Conclusions about derivability of a function $f(x)=xleft|logxright|$

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I want to study the derivability of this function



$$f(x)=xleft|logxright|$$



My textbook says the function is defined for $x>0$ (easy to understand for me, the argument of the logarithm must be positive) and it says: "it can certainly be derived for $xneq 1$". I wonder how my textbook reached this conclusion without deriving the function first. I'm aware derivatives are defined like this:



$$lim_hrightarrow0fracf(x_0+h)-f(x_0)h$$



Although I can't understand how we can reach conclusions about derivability just by looking at the function. Any hints?










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  • The fact that behaviour of $|x|$ changes at 0 so you would expect whether $|log(x)|$ also has a different behaviour when it attains it 0 that is at the point $x=1$.
    – Panchal Shamsundar
    Aug 30 at 8:28















up vote
3
down vote

favorite












I want to study the derivability of this function



$$f(x)=xleft|logxright|$$



My textbook says the function is defined for $x>0$ (easy to understand for me, the argument of the logarithm must be positive) and it says: "it can certainly be derived for $xneq 1$". I wonder how my textbook reached this conclusion without deriving the function first. I'm aware derivatives are defined like this:



$$lim_hrightarrow0fracf(x_0+h)-f(x_0)h$$



Although I can't understand how we can reach conclusions about derivability just by looking at the function. Any hints?










share|cite|improve this question





















  • The fact that behaviour of $|x|$ changes at 0 so you would expect whether $|log(x)|$ also has a different behaviour when it attains it 0 that is at the point $x=1$.
    – Panchal Shamsundar
    Aug 30 at 8:28













up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











I want to study the derivability of this function



$$f(x)=xleft|logxright|$$



My textbook says the function is defined for $x>0$ (easy to understand for me, the argument of the logarithm must be positive) and it says: "it can certainly be derived for $xneq 1$". I wonder how my textbook reached this conclusion without deriving the function first. I'm aware derivatives are defined like this:



$$lim_hrightarrow0fracf(x_0+h)-f(x_0)h$$



Although I can't understand how we can reach conclusions about derivability just by looking at the function. Any hints?










share|cite|improve this question













I want to study the derivability of this function



$$f(x)=xleft|logxright|$$



My textbook says the function is defined for $x>0$ (easy to understand for me, the argument of the logarithm must be positive) and it says: "it can certainly be derived for $xneq 1$". I wonder how my textbook reached this conclusion without deriving the function first. I'm aware derivatives are defined like this:



$$lim_hrightarrow0fracf(x_0+h)-f(x_0)h$$



Although I can't understand how we can reach conclusions about derivability just by looking at the function. Any hints?







derivatives






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asked Aug 30 at 7:32









Cesare

722410




722410











  • The fact that behaviour of $|x|$ changes at 0 so you would expect whether $|log(x)|$ also has a different behaviour when it attains it 0 that is at the point $x=1$.
    – Panchal Shamsundar
    Aug 30 at 8:28

















  • The fact that behaviour of $|x|$ changes at 0 so you would expect whether $|log(x)|$ also has a different behaviour when it attains it 0 that is at the point $x=1$.
    – Panchal Shamsundar
    Aug 30 at 8:28
















The fact that behaviour of $|x|$ changes at 0 so you would expect whether $|log(x)|$ also has a different behaviour when it attains it 0 that is at the point $x=1$.
– Panchal Shamsundar
Aug 30 at 8:28





The fact that behaviour of $|x|$ changes at 0 so you would expect whether $|log(x)|$ also has a different behaviour when it attains it 0 that is at the point $x=1$.
– Panchal Shamsundar
Aug 30 at 8:28











4 Answers
4






active

oldest

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up vote
3
down vote



accepted










For $x<1$ you have $f(x)=-xlog x$ and $f(x)=x log (x)$ for $x>1$. Now use the product rule.



For $x=1$ the derivative of function does not exist, because
$lim_xrightarrow 1^-f'(x)=-1$ and $lim_xrightarrow 1^+f'(x)=1.$






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • What happens to the derivative when $x=1$? I see we all are excluding $x=1$ for some reason but $xlog(x)$ when $x=1$ is equal to $0$. What's wrong with that?
    – Cesare
    Aug 30 at 7:45










  • @Cesare: See edit.
    – gammatester
    Aug 30 at 7:51

















up vote
1
down vote













For $x>1$ and $0<x<1$ we have that $xlog x$ and $-xlog x$ are differentiable indeed



$$(xlog x)’=log x+1$$



otherwise for $x= 1$ we need to check differentiability directly by the definition.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    For $x>1$ we have $f(x)=x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(1, infty)$.



    For $0<x<1$ we have $f(x)=-x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(0,1)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • Really? Have you looked at a plot?
      – gammatester
      Aug 30 at 7:51










    • OOps ! Yes you are right. $f$ is not differentiable at $1$.
      – Fred
      Aug 30 at 7:54

















    up vote
    1
    down vote













    One can vizualize:



    The graph of $log x$ cuts $x$-axis at 1. Multiplying by $x$ doesn't influence this fact. Absolute value puts the negative part above the $x$-axis, and the graph becomes broken.
    Therefore, the function is not smooth at 1 (not derivable).






    share|cite|improve this answer




















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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      For $x<1$ you have $f(x)=-xlog x$ and $f(x)=x log (x)$ for $x>1$. Now use the product rule.



      For $x=1$ the derivative of function does not exist, because
      $lim_xrightarrow 1^-f'(x)=-1$ and $lim_xrightarrow 1^+f'(x)=1.$






      share|cite|improve this answer






















      • What happens to the derivative when $x=1$? I see we all are excluding $x=1$ for some reason but $xlog(x)$ when $x=1$ is equal to $0$. What's wrong with that?
        – Cesare
        Aug 30 at 7:45










      • @Cesare: See edit.
        – gammatester
        Aug 30 at 7:51














      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      For $x<1$ you have $f(x)=-xlog x$ and $f(x)=x log (x)$ for $x>1$. Now use the product rule.



      For $x=1$ the derivative of function does not exist, because
      $lim_xrightarrow 1^-f'(x)=-1$ and $lim_xrightarrow 1^+f'(x)=1.$






      share|cite|improve this answer






















      • What happens to the derivative when $x=1$? I see we all are excluding $x=1$ for some reason but $xlog(x)$ when $x=1$ is equal to $0$. What's wrong with that?
        – Cesare
        Aug 30 at 7:45










      • @Cesare: See edit.
        – gammatester
        Aug 30 at 7:51












      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted






      For $x<1$ you have $f(x)=-xlog x$ and $f(x)=x log (x)$ for $x>1$. Now use the product rule.



      For $x=1$ the derivative of function does not exist, because
      $lim_xrightarrow 1^-f'(x)=-1$ and $lim_xrightarrow 1^+f'(x)=1.$






      share|cite|improve this answer














      For $x<1$ you have $f(x)=-xlog x$ and $f(x)=x log (x)$ for $x>1$. Now use the product rule.



      For $x=1$ the derivative of function does not exist, because
      $lim_xrightarrow 1^-f'(x)=-1$ and $lim_xrightarrow 1^+f'(x)=1.$







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Aug 30 at 7:51

























      answered Aug 30 at 7:37









      gammatester

      15.9k21529




      15.9k21529











      • What happens to the derivative when $x=1$? I see we all are excluding $x=1$ for some reason but $xlog(x)$ when $x=1$ is equal to $0$. What's wrong with that?
        – Cesare
        Aug 30 at 7:45










      • @Cesare: See edit.
        – gammatester
        Aug 30 at 7:51
















      • What happens to the derivative when $x=1$? I see we all are excluding $x=1$ for some reason but $xlog(x)$ when $x=1$ is equal to $0$. What's wrong with that?
        – Cesare
        Aug 30 at 7:45










      • @Cesare: See edit.
        – gammatester
        Aug 30 at 7:51















      What happens to the derivative when $x=1$? I see we all are excluding $x=1$ for some reason but $xlog(x)$ when $x=1$ is equal to $0$. What's wrong with that?
      – Cesare
      Aug 30 at 7:45




      What happens to the derivative when $x=1$? I see we all are excluding $x=1$ for some reason but $xlog(x)$ when $x=1$ is equal to $0$. What's wrong with that?
      – Cesare
      Aug 30 at 7:45












      @Cesare: See edit.
      – gammatester
      Aug 30 at 7:51




      @Cesare: See edit.
      – gammatester
      Aug 30 at 7:51










      up vote
      1
      down vote













      For $x>1$ and $0<x<1$ we have that $xlog x$ and $-xlog x$ are differentiable indeed



      $$(xlog x)’=log x+1$$



      otherwise for $x= 1$ we need to check differentiability directly by the definition.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        1
        down vote













        For $x>1$ and $0<x<1$ we have that $xlog x$ and $-xlog x$ are differentiable indeed



        $$(xlog x)’=log x+1$$



        otherwise for $x= 1$ we need to check differentiability directly by the definition.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          For $x>1$ and $0<x<1$ we have that $xlog x$ and $-xlog x$ are differentiable indeed



          $$(xlog x)’=log x+1$$



          otherwise for $x= 1$ we need to check differentiability directly by the definition.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          For $x>1$ and $0<x<1$ we have that $xlog x$ and $-xlog x$ are differentiable indeed



          $$(xlog x)’=log x+1$$



          otherwise for $x= 1$ we need to check differentiability directly by the definition.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Aug 30 at 7:40









          gimusi

          71.4k73786




          71.4k73786




















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              For $x>1$ we have $f(x)=x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(1, infty)$.



              For $0<x<1$ we have $f(x)=-x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(0,1)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















              • Really? Have you looked at a plot?
                – gammatester
                Aug 30 at 7:51










              • OOps ! Yes you are right. $f$ is not differentiable at $1$.
                – Fred
                Aug 30 at 7:54














              up vote
              1
              down vote













              For $x>1$ we have $f(x)=x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(1, infty)$.



              For $0<x<1$ we have $f(x)=-x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(0,1)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















              • Really? Have you looked at a plot?
                – gammatester
                Aug 30 at 7:51










              • OOps ! Yes you are right. $f$ is not differentiable at $1$.
                – Fred
                Aug 30 at 7:54












              up vote
              1
              down vote










              up vote
              1
              down vote









              For $x>1$ we have $f(x)=x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(1, infty)$.



              For $0<x<1$ we have $f(x)=-x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(0,1)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer














              For $x>1$ we have $f(x)=x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(1, infty)$.



              For $0<x<1$ we have $f(x)=-x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(0,1)$.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Aug 30 at 7:53

























              answered Aug 30 at 7:40









              Fred

              38.2k1238




              38.2k1238











              • Really? Have you looked at a plot?
                – gammatester
                Aug 30 at 7:51










              • OOps ! Yes you are right. $f$ is not differentiable at $1$.
                – Fred
                Aug 30 at 7:54
















              • Really? Have you looked at a plot?
                – gammatester
                Aug 30 at 7:51










              • OOps ! Yes you are right. $f$ is not differentiable at $1$.
                – Fred
                Aug 30 at 7:54















              Really? Have you looked at a plot?
              – gammatester
              Aug 30 at 7:51




              Really? Have you looked at a plot?
              – gammatester
              Aug 30 at 7:51












              OOps ! Yes you are right. $f$ is not differentiable at $1$.
              – Fred
              Aug 30 at 7:54




              OOps ! Yes you are right. $f$ is not differentiable at $1$.
              – Fred
              Aug 30 at 7:54










              up vote
              1
              down vote













              One can vizualize:



              The graph of $log x$ cuts $x$-axis at 1. Multiplying by $x$ doesn't influence this fact. Absolute value puts the negative part above the $x$-axis, and the graph becomes broken.
              Therefore, the function is not smooth at 1 (not derivable).






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                One can vizualize:



                The graph of $log x$ cuts $x$-axis at 1. Multiplying by $x$ doesn't influence this fact. Absolute value puts the negative part above the $x$-axis, and the graph becomes broken.
                Therefore, the function is not smooth at 1 (not derivable).






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  One can vizualize:



                  The graph of $log x$ cuts $x$-axis at 1. Multiplying by $x$ doesn't influence this fact. Absolute value puts the negative part above the $x$-axis, and the graph becomes broken.
                  Therefore, the function is not smooth at 1 (not derivable).






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  One can vizualize:



                  The graph of $log x$ cuts $x$-axis at 1. Multiplying by $x$ doesn't influence this fact. Absolute value puts the negative part above the $x$-axis, and the graph becomes broken.
                  Therefore, the function is not smooth at 1 (not derivable).







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Aug 30 at 8:09









                  Maam

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