Existence of continuous and onto function [closed]

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Does there exist a continous and onto function from unit disc to whole complex plane?



I think this is false.
If we consider its inverse function then domain is set of all complex plane and codomain is unit disc. Therefore, entire function is bounded, hence constant.



Is this correct argument?? Please help.










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closed as unclear what you're asking by zhw., Lord Shark the Unknown, max_zorn, Paul Frost, Gibbs Aug 30 at 9:01


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.














  • Why must the inverse function of a continuous, onto function be entire?
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 30 at 5:04










  • are you maybe asking about holomorph functions and not continuous functions?
    – Jürg Merlin Spaak
    Aug 30 at 5:10






  • 1




    By unit disc do you mean the open unit disc?
    – zhw.
    Aug 30 at 5:15










  • Yes, open unit disc. @zhw
    – Golam Biswas
    Aug 30 at 5:39














up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1












Does there exist a continous and onto function from unit disc to whole complex plane?



I think this is false.
If we consider its inverse function then domain is set of all complex plane and codomain is unit disc. Therefore, entire function is bounded, hence constant.



Is this correct argument?? Please help.










share|cite|improve this question













closed as unclear what you're asking by zhw., Lord Shark the Unknown, max_zorn, Paul Frost, Gibbs Aug 30 at 9:01


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.














  • Why must the inverse function of a continuous, onto function be entire?
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 30 at 5:04










  • are you maybe asking about holomorph functions and not continuous functions?
    – Jürg Merlin Spaak
    Aug 30 at 5:10






  • 1




    By unit disc do you mean the open unit disc?
    – zhw.
    Aug 30 at 5:15










  • Yes, open unit disc. @zhw
    – Golam Biswas
    Aug 30 at 5:39












up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1






1





Does there exist a continous and onto function from unit disc to whole complex plane?



I think this is false.
If we consider its inverse function then domain is set of all complex plane and codomain is unit disc. Therefore, entire function is bounded, hence constant.



Is this correct argument?? Please help.










share|cite|improve this question













Does there exist a continous and onto function from unit disc to whole complex plane?



I think this is false.
If we consider its inverse function then domain is set of all complex plane and codomain is unit disc. Therefore, entire function is bounded, hence constant.



Is this correct argument?? Please help.







complex-numbers






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share|cite|improve this question




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asked Aug 30 at 4:59









Golam Biswas

134




134




closed as unclear what you're asking by zhw., Lord Shark the Unknown, max_zorn, Paul Frost, Gibbs Aug 30 at 9:01


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






closed as unclear what you're asking by zhw., Lord Shark the Unknown, max_zorn, Paul Frost, Gibbs Aug 30 at 9:01


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.













  • Why must the inverse function of a continuous, onto function be entire?
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 30 at 5:04










  • are you maybe asking about holomorph functions and not continuous functions?
    – Jürg Merlin Spaak
    Aug 30 at 5:10






  • 1




    By unit disc do you mean the open unit disc?
    – zhw.
    Aug 30 at 5:15










  • Yes, open unit disc. @zhw
    – Golam Biswas
    Aug 30 at 5:39
















  • Why must the inverse function of a continuous, onto function be entire?
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 30 at 5:04










  • are you maybe asking about holomorph functions and not continuous functions?
    – Jürg Merlin Spaak
    Aug 30 at 5:10






  • 1




    By unit disc do you mean the open unit disc?
    – zhw.
    Aug 30 at 5:15










  • Yes, open unit disc. @zhw
    – Golam Biswas
    Aug 30 at 5:39















Why must the inverse function of a continuous, onto function be entire?
– Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Aug 30 at 5:04




Why must the inverse function of a continuous, onto function be entire?
– Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Aug 30 at 5:04












are you maybe asking about holomorph functions and not continuous functions?
– Jürg Merlin Spaak
Aug 30 at 5:10




are you maybe asking about holomorph functions and not continuous functions?
– Jürg Merlin Spaak
Aug 30 at 5:10




1




1




By unit disc do you mean the open unit disc?
– zhw.
Aug 30 at 5:15




By unit disc do you mean the open unit disc?
– zhw.
Aug 30 at 5:15












Yes, open unit disc. @zhw
– Golam Biswas
Aug 30 at 5:39




Yes, open unit disc. @zhw
– Golam Biswas
Aug 30 at 5:39










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
0
down vote



accepted










Yes, such a function exists:
e.g. $f(x+iy) = fracx+iy1-sqrtx^2+y^2$



Your argument is invalid for two reasons: You probably ment to ask about holomorph functions (otherwise there is no problem with having the entire complex plain as domain and be bounded).



Second: The function might not have an inverse, therefore you can't easily talk about the inverse.



Edit:
Proof that this function is onto:
First we see that $f$ does not change the argument of a given complex number, i.e. $arg(z) =arg(f(z))$.
Therefore if $f$ is an onto function from $(-1,1)$ to $mathbbR$ (seen as subsets of $mathbbC$), then $f$ is onto in $mathbbC$.



$f$ restircted to $(-1,1)$ is $f(x)=fracxx$. Now let $yinmathbbR$, then
beginalign
fleft(fracyyright)&=fracfracyy1-left\
&=fracfracyyfracyy\
&=y
endalign






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • I'm not clear on your example: it appears to be a function from $Bbb R^2$ (or $Bbb C$) to $Bbb R$ and therefore not onto $Bbb C$. Did you mean $$f(x+iy)=fracx+iy1-sqrtx^2+y^2 ?$$
    – David
    Aug 30 at 5:23











  • How to say you this is onto @jurg murlin spaak.??
    – Golam Biswas
    Aug 30 at 5:38

















up vote
1
down vote













Open unit disk in any normed linear space is homeomorphic to the whole space. An explicit heomeomorphism if $ xto frac x x$. Its inverse is $ xto frac x 1+$. Proof: let $y$ be arbitrary and let us try to solve the equation $frac x x=y$. Take norm on both sides to get $frac x x=|y|$. This gives $|x|=|y|-|x||y|$ so $|x|=frac y$. Hence $x=(1-|x|)y=(1-frac y)y=frac 1 yy$. Clearly, this $x$ is in the open unit disk. This proves that that map is onto. For a given $y$, $x$ is unique so the map is also one-to-one. For the complex plane simply take $|z|$ for the norm.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • +1.. Special thanks to @kavi rama mirth.
    – Golam Biswas
    Aug 30 at 7:38

















2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
0
down vote



accepted










Yes, such a function exists:
e.g. $f(x+iy) = fracx+iy1-sqrtx^2+y^2$



Your argument is invalid for two reasons: You probably ment to ask about holomorph functions (otherwise there is no problem with having the entire complex plain as domain and be bounded).



Second: The function might not have an inverse, therefore you can't easily talk about the inverse.



Edit:
Proof that this function is onto:
First we see that $f$ does not change the argument of a given complex number, i.e. $arg(z) =arg(f(z))$.
Therefore if $f$ is an onto function from $(-1,1)$ to $mathbbR$ (seen as subsets of $mathbbC$), then $f$ is onto in $mathbbC$.



$f$ restircted to $(-1,1)$ is $f(x)=fracxx$. Now let $yinmathbbR$, then
beginalign
fleft(fracyyright)&=fracfracyy1-left\
&=fracfracyyfracyy\
&=y
endalign






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • I'm not clear on your example: it appears to be a function from $Bbb R^2$ (or $Bbb C$) to $Bbb R$ and therefore not onto $Bbb C$. Did you mean $$f(x+iy)=fracx+iy1-sqrtx^2+y^2 ?$$
    – David
    Aug 30 at 5:23











  • How to say you this is onto @jurg murlin spaak.??
    – Golam Biswas
    Aug 30 at 5:38














up vote
0
down vote



accepted










Yes, such a function exists:
e.g. $f(x+iy) = fracx+iy1-sqrtx^2+y^2$



Your argument is invalid for two reasons: You probably ment to ask about holomorph functions (otherwise there is no problem with having the entire complex plain as domain and be bounded).



Second: The function might not have an inverse, therefore you can't easily talk about the inverse.



Edit:
Proof that this function is onto:
First we see that $f$ does not change the argument of a given complex number, i.e. $arg(z) =arg(f(z))$.
Therefore if $f$ is an onto function from $(-1,1)$ to $mathbbR$ (seen as subsets of $mathbbC$), then $f$ is onto in $mathbbC$.



$f$ restircted to $(-1,1)$ is $f(x)=fracxx$. Now let $yinmathbbR$, then
beginalign
fleft(fracyyright)&=fracfracyy1-left\
&=fracfracyyfracyy\
&=y
endalign






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • I'm not clear on your example: it appears to be a function from $Bbb R^2$ (or $Bbb C$) to $Bbb R$ and therefore not onto $Bbb C$. Did you mean $$f(x+iy)=fracx+iy1-sqrtx^2+y^2 ?$$
    – David
    Aug 30 at 5:23











  • How to say you this is onto @jurg murlin spaak.??
    – Golam Biswas
    Aug 30 at 5:38












up vote
0
down vote



accepted







up vote
0
down vote



accepted






Yes, such a function exists:
e.g. $f(x+iy) = fracx+iy1-sqrtx^2+y^2$



Your argument is invalid for two reasons: You probably ment to ask about holomorph functions (otherwise there is no problem with having the entire complex plain as domain and be bounded).



Second: The function might not have an inverse, therefore you can't easily talk about the inverse.



Edit:
Proof that this function is onto:
First we see that $f$ does not change the argument of a given complex number, i.e. $arg(z) =arg(f(z))$.
Therefore if $f$ is an onto function from $(-1,1)$ to $mathbbR$ (seen as subsets of $mathbbC$), then $f$ is onto in $mathbbC$.



$f$ restircted to $(-1,1)$ is $f(x)=fracxx$. Now let $yinmathbbR$, then
beginalign
fleft(fracyyright)&=fracfracyy1-left\
&=fracfracyyfracyy\
&=y
endalign






share|cite|improve this answer














Yes, such a function exists:
e.g. $f(x+iy) = fracx+iy1-sqrtx^2+y^2$



Your argument is invalid for two reasons: You probably ment to ask about holomorph functions (otherwise there is no problem with having the entire complex plain as domain and be bounded).



Second: The function might not have an inverse, therefore you can't easily talk about the inverse.



Edit:
Proof that this function is onto:
First we see that $f$ does not change the argument of a given complex number, i.e. $arg(z) =arg(f(z))$.
Therefore if $f$ is an onto function from $(-1,1)$ to $mathbbR$ (seen as subsets of $mathbbC$), then $f$ is onto in $mathbbC$.



$f$ restircted to $(-1,1)$ is $f(x)=fracxx$. Now let $yinmathbbR$, then
beginalign
fleft(fracyyright)&=fracfracyy1-left\
&=fracfracyyfracyy\
&=y
endalign







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 30 at 6:05

























answered Aug 30 at 5:13









Jürg Merlin Spaak

1,028114




1,028114











  • I'm not clear on your example: it appears to be a function from $Bbb R^2$ (or $Bbb C$) to $Bbb R$ and therefore not onto $Bbb C$. Did you mean $$f(x+iy)=fracx+iy1-sqrtx^2+y^2 ?$$
    – David
    Aug 30 at 5:23











  • How to say you this is onto @jurg murlin spaak.??
    – Golam Biswas
    Aug 30 at 5:38
















  • I'm not clear on your example: it appears to be a function from $Bbb R^2$ (or $Bbb C$) to $Bbb R$ and therefore not onto $Bbb C$. Did you mean $$f(x+iy)=fracx+iy1-sqrtx^2+y^2 ?$$
    – David
    Aug 30 at 5:23











  • How to say you this is onto @jurg murlin spaak.??
    – Golam Biswas
    Aug 30 at 5:38















I'm not clear on your example: it appears to be a function from $Bbb R^2$ (or $Bbb C$) to $Bbb R$ and therefore not onto $Bbb C$. Did you mean $$f(x+iy)=fracx+iy1-sqrtx^2+y^2 ?$$
– David
Aug 30 at 5:23





I'm not clear on your example: it appears to be a function from $Bbb R^2$ (or $Bbb C$) to $Bbb R$ and therefore not onto $Bbb C$. Did you mean $$f(x+iy)=fracx+iy1-sqrtx^2+y^2 ?$$
– David
Aug 30 at 5:23













How to say you this is onto @jurg murlin spaak.??
– Golam Biswas
Aug 30 at 5:38




How to say you this is onto @jurg murlin spaak.??
– Golam Biswas
Aug 30 at 5:38










up vote
1
down vote













Open unit disk in any normed linear space is homeomorphic to the whole space. An explicit heomeomorphism if $ xto frac x x$. Its inverse is $ xto frac x 1+$. Proof: let $y$ be arbitrary and let us try to solve the equation $frac x x=y$. Take norm on both sides to get $frac x x=|y|$. This gives $|x|=|y|-|x||y|$ so $|x|=frac y$. Hence $x=(1-|x|)y=(1-frac y)y=frac 1 yy$. Clearly, this $x$ is in the open unit disk. This proves that that map is onto. For a given $y$, $x$ is unique so the map is also one-to-one. For the complex plane simply take $|z|$ for the norm.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • +1.. Special thanks to @kavi rama mirth.
    – Golam Biswas
    Aug 30 at 7:38














up vote
1
down vote













Open unit disk in any normed linear space is homeomorphic to the whole space. An explicit heomeomorphism if $ xto frac x x$. Its inverse is $ xto frac x 1+$. Proof: let $y$ be arbitrary and let us try to solve the equation $frac x x=y$. Take norm on both sides to get $frac x x=|y|$. This gives $|x|=|y|-|x||y|$ so $|x|=frac y$. Hence $x=(1-|x|)y=(1-frac y)y=frac 1 yy$. Clearly, this $x$ is in the open unit disk. This proves that that map is onto. For a given $y$, $x$ is unique so the map is also one-to-one. For the complex plane simply take $|z|$ for the norm.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • +1.. Special thanks to @kavi rama mirth.
    – Golam Biswas
    Aug 30 at 7:38












up vote
1
down vote










up vote
1
down vote









Open unit disk in any normed linear space is homeomorphic to the whole space. An explicit heomeomorphism if $ xto frac x x$. Its inverse is $ xto frac x 1+$. Proof: let $y$ be arbitrary and let us try to solve the equation $frac x x=y$. Take norm on both sides to get $frac x x=|y|$. This gives $|x|=|y|-|x||y|$ so $|x|=frac y$. Hence $x=(1-|x|)y=(1-frac y)y=frac 1 yy$. Clearly, this $x$ is in the open unit disk. This proves that that map is onto. For a given $y$, $x$ is unique so the map is also one-to-one. For the complex plane simply take $|z|$ for the norm.






share|cite|improve this answer














Open unit disk in any normed linear space is homeomorphic to the whole space. An explicit heomeomorphism if $ xto frac x x$. Its inverse is $ xto frac x 1+$. Proof: let $y$ be arbitrary and let us try to solve the equation $frac x x=y$. Take norm on both sides to get $frac x x=|y|$. This gives $|x|=|y|-|x||y|$ so $|x|=frac y$. Hence $x=(1-|x|)y=(1-frac y)y=frac 1 yy$. Clearly, this $x$ is in the open unit disk. This proves that that map is onto. For a given $y$, $x$ is unique so the map is also one-to-one. For the complex plane simply take $|z|$ for the norm.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 30 at 7:27

























answered Aug 30 at 5:54









Kavi Rama Murthy

25.3k31335




25.3k31335











  • +1.. Special thanks to @kavi rama mirth.
    – Golam Biswas
    Aug 30 at 7:38
















  • +1.. Special thanks to @kavi rama mirth.
    – Golam Biswas
    Aug 30 at 7:38















+1.. Special thanks to @kavi rama mirth.
– Golam Biswas
Aug 30 at 7:38




+1.. Special thanks to @kavi rama mirth.
– Golam Biswas
Aug 30 at 7:38


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