Conclusions about derivability of a function $f(x)=xleft|logxright|$
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I want to study the derivability of this function
$$f(x)=xleft|logxright|$$
My textbook says the function is defined for $x>0$ (easy to understand for me, the argument of the logarithm must be positive) and it says: "it can certainly be derived for $xneq 1$". I wonder how my textbook reached this conclusion without deriving the function first. I'm aware derivatives are defined like this:
$$lim_hrightarrow0fracf(x_0+h)-f(x_0)h$$
Although I can't understand how we can reach conclusions about derivability just by looking at the function. Any hints?
derivatives
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
I want to study the derivability of this function
$$f(x)=xleft|logxright|$$
My textbook says the function is defined for $x>0$ (easy to understand for me, the argument of the logarithm must be positive) and it says: "it can certainly be derived for $xneq 1$". I wonder how my textbook reached this conclusion without deriving the function first. I'm aware derivatives are defined like this:
$$lim_hrightarrow0fracf(x_0+h)-f(x_0)h$$
Although I can't understand how we can reach conclusions about derivability just by looking at the function. Any hints?
derivatives
The fact that behaviour of $|x|$ changes at 0 so you would expect whether $|log(x)|$ also has a different behaviour when it attains it 0 that is at the point $x=1$.
â Panchal Shamsundar
Aug 30 at 8:28
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
I want to study the derivability of this function
$$f(x)=xleft|logxright|$$
My textbook says the function is defined for $x>0$ (easy to understand for me, the argument of the logarithm must be positive) and it says: "it can certainly be derived for $xneq 1$". I wonder how my textbook reached this conclusion without deriving the function first. I'm aware derivatives are defined like this:
$$lim_hrightarrow0fracf(x_0+h)-f(x_0)h$$
Although I can't understand how we can reach conclusions about derivability just by looking at the function. Any hints?
derivatives
I want to study the derivability of this function
$$f(x)=xleft|logxright|$$
My textbook says the function is defined for $x>0$ (easy to understand for me, the argument of the logarithm must be positive) and it says: "it can certainly be derived for $xneq 1$". I wonder how my textbook reached this conclusion without deriving the function first. I'm aware derivatives are defined like this:
$$lim_hrightarrow0fracf(x_0+h)-f(x_0)h$$
Although I can't understand how we can reach conclusions about derivability just by looking at the function. Any hints?
derivatives
derivatives
asked Aug 30 at 7:32
Cesare
722410
722410
The fact that behaviour of $|x|$ changes at 0 so you would expect whether $|log(x)|$ also has a different behaviour when it attains it 0 that is at the point $x=1$.
â Panchal Shamsundar
Aug 30 at 8:28
add a comment |Â
The fact that behaviour of $|x|$ changes at 0 so you would expect whether $|log(x)|$ also has a different behaviour when it attains it 0 that is at the point $x=1$.
â Panchal Shamsundar
Aug 30 at 8:28
The fact that behaviour of $|x|$ changes at 0 so you would expect whether $|log(x)|$ also has a different behaviour when it attains it 0 that is at the point $x=1$.
â Panchal Shamsundar
Aug 30 at 8:28
The fact that behaviour of $|x|$ changes at 0 so you would expect whether $|log(x)|$ also has a different behaviour when it attains it 0 that is at the point $x=1$.
â Panchal Shamsundar
Aug 30 at 8:28
add a comment |Â
4 Answers
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3
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For $x<1$ you have $f(x)=-xlog x$ and $f(x)=x log (x)$ for $x>1$. Now use the product rule.
For $x=1$ the derivative of function does not exist, because
$lim_xrightarrow 1^-f'(x)=-1$ and $lim_xrightarrow 1^+f'(x)=1.$
What happens to the derivative when $x=1$? I see we all are excluding $x=1$ for some reason but $xlog(x)$ when $x=1$ is equal to $0$. What's wrong with that?
â Cesare
Aug 30 at 7:45
@Cesare: See edit.
â gammatester
Aug 30 at 7:51
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
For $x>1$ and $0<x<1$ we have that $xlog x$ and $-xlog x$ are differentiable indeed
$$(xlog x)âÂÂ=log x+1$$
otherwise for $x= 1$ we need to check differentiability directly by the definition.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
For $x>1$ we have $f(x)=x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(1, infty)$.
For $0<x<1$ we have $f(x)=-x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(0,1)$.
Really? Have you looked at a plot?
â gammatester
Aug 30 at 7:51
OOps ! Yes you are right. $f$ is not differentiable at $1$.
â Fred
Aug 30 at 7:54
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
One can vizualize:
The graph of $log x$ cuts $x$-axis at 1. Multiplying by $x$ doesn't influence this fact. Absolute value puts the negative part above the $x$-axis, and the graph becomes broken.
Therefore, the function is not smooth at 1 (not derivable).
add a comment |Â
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
For $x<1$ you have $f(x)=-xlog x$ and $f(x)=x log (x)$ for $x>1$. Now use the product rule.
For $x=1$ the derivative of function does not exist, because
$lim_xrightarrow 1^-f'(x)=-1$ and $lim_xrightarrow 1^+f'(x)=1.$
What happens to the derivative when $x=1$? I see we all are excluding $x=1$ for some reason but $xlog(x)$ when $x=1$ is equal to $0$. What's wrong with that?
â Cesare
Aug 30 at 7:45
@Cesare: See edit.
â gammatester
Aug 30 at 7:51
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
For $x<1$ you have $f(x)=-xlog x$ and $f(x)=x log (x)$ for $x>1$. Now use the product rule.
For $x=1$ the derivative of function does not exist, because
$lim_xrightarrow 1^-f'(x)=-1$ and $lim_xrightarrow 1^+f'(x)=1.$
What happens to the derivative when $x=1$? I see we all are excluding $x=1$ for some reason but $xlog(x)$ when $x=1$ is equal to $0$. What's wrong with that?
â Cesare
Aug 30 at 7:45
@Cesare: See edit.
â gammatester
Aug 30 at 7:51
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
For $x<1$ you have $f(x)=-xlog x$ and $f(x)=x log (x)$ for $x>1$. Now use the product rule.
For $x=1$ the derivative of function does not exist, because
$lim_xrightarrow 1^-f'(x)=-1$ and $lim_xrightarrow 1^+f'(x)=1.$
For $x<1$ you have $f(x)=-xlog x$ and $f(x)=x log (x)$ for $x>1$. Now use the product rule.
For $x=1$ the derivative of function does not exist, because
$lim_xrightarrow 1^-f'(x)=-1$ and $lim_xrightarrow 1^+f'(x)=1.$
edited Aug 30 at 7:51
answered Aug 30 at 7:37
gammatester
15.9k21529
15.9k21529
What happens to the derivative when $x=1$? I see we all are excluding $x=1$ for some reason but $xlog(x)$ when $x=1$ is equal to $0$. What's wrong with that?
â Cesare
Aug 30 at 7:45
@Cesare: See edit.
â gammatester
Aug 30 at 7:51
add a comment |Â
What happens to the derivative when $x=1$? I see we all are excluding $x=1$ for some reason but $xlog(x)$ when $x=1$ is equal to $0$. What's wrong with that?
â Cesare
Aug 30 at 7:45
@Cesare: See edit.
â gammatester
Aug 30 at 7:51
What happens to the derivative when $x=1$? I see we all are excluding $x=1$ for some reason but $xlog(x)$ when $x=1$ is equal to $0$. What's wrong with that?
â Cesare
Aug 30 at 7:45
What happens to the derivative when $x=1$? I see we all are excluding $x=1$ for some reason but $xlog(x)$ when $x=1$ is equal to $0$. What's wrong with that?
â Cesare
Aug 30 at 7:45
@Cesare: See edit.
â gammatester
Aug 30 at 7:51
@Cesare: See edit.
â gammatester
Aug 30 at 7:51
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
For $x>1$ and $0<x<1$ we have that $xlog x$ and $-xlog x$ are differentiable indeed
$$(xlog x)âÂÂ=log x+1$$
otherwise for $x= 1$ we need to check differentiability directly by the definition.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
For $x>1$ and $0<x<1$ we have that $xlog x$ and $-xlog x$ are differentiable indeed
$$(xlog x)âÂÂ=log x+1$$
otherwise for $x= 1$ we need to check differentiability directly by the definition.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
For $x>1$ and $0<x<1$ we have that $xlog x$ and $-xlog x$ are differentiable indeed
$$(xlog x)âÂÂ=log x+1$$
otherwise for $x= 1$ we need to check differentiability directly by the definition.
For $x>1$ and $0<x<1$ we have that $xlog x$ and $-xlog x$ are differentiable indeed
$$(xlog x)âÂÂ=log x+1$$
otherwise for $x= 1$ we need to check differentiability directly by the definition.
answered Aug 30 at 7:40
gimusi
71.4k73786
71.4k73786
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
For $x>1$ we have $f(x)=x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(1, infty)$.
For $0<x<1$ we have $f(x)=-x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(0,1)$.
Really? Have you looked at a plot?
â gammatester
Aug 30 at 7:51
OOps ! Yes you are right. $f$ is not differentiable at $1$.
â Fred
Aug 30 at 7:54
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
For $x>1$ we have $f(x)=x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(1, infty)$.
For $0<x<1$ we have $f(x)=-x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(0,1)$.
Really? Have you looked at a plot?
â gammatester
Aug 30 at 7:51
OOps ! Yes you are right. $f$ is not differentiable at $1$.
â Fred
Aug 30 at 7:54
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
For $x>1$ we have $f(x)=x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(1, infty)$.
For $0<x<1$ we have $f(x)=-x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(0,1)$.
For $x>1$ we have $f(x)=x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(1, infty)$.
For $0<x<1$ we have $f(x)=-x log x$. Hence $f$ is a product of differentiable functions on $(0,1)$.
edited Aug 30 at 7:53
answered Aug 30 at 7:40
Fred
38.2k1238
38.2k1238
Really? Have you looked at a plot?
â gammatester
Aug 30 at 7:51
OOps ! Yes you are right. $f$ is not differentiable at $1$.
â Fred
Aug 30 at 7:54
add a comment |Â
Really? Have you looked at a plot?
â gammatester
Aug 30 at 7:51
OOps ! Yes you are right. $f$ is not differentiable at $1$.
â Fred
Aug 30 at 7:54
Really? Have you looked at a plot?
â gammatester
Aug 30 at 7:51
Really? Have you looked at a plot?
â gammatester
Aug 30 at 7:51
OOps ! Yes you are right. $f$ is not differentiable at $1$.
â Fred
Aug 30 at 7:54
OOps ! Yes you are right. $f$ is not differentiable at $1$.
â Fred
Aug 30 at 7:54
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
One can vizualize:
The graph of $log x$ cuts $x$-axis at 1. Multiplying by $x$ doesn't influence this fact. Absolute value puts the negative part above the $x$-axis, and the graph becomes broken.
Therefore, the function is not smooth at 1 (not derivable).
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
One can vizualize:
The graph of $log x$ cuts $x$-axis at 1. Multiplying by $x$ doesn't influence this fact. Absolute value puts the negative part above the $x$-axis, and the graph becomes broken.
Therefore, the function is not smooth at 1 (not derivable).
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
One can vizualize:
The graph of $log x$ cuts $x$-axis at 1. Multiplying by $x$ doesn't influence this fact. Absolute value puts the negative part above the $x$-axis, and the graph becomes broken.
Therefore, the function is not smooth at 1 (not derivable).
One can vizualize:
The graph of $log x$ cuts $x$-axis at 1. Multiplying by $x$ doesn't influence this fact. Absolute value puts the negative part above the $x$-axis, and the graph becomes broken.
Therefore, the function is not smooth at 1 (not derivable).
answered Aug 30 at 8:09
Maam
42219
42219
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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The fact that behaviour of $|x|$ changes at 0 so you would expect whether $|log(x)|$ also has a different behaviour when it attains it 0 that is at the point $x=1$.
â Panchal Shamsundar
Aug 30 at 8:28