlimits_delta to 0 intlimits_delta^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ exists. No boundedness of $dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2$ on the whole segment $[0, 1]$ is required.
– Kaban-5
Sep 2 at 16:42





@zhw: $dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2$ is continuous, therefore bounded on segment $[delta, 1]$ for every $delta > 0$. Therefore $intlimits_delta^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ exists for every $delta > 0$. The statement that $intlimits_0^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ converges is, by definition, the statement that $limlimits_delta to 0 intlimits_delta^1 dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2 ~dt$ exists. No boundedness of $dfracf(x + t) - f(x)t^2$ on the whole segment $[0, 1]$ is required.
– Kaban-5
Sep 2 at 16:42





2




2




Please do not repost questions.
– quid♦
Sep 8 at 16:26




Please do not repost questions.
– quid♦
Sep 8 at 16:26










4 Answers
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[Duplicate here.]



Let us prove that $f$ is constant.



Assume by contradiction that there exist $x_0 < x_1$ such that $f(x_0)neq f(x_1)$.
W.l.o.g. we can assume $f(x_1) > f(x_0)$ (otherwise it is enough to change $f$ with $-f$),
so that
$$
m := fracf(x_1) - f(x_0)x_1 - x_0 > 0.
$$
Let us consider the continuous function
$$
g(x) := f(x) - m(x-x_0).
$$
By Weierstrass' theorem, $g$ admits a minimum point $c$ in the interval $[x_0, x_1]$.
Since $g(x_0) = g(x_1)$, it is not restrictive to assume that $cin [x_0, x_1)$.



Let $delta := min1, x_1 - c$. We have that
$$
0 leq int_0^delta fracg(c+t) - g(c)t^2, dt
= int_0^delta left( fracf(c+t) - f(c)t^2 - fracmtright), dt = -infty,
$$
a contradiction.






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  • Excellent! $,,,$
    – zhw.
    Sep 5 at 22:29











  • There is a discussion at math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/29069/…
    – Carl Mummert
    11 hours ago

















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Edit: (added details about $h$ being bounded on an interval) Not a complete argument (due to the DCT portion), but a start. Below it is assumed that $max_x intlimits_0^1 fract^2 dt$ is finite which was not given in the problem. Let $h(x)=intlimits_0^1 fracf(x+t)-f(x)t^2dt$ and consider $H_s(w)=intlimits_s^w h(x) dx$ for some $s,w$. $h$ is continuous as DCT implies $$|h(x+delta)-h(x)|leqintlimits_0^1 fract^2dt$$ can be made arbitrarily small by taking $delta$ sufficiently small. This holds as $fract^2leq fract^2+frac(f(y+t)-f(y))t^2leq 2max_xfract^2$. Since the integrand defining $h(x)$ is absolutely integrable, and $h(x)$ is bounded on any interval $(s,w)$ (by continuity), Fubini's applies and



$$H_s(w)=intlimits_0^1 intlimits_s^w fracf(x+t)-f(x)t^2 dx dt = intlimits_0^1 fracF(w+t)-F(s+t)-(F(w)-F(s))t^2dt$$
where $F(w)-F(s)=intlimits_s^w f(x) dx$, (noting that $F$ is differentiable by FTC). The above integral is finite only if
$$[F(w+t)-F(s+t)-(F(w)-F(s))]'=0, textat t=0 text i.e. F'(w)=F'(s)$$
for all choices of $w,s$. If $h(x)$ is bounded for all choices of $x$ in the interval $(s,w)$ then $H_s(w)$ must be finite for all choices of $s<w$ and so $f(s)=f(w)$ for all $s,w$ and $f$ must be constant.






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  • Can i ask why the h function is bounded , and what happens if the integral is not necessarily absolutely convergent ?
    – Mohammed M. Zerrak
    Sep 2 at 11:43










  • @asd: I also don't understand how boundendness of $h$ follows. You just claim that it is true. Can you explain it in more detail, please?
    – Kaban-5
    Sep 2 at 16:44










  • @asd: Okay, so you are just using unusual terminology. But in this case $h$ does not have to be absolutely integrable: finiteness does not imply absolute integrability.
    – Kaban-5
    Sep 2 at 16:52











  • @Kaban-5 Read the argument. There is no assumption on $h$ being absolutely integrable. All that is assumed is that the integral defining $h$ is absolutely integrable, which was given as an assumption "You can assume that the integral converges absolutely".
    – asd
    Sep 2 at 16:54










  • @asd: Okay, but then how does infiteness of $H_s (w)$ (which is not even well defined even if we extend the possible values with positive infinity, because $h$ may take negative values) contradict anything? The all information we get is that $H_s (w)$ can't be finite.
    – Kaban-5
    Sep 2 at 16:57


















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1
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To see the opposite direction:



See Lebesgue's Differentiation Theorem for Continuous Functions



Hence $lim_epsilon rightarrow 0 frac1epsilon int_0^epsilon (f(x+t)-f(x)) dt = 0$.



shows that $int_0^epsilon (f(x+t)-f(x)) dt $ drops atleast as fast as $O(epsilon)$ as $epsilon rightarrow 0$.






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    Although Rigel’s answer solved the matter brilliantly, I would like to present an alternative solution to this:



    Consider the sets $A_varepsilon,x =f(u)-f(x).$



    Notice that these sets are clearly open, by the continuity of $f$. Also, these sets are nonempty for every $x in mathbbR$, and $x in overlineAbackslash A$ : indeed, as they are nested in $varepsilon$, if one of them is empty/does not accumulate around $x$, every other one with $eta < varepsilon$ also is. Also, it means that we can assume without loss of generality that all points $y>x$ sufficiently close to $x$ satisfy



    $$ f(y) ge f(x) + varepsilon(y-x).$$



    Plugging this back into the property satisfied by $f$ gives us then a contradiction.



    Claim: The set $A_varepsilon,x$ is dense in $(x,+infty).$



    Proof: Suppose its intersection with an interval $(a,b)$ is empty, and consider $ a’ = sup_u<b A_varepsilon,x le a$. It holds then for this $a’$ that



    $$ |f(a’)-f(x)|le varepsilon (a’-x).$$



    As the set $A_delta,a’, , delta < varepsilon,$ is nonempty and accumulates around $a'$, there is $b’in (a’,b)$ such that



    $$|f(b’)-f(a’)| < delta(b’-a’).$$



    This implies that



    $$|f(b’)-f(x)| le |f(b’)-f(a’)| + |f(a’)-f(x)| < varepsilon (a’-x) + delta(b’-a’) < varepsilon (b’-x),$$



    A contradiction to the definition of $a’. , square$



    Now we finish: as the set $A_varepsilon,x$ is open and dense in $(x,+infty),$ it means that every point $y in (x,+infty)$ satisfies



    $$ |f(y)-f(x)| le varepsilon(y-x).$$



    This implies, in particular, that $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and that $f'(x) = 0.$ As this was valid for all $x in mathbbR,$ we conclude that $f$ is differentiable and $f' =0,$ i.e., $f$ is constant, as desired.






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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted
      +100










      [Duplicate here.]



      Let us prove that $f$ is constant.



      Assume by contradiction that there exist $x_0 < x_1$ such that $f(x_0)neq f(x_1)$.
      W.l.o.g. we can assume $f(x_1) > f(x_0)$ (otherwise it is enough to change $f$ with $-f$),
      so that
      $$
      m := fracf(x_1) - f(x_0)x_1 - x_0 > 0.
      $$
      Let us consider the continuous function
      $$
      g(x) := f(x) - m(x-x_0).
      $$
      By Weierstrass' theorem, $g$ admits a minimum point $c$ in the interval $[x_0, x_1]$.
      Since $g(x_0) = g(x_1)$, it is not restrictive to assume that $cin [x_0, x_1)$.



      Let $delta := min1, x_1 - c$. We have that
      $$
      0 leq int_0^delta fracg(c+t) - g(c)t^2, dt
      = int_0^delta left( fracf(c+t) - f(c)t^2 - fracmtright), dt = -infty,
      $$
      a contradiction.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Excellent! $,,,$
        – zhw.
        Sep 5 at 22:29











      • There is a discussion at math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/29069/…
        – Carl Mummert
        11 hours ago














      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted
      +100










      [Duplicate here.]



      Let us prove that $f$ is constant.



      Assume by contradiction that there exist $x_0 < x_1$ such that $f(x_0)neq f(x_1)$.
      W.l.o.g. we can assume $f(x_1) > f(x_0)$ (otherwise it is enough to change $f$ with $-f$),
      so that
      $$
      m := fracf(x_1) - f(x_0)x_1 - x_0 > 0.
      $$
      Let us consider the continuous function
      $$
      g(x) := f(x) - m(x-x_0).
      $$
      By Weierstrass' theorem, $g$ admits a minimum point $c$ in the interval $[x_0, x_1]$.
      Since $g(x_0) = g(x_1)$, it is not restrictive to assume that $cin [x_0, x_1)$.



      Let $delta := min1, x_1 - c$. We have that
      $$
      0 leq int_0^delta fracg(c+t) - g(c)t^2, dt
      = int_0^delta left( fracf(c+t) - f(c)t^2 - fracmtright), dt = -infty,
      $$
      a contradiction.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Excellent! $,,,$
        – zhw.
        Sep 5 at 22:29











      • There is a discussion at math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/29069/…
        – Carl Mummert
        11 hours ago












      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted
      +100







      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted
      +100




      +100




      [Duplicate here.]



      Let us prove that $f$ is constant.



      Assume by contradiction that there exist $x_0 < x_1$ such that $f(x_0)neq f(x_1)$.
      W.l.o.g. we can assume $f(x_1) > f(x_0)$ (otherwise it is enough to change $f$ with $-f$),
      so that
      $$
      m := fracf(x_1) - f(x_0)x_1 - x_0 > 0.
      $$
      Let us consider the continuous function
      $$
      g(x) := f(x) - m(x-x_0).
      $$
      By Weierstrass' theorem, $g$ admits a minimum point $c$ in the interval $[x_0, x_1]$.
      Since $g(x_0) = g(x_1)$, it is not restrictive to assume that $cin [x_0, x_1)$.



      Let $delta := min1, x_1 - c$. We have that
      $$
      0 leq int_0^delta fracg(c+t) - g(c)t^2, dt
      = int_0^delta left( fracf(c+t) - f(c)t^2 - fracmtright), dt = -infty,
      $$
      a contradiction.






      share|cite|improve this answer












      [Duplicate here.]



      Let us prove that $f$ is constant.



      Assume by contradiction that there exist $x_0 < x_1$ such that $f(x_0)neq f(x_1)$.
      W.l.o.g. we can assume $f(x_1) > f(x_0)$ (otherwise it is enough to change $f$ with $-f$),
      so that
      $$
      m := fracf(x_1) - f(x_0)x_1 - x_0 > 0.
      $$
      Let us consider the continuous function
      $$
      g(x) := f(x) - m(x-x_0).
      $$
      By Weierstrass' theorem, $g$ admits a minimum point $c$ in the interval $[x_0, x_1]$.
      Since $g(x_0) = g(x_1)$, it is not restrictive to assume that $cin [x_0, x_1)$.



      Let $delta := min1, x_1 - c$. We have that
      $$
      0 leq int_0^delta fracg(c+t) - g(c)t^2, dt
      = int_0^delta left( fracf(c+t) - f(c)t^2 - fracmtright), dt = -infty,
      $$
      a contradiction.







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      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Sep 5 at 17:20









      Rigel

      10.4k11319




      10.4k11319











      • Excellent! $,,,$
        – zhw.
        Sep 5 at 22:29











      • There is a discussion at math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/29069/…
        – Carl Mummert
        11 hours ago
















      • Excellent! $,,,$
        – zhw.
        Sep 5 at 22:29











      • There is a discussion at math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/29069/…
        – Carl Mummert
        11 hours ago















      Excellent! $,,,$
      – zhw.
      Sep 5 at 22:29





      Excellent! $,,,$
      – zhw.
      Sep 5 at 22:29













      There is a discussion at math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/29069/…
      – Carl Mummert
      11 hours ago




      There is a discussion at math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/29069/…
      – Carl Mummert
      11 hours ago










      up vote
      2
      down vote













      Edit: (added details about $h$ being bounded on an interval) Not a complete argument (due to the DCT portion), but a start. Below it is assumed that $max_x intlimits_0^1 fract^2 dt$ is finite which was not given in the problem. Let $h(x)=intlimits_0^1 fracf(x+t)-f(x)t^2dt$ and consider $H_s(w)=intlimits_s^w h(x) dx$ for some $s,w$. $h$ is continuous as DCT implies $$|h(x+delta)-h(x)|leqintlimits_0^1 fract^2dt$$ can be made arbitrarily small by taking $delta$ sufficiently small. This holds as $fract^2leq fract^2+frac(f(y+t)-f(y))t^2leq 2max_xfract^2$. Since the integrand defining $h(x)$ is absolutely integrable, and $h(x)$ is bounded on any interval $(s,w)$ (by continuity), Fubini's applies and



      $$H_s(w)=intlimits_0^1 intlimits_s^w fracf(x+t)-f(x)t^2 dx dt = intlimits_0^1 fracF(w+t)-F(s+t)-(F(w)-F(s))t^2dt$$
      where $F(w)-F(s)=intlimits_s^w f(x) dx$, (noting that $F$ is differentiable by FTC). The above integral is finite only if
      $$[F(w+t)-F(s+t)-(F(w)-F(s))]'=0, textat t=0 text i.e. F'(w)=F'(s)$$
      for all choices of $w,s$. If $h(x)$ is bounded for all choices of $x$ in the interval $(s,w)$ then $H_s(w)$ must be finite for all choices of $s<w$ and so $f(s)=f(w)$ for all $s,w$ and $f$ must be constant.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















      • Can i ask why the h function is bounded , and what happens if the integral is not necessarily absolutely convergent ?
        – Mohammed M. Zerrak
        Sep 2 at 11:43










      • @asd: I also don't understand how boundendness of $h$ follows. You just claim that it is true. Can you explain it in more detail, please?
        – Kaban-5
        Sep 2 at 16:44










      • @asd: Okay, so you are just using unusual terminology. But in this case $h$ does not have to be absolutely integrable: finiteness does not imply absolute integrability.
        – Kaban-5
        Sep 2 at 16:52











      • @Kaban-5 Read the argument. There is no assumption on $h$ being absolutely integrable. All that is assumed is that the integral defining $h$ is absolutely integrable, which was given as an assumption "You can assume that the integral converges absolutely".
        – asd
        Sep 2 at 16:54










      • @asd: Okay, but then how does infiteness of $H_s (w)$ (which is not even well defined even if we extend the possible values with positive infinity, because $h$ may take negative values) contradict anything? The all information we get is that $H_s (w)$ can't be finite.
        – Kaban-5
        Sep 2 at 16:57















      up vote
      2
      down vote













      Edit: (added details about $h$ being bounded on an interval) Not a complete argument (due to the DCT portion), but a start. Below it is assumed that $max_x intlimits_0^1 fract^2 dt$ is finite which was not given in the problem. Let $h(x)=intlimits_0^1 fracf(x+t)-f(x)t^2dt$ and consider $H_s(w)=intlimits_s^w h(x) dx$ for some $s,w$. $h$ is continuous as DCT implies $$|h(x+delta)-h(x)|leqintlimits_0^1 fract^2dt$$ can be made arbitrarily small by taking $delta$ sufficiently small. This holds as $fract^2leq fract^2+frac(f(y+t)-f(y))t^2leq 2max_xfract^2$. Since the integrand defining $h(x)$ is absolutely integrable, and $h(x)$ is bounded on any interval $(s,w)$ (by continuity), Fubini's applies and



      $$H_s(w)=intlimits_0^1 intlimits_s^w fracf(x+t)-f(x)t^2 dx dt = intlimits_0^1 fracF(w+t)-F(s+t)-(F(w)-F(s))t^2dt$$
      where $F(w)-F(s)=intlimits_s^w f(x) dx$, (noting that $F$ is differentiable by FTC). The above integral is finite only if
      $$[F(w+t)-F(s+t)-(F(w)-F(s))]'=0, textat t=0 text i.e. F'(w)=F'(s)$$
      for all choices of $w,s$. If $h(x)$ is bounded for all choices of $x$ in the interval $(s,w)$ then $H_s(w)$ must be finite for all choices of $s<w$ and so $f(s)=f(w)$ for all $s,w$ and $f$ must be constant.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















      • Can i ask why the h function is bounded , and what happens if the integral is not necessarily absolutely convergent ?
        – Mohammed M. Zerrak
        Sep 2 at 11:43










      • @asd: I also don't understand how boundendness of $h$ follows. You just claim that it is true. Can you explain it in more detail, please?
        – Kaban-5
        Sep 2 at 16:44










      • @asd: Okay, so you are just using unusual terminology. But in this case $h$ does not have to be absolutely integrable: finiteness does not imply absolute integrability.
        – Kaban-5
        Sep 2 at 16:52











      • @Kaban-5 Read the argument. There is no assumption on $h$ being absolutely integrable. All that is assumed is that the integral defining $h$ is absolutely integrable, which was given as an assumption "You can assume that the integral converges absolutely".
        – asd
        Sep 2 at 16:54










      • @asd: Okay, but then how does infiteness of $H_s (w)$ (which is not even well defined even if we extend the possible values with positive infinity, because $h$ may take negative values) contradict anything? The all information we get is that $H_s (w)$ can't be finite.
        – Kaban-5
        Sep 2 at 16:57













      up vote
      2
      down vote










      up vote
      2
      down vote









      Edit: (added details about $h$ being bounded on an interval) Not a complete argument (due to the DCT portion), but a start. Below it is assumed that $max_x intlimits_0^1 fract^2 dt$ is finite which was not given in the problem. Let $h(x)=intlimits_0^1 fracf(x+t)-f(x)t^2dt$ and consider $H_s(w)=intlimits_s^w h(x) dx$ for some $s,w$. $h$ is continuous as DCT implies $$|h(x+delta)-h(x)|leqintlimits_0^1 fract^2dt$$ can be made arbitrarily small by taking $delta$ sufficiently small. This holds as $fract^2leq fract^2+frac(f(y+t)-f(y))t^2leq 2max_xfract^2$. Since the integrand defining $h(x)$ is absolutely integrable, and $h(x)$ is bounded on any interval $(s,w)$ (by continuity), Fubini's applies and



      $$H_s(w)=intlimits_0^1 intlimits_s^w fracf(x+t)-f(x)t^2 dx dt = intlimits_0^1 fracF(w+t)-F(s+t)-(F(w)-F(s))t^2dt$$
      where $F(w)-F(s)=intlimits_s^w f(x) dx$, (noting that $F$ is differentiable by FTC). The above integral is finite only if
      $$[F(w+t)-F(s+t)-(F(w)-F(s))]'=0, textat t=0 text i.e. F'(w)=F'(s)$$
      for all choices of $w,s$. If $h(x)$ is bounded for all choices of $x$ in the interval $(s,w)$ then $H_s(w)$ must be finite for all choices of $s<w$ and so $f(s)=f(w)$ for all $s,w$ and $f$ must be constant.






      share|cite|improve this answer














      Edit: (added details about $h$ being bounded on an interval) Not a complete argument (due to the DCT portion), but a start. Below it is assumed that $max_x intlimits_0^1 fract^2 dt$ is finite which was not given in the problem. Let $h(x)=intlimits_0^1 fracf(x+t)-f(x)t^2dt$ and consider $H_s(w)=intlimits_s^w h(x) dx$ for some $s,w$. $h$ is continuous as DCT implies $$|h(x+delta)-h(x)|leqintlimits_0^1 fract^2dt$$ can be made arbitrarily small by taking $delta$ sufficiently small. This holds as $fract^2leq fract^2+frac(f(y+t)-f(y))t^2leq 2max_xfract^2$. Since the integrand defining $h(x)$ is absolutely integrable, and $h(x)$ is bounded on any interval $(s,w)$ (by continuity), Fubini's applies and



      $$H_s(w)=intlimits_0^1 intlimits_s^w fracf(x+t)-f(x)t^2 dx dt = intlimits_0^1 fracF(w+t)-F(s+t)-(F(w)-F(s))t^2dt$$
      where $F(w)-F(s)=intlimits_s^w f(x) dx$, (noting that $F$ is differentiable by FTC). The above integral is finite only if
      $$[F(w+t)-F(s+t)-(F(w)-F(s))]'=0, textat t=0 text i.e. F'(w)=F'(s)$$
      for all choices of $w,s$. If $h(x)$ is bounded for all choices of $x$ in the interval $(s,w)$ then $H_s(w)$ must be finite for all choices of $s<w$ and so $f(s)=f(w)$ for all $s,w$ and $f$ must be constant.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Sep 2 at 18:03

























      answered Sep 2 at 5:28









      asd

      39319




      39319











      • Can i ask why the h function is bounded , and what happens if the integral is not necessarily absolutely convergent ?
        – Mohammed M. Zerrak
        Sep 2 at 11:43










      • @asd: I also don't understand how boundendness of $h$ follows. You just claim that it is true. Can you explain it in more detail, please?
        – Kaban-5
        Sep 2 at 16:44










      • @asd: Okay, so you are just using unusual terminology. But in this case $h$ does not have to be absolutely integrable: finiteness does not imply absolute integrability.
        – Kaban-5
        Sep 2 at 16:52











      • @Kaban-5 Read the argument. There is no assumption on $h$ being absolutely integrable. All that is assumed is that the integral defining $h$ is absolutely integrable, which was given as an assumption "You can assume that the integral converges absolutely".
        – asd
        Sep 2 at 16:54










      • @asd: Okay, but then how does infiteness of $H_s (w)$ (which is not even well defined even if we extend the possible values with positive infinity, because $h$ may take negative values) contradict anything? The all information we get is that $H_s (w)$ can't be finite.
        – Kaban-5
        Sep 2 at 16:57

















      • Can i ask why the h function is bounded , and what happens if the integral is not necessarily absolutely convergent ?
        – Mohammed M. Zerrak
        Sep 2 at 11:43










      • @asd: I also don't understand how boundendness of $h$ follows. You just claim that it is true. Can you explain it in more detail, please?
        – Kaban-5
        Sep 2 at 16:44










      • @asd: Okay, so you are just using unusual terminology. But in this case $h$ does not have to be absolutely integrable: finiteness does not imply absolute integrability.
        – Kaban-5
        Sep 2 at 16:52











      • @Kaban-5 Read the argument. There is no assumption on $h$ being absolutely integrable. All that is assumed is that the integral defining $h$ is absolutely integrable, which was given as an assumption "You can assume that the integral converges absolutely".
        – asd
        Sep 2 at 16:54










      • @asd: Okay, but then how does infiteness of $H_s (w)$ (which is not even well defined even if we extend the possible values with positive infinity, because $h$ may take negative values) contradict anything? The all information we get is that $H_s (w)$ can't be finite.
        – Kaban-5
        Sep 2 at 16:57
















      Can i ask why the h function is bounded , and what happens if the integral is not necessarily absolutely convergent ?
      – Mohammed M. Zerrak
      Sep 2 at 11:43




      Can i ask why the h function is bounded , and what happens if the integral is not necessarily absolutely convergent ?
      – Mohammed M. Zerrak
      Sep 2 at 11:43












      @asd: I also don't understand how boundendness of $h$ follows. You just claim that it is true. Can you explain it in more detail, please?
      – Kaban-5
      Sep 2 at 16:44




      @asd: I also don't understand how boundendness of $h$ follows. You just claim that it is true. Can you explain it in more detail, please?
      – Kaban-5
      Sep 2 at 16:44












      @asd: Okay, so you are just using unusual terminology. But in this case $h$ does not have to be absolutely integrable: finiteness does not imply absolute integrability.
      – Kaban-5
      Sep 2 at 16:52





      @asd: Okay, so you are just using unusual terminology. But in this case $h$ does not have to be absolutely integrable: finiteness does not imply absolute integrability.
      – Kaban-5
      Sep 2 at 16:52













      @Kaban-5 Read the argument. There is no assumption on $h$ being absolutely integrable. All that is assumed is that the integral defining $h$ is absolutely integrable, which was given as an assumption "You can assume that the integral converges absolutely".
      – asd
      Sep 2 at 16:54




      @Kaban-5 Read the argument. There is no assumption on $h$ being absolutely integrable. All that is assumed is that the integral defining $h$ is absolutely integrable, which was given as an assumption "You can assume that the integral converges absolutely".
      – asd
      Sep 2 at 16:54












      @asd: Okay, but then how does infiteness of $H_s (w)$ (which is not even well defined even if we extend the possible values with positive infinity, because $h$ may take negative values) contradict anything? The all information we get is that $H_s (w)$ can't be finite.
      – Kaban-5
      Sep 2 at 16:57





      @asd: Okay, but then how does infiteness of $H_s (w)$ (which is not even well defined even if we extend the possible values with positive infinity, because $h$ may take negative values) contradict anything? The all information we get is that $H_s (w)$ can't be finite.
      – Kaban-5
      Sep 2 at 16:57











      up vote
      1
      down vote













      To see the opposite direction:



      See Lebesgue's Differentiation Theorem for Continuous Functions



      Hence $lim_epsilon rightarrow 0 frac1epsilon int_0^epsilon (f(x+t)-f(x)) dt = 0$.



      shows that $int_0^epsilon (f(x+t)-f(x)) dt $ drops atleast as fast as $O(epsilon)$ as $epsilon rightarrow 0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        up vote
        1
        down vote













        To see the opposite direction:



        See Lebesgue's Differentiation Theorem for Continuous Functions



        Hence $lim_epsilon rightarrow 0 frac1epsilon int_0^epsilon (f(x+t)-f(x)) dt = 0$.



        shows that $int_0^epsilon (f(x+t)-f(x)) dt $ drops atleast as fast as $O(epsilon)$ as $epsilon rightarrow 0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          To see the opposite direction:



          See Lebesgue's Differentiation Theorem for Continuous Functions



          Hence $lim_epsilon rightarrow 0 frac1epsilon int_0^epsilon (f(x+t)-f(x)) dt = 0$.



          shows that $int_0^epsilon (f(x+t)-f(x)) dt $ drops atleast as fast as $O(epsilon)$ as $epsilon rightarrow 0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          To see the opposite direction:



          See Lebesgue's Differentiation Theorem for Continuous Functions



          Hence $lim_epsilon rightarrow 0 frac1epsilon int_0^epsilon (f(x+t)-f(x)) dt = 0$.



          shows that $int_0^epsilon (f(x+t)-f(x)) dt $ drops atleast as fast as $O(epsilon)$ as $epsilon rightarrow 0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Sep 2 at 9:14

























          answered Sep 2 at 6:23









          Balaji sb

          37315




          37315




















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              Although Rigel’s answer solved the matter brilliantly, I would like to present an alternative solution to this:



              Consider the sets $A_varepsilon,x =f(u)-f(x).$



              Notice that these sets are clearly open, by the continuity of $f$. Also, these sets are nonempty for every $x in mathbbR$, and $x in overlineAbackslash A$ : indeed, as they are nested in $varepsilon$, if one of them is empty/does not accumulate around $x$, every other one with $eta < varepsilon$ also is. Also, it means that we can assume without loss of generality that all points $y>x$ sufficiently close to $x$ satisfy



              $$ f(y) ge f(x) + varepsilon(y-x).$$



              Plugging this back into the property satisfied by $f$ gives us then a contradiction.



              Claim: The set $A_varepsilon,x$ is dense in $(x,+infty).$



              Proof: Suppose its intersection with an interval $(a,b)$ is empty, and consider $ a’ = sup_u<b A_varepsilon,x le a$. It holds then for this $a’$ that



              $$ |f(a’)-f(x)|le varepsilon (a’-x).$$



              As the set $A_delta,a’, , delta < varepsilon,$ is nonempty and accumulates around $a'$, there is $b’in (a’,b)$ such that



              $$|f(b’)-f(a’)| < delta(b’-a’).$$



              This implies that



              $$|f(b’)-f(x)| le |f(b’)-f(a’)| + |f(a’)-f(x)| < varepsilon (a’-x) + delta(b’-a’) < varepsilon (b’-x),$$



              A contradiction to the definition of $a’. , square$



              Now we finish: as the set $A_varepsilon,x$ is open and dense in $(x,+infty),$ it means that every point $y in (x,+infty)$ satisfies



              $$ |f(y)-f(x)| le varepsilon(y-x).$$



              This implies, in particular, that $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and that $f'(x) = 0.$ As this was valid for all $x in mathbbR,$ we conclude that $f$ is differentiable and $f' =0,$ i.e., $f$ is constant, as desired.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                Although Rigel’s answer solved the matter brilliantly, I would like to present an alternative solution to this:



                Consider the sets $A_varepsilon,x =f(u)-f(x).$



                Notice that these sets are clearly open, by the continuity of $f$. Also, these sets are nonempty for every $x in mathbbR$, and $x in overlineAbackslash A$ : indeed, as they are nested in $varepsilon$, if one of them is empty/does not accumulate around $x$, every other one with $eta < varepsilon$ also is. Also, it means that we can assume without loss of generality that all points $y>x$ sufficiently close to $x$ satisfy



                $$ f(y) ge f(x) + varepsilon(y-x).$$



                Plugging this back into the property satisfied by $f$ gives us then a contradiction.



                Claim: The set $A_varepsilon,x$ is dense in $(x,+infty).$



                Proof: Suppose its intersection with an interval $(a,b)$ is empty, and consider $ a’ = sup_u<b A_varepsilon,x le a$. It holds then for this $a’$ that



                $$ |f(a’)-f(x)|le varepsilon (a’-x).$$



                As the set $A_delta,a’, , delta < varepsilon,$ is nonempty and accumulates around $a'$, there is $b’in (a’,b)$ such that



                $$|f(b’)-f(a’)| < delta(b’-a’).$$



                This implies that



                $$|f(b’)-f(x)| le |f(b’)-f(a’)| + |f(a’)-f(x)| < varepsilon (a’-x) + delta(b’-a’) < varepsilon (b’-x),$$



                A contradiction to the definition of $a’. , square$



                Now we finish: as the set $A_varepsilon,x$ is open and dense in $(x,+infty),$ it means that every point $y in (x,+infty)$ satisfies



                $$ |f(y)-f(x)| le varepsilon(y-x).$$



                This implies, in particular, that $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and that $f'(x) = 0.$ As this was valid for all $x in mathbbR,$ we conclude that $f$ is differentiable and $f' =0,$ i.e., $f$ is constant, as desired.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  Although Rigel’s answer solved the matter brilliantly, I would like to present an alternative solution to this:



                  Consider the sets $A_varepsilon,x =f(u)-f(x).$



                  Notice that these sets are clearly open, by the continuity of $f$. Also, these sets are nonempty for every $x in mathbbR$, and $x in overlineAbackslash A$ : indeed, as they are nested in $varepsilon$, if one of them is empty/does not accumulate around $x$, every other one with $eta < varepsilon$ also is. Also, it means that we can assume without loss of generality that all points $y>x$ sufficiently close to $x$ satisfy



                  $$ f(y) ge f(x) + varepsilon(y-x).$$



                  Plugging this back into the property satisfied by $f$ gives us then a contradiction.



                  Claim: The set $A_varepsilon,x$ is dense in $(x,+infty).$



                  Proof: Suppose its intersection with an interval $(a,b)$ is empty, and consider $ a’ = sup_u<b A_varepsilon,x le a$. It holds then for this $a’$ that



                  $$ |f(a’)-f(x)|le varepsilon (a’-x).$$



                  As the set $A_delta,a’, , delta < varepsilon,$ is nonempty and accumulates around $a'$, there is $b’in (a’,b)$ such that



                  $$|f(b’)-f(a’)| < delta(b’-a’).$$



                  This implies that



                  $$|f(b’)-f(x)| le |f(b’)-f(a’)| + |f(a’)-f(x)| < varepsilon (a’-x) + delta(b’-a’) < varepsilon (b’-x),$$



                  A contradiction to the definition of $a’. , square$



                  Now we finish: as the set $A_varepsilon,x$ is open and dense in $(x,+infty),$ it means that every point $y in (x,+infty)$ satisfies



                  $$ |f(y)-f(x)| le varepsilon(y-x).$$



                  This implies, in particular, that $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and that $f'(x) = 0.$ As this was valid for all $x in mathbbR,$ we conclude that $f$ is differentiable and $f' =0,$ i.e., $f$ is constant, as desired.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Although Rigel’s answer solved the matter brilliantly, I would like to present an alternative solution to this:



                  Consider the sets $A_varepsilon,x =f(u)-f(x).$



                  Notice that these sets are clearly open, by the continuity of $f$. Also, these sets are nonempty for every $x in mathbbR$, and $x in overlineAbackslash A$ : indeed, as they are nested in $varepsilon$, if one of them is empty/does not accumulate around $x$, every other one with $eta < varepsilon$ also is. Also, it means that we can assume without loss of generality that all points $y>x$ sufficiently close to $x$ satisfy



                  $$ f(y) ge f(x) + varepsilon(y-x).$$



                  Plugging this back into the property satisfied by $f$ gives us then a contradiction.



                  Claim: The set $A_varepsilon,x$ is dense in $(x,+infty).$



                  Proof: Suppose its intersection with an interval $(a,b)$ is empty, and consider $ a’ = sup_u<b A_varepsilon,x le a$. It holds then for this $a’$ that



                  $$ |f(a’)-f(x)|le varepsilon (a’-x).$$



                  As the set $A_delta,a’, , delta < varepsilon,$ is nonempty and accumulates around $a'$, there is $b’in (a’,b)$ such that



                  $$|f(b’)-f(a’)| < delta(b’-a’).$$



                  This implies that



                  $$|f(b’)-f(x)| le |f(b’)-f(a’)| + |f(a’)-f(x)| < varepsilon (a’-x) + delta(b’-a’) < varepsilon (b’-x),$$



                  A contradiction to the definition of $a’. , square$



                  Now we finish: as the set $A_varepsilon,x$ is open and dense in $(x,+infty),$ it means that every point $y in (x,+infty)$ satisfies



                  $$ |f(y)-f(x)| le varepsilon(y-x).$$



                  This implies, in particular, that $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and that $f'(x) = 0.$ As this was valid for all $x in mathbbR,$ we conclude that $f$ is differentiable and $f' =0,$ i.e., $f$ is constant, as desired.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Sep 9 at 12:52









                  João Ramos

                  1,184719




                  1,184719



























                       

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