When does a Taylor expansion have only nonnegative coefficients

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Maybe the question is obvious, but I don't know the answer
Let $p(x_1,...,x_r)$ be a polynomial with nonnegative coefficients and consider
$$
F_n(x) = sum_k=0^n(p(x))^k
$$
where $x = (x_1,...,x_r) in mathbbR^r$. Suppose $F_n$ converges uniformly to some function $f$. Now the coefficient of the taylor expansion of $F_n$ around $0$ are nonnegative. Can I conclude that the coefficients of the taylor epansion of $f$ around 0 are also nonnegative?
real-analysis sequences-and-series taylor-expansion
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up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Maybe the question is obvious, but I don't know the answer
Let $p(x_1,...,x_r)$ be a polynomial with nonnegative coefficients and consider
$$
F_n(x) = sum_k=0^n(p(x))^k
$$
where $x = (x_1,...,x_r) in mathbbR^r$. Suppose $F_n$ converges uniformly to some function $f$. Now the coefficient of the taylor expansion of $F_n$ around $0$ are nonnegative. Can I conclude that the coefficients of the taylor epansion of $f$ around 0 are also nonnegative?
real-analysis sequences-and-series taylor-expansion
1
What do you mean by "all coefficients of $f$ are nonnegative"?
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:28
I have edited my question. Sorry!
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:32
Well the exponential function is one example. So is fx = 1.
– Paul Childs
Sep 10 at 12:35
but is there a general result for rational functions?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:36
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Maybe the question is obvious, but I don't know the answer
Let $p(x_1,...,x_r)$ be a polynomial with nonnegative coefficients and consider
$$
F_n(x) = sum_k=0^n(p(x))^k
$$
where $x = (x_1,...,x_r) in mathbbR^r$. Suppose $F_n$ converges uniformly to some function $f$. Now the coefficient of the taylor expansion of $F_n$ around $0$ are nonnegative. Can I conclude that the coefficients of the taylor epansion of $f$ around 0 are also nonnegative?
real-analysis sequences-and-series taylor-expansion
Maybe the question is obvious, but I don't know the answer
Let $p(x_1,...,x_r)$ be a polynomial with nonnegative coefficients and consider
$$
F_n(x) = sum_k=0^n(p(x))^k
$$
where $x = (x_1,...,x_r) in mathbbR^r$. Suppose $F_n$ converges uniformly to some function $f$. Now the coefficient of the taylor expansion of $F_n$ around $0$ are nonnegative. Can I conclude that the coefficients of the taylor epansion of $f$ around 0 are also nonnegative?
real-analysis sequences-and-series taylor-expansion
real-analysis sequences-and-series taylor-expansion
edited Sep 10 at 13:30
asked Sep 10 at 12:27
love_math
1455
1455
1
What do you mean by "all coefficients of $f$ are nonnegative"?
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:28
I have edited my question. Sorry!
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:32
Well the exponential function is one example. So is fx = 1.
– Paul Childs
Sep 10 at 12:35
but is there a general result for rational functions?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:36
add a comment |Â
1
What do you mean by "all coefficients of $f$ are nonnegative"?
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:28
I have edited my question. Sorry!
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:32
Well the exponential function is one example. So is fx = 1.
– Paul Childs
Sep 10 at 12:35
but is there a general result for rational functions?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:36
1
1
What do you mean by "all coefficients of $f$ are nonnegative"?
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:28
What do you mean by "all coefficients of $f$ are nonnegative"?
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:28
I have edited my question. Sorry!
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:32
I have edited my question. Sorry!
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:32
Well the exponential function is one example. So is fx = 1.
– Paul Childs
Sep 10 at 12:35
Well the exponential function is one example. So is fx = 1.
– Paul Childs
Sep 10 at 12:35
but is there a general result for rational functions?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:36
but is there a general result for rational functions?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:36
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
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1
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EDIT: This was an answer to the question before it was edited.
No. Take for example $f : mathbbR to mathbbR$ defined by
$$ f(x) = frac11+x^2. $$
Then by the geometric series formula
$$ f(x) = frac11-(-x^2) = sum_k=0^infty (-1)^kx^2k, $$
whenever $|x| < 1$.
By the uniqueness of Taylor expansions, we know that this is the Taylor expansion of $f$ at $0$, but its coefficients are certainly not nonnegative.
The reason why I'm asking this question is that I read a paper and there is given a rational function $f : (-1,1)^r xrightarrow mathbbR$ which is the uniform limit of some functions $f_n$ on the same domain. Then it was stated that all the coefficients of the taylor expansion of $f$ around 0 are nonnegtive since the coefficients of $f$ are nonnegative
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:43
@love_math I would guess that some further restrictions are needed on $f$ to obtain such a result
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:46
can you mention some restrictions?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:49
@love_math I cannot come up with anything out of the blue. However, you could of course just require all derivatives of $f$ at $0$ to be nonnegative.
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:52
Say we have a polynomial $f(x_1,...,x_r) = sum_i_1,...,i_ra_i_1,...,i_rx_1^i_1...x_r^r$. Suppose all coefficients are not zero. What can I say now about the coefficient of the taylor expansion around $0$?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:57
 |Â
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1 Answer
1
active
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
EDIT: This was an answer to the question before it was edited.
No. Take for example $f : mathbbR to mathbbR$ defined by
$$ f(x) = frac11+x^2. $$
Then by the geometric series formula
$$ f(x) = frac11-(-x^2) = sum_k=0^infty (-1)^kx^2k, $$
whenever $|x| < 1$.
By the uniqueness of Taylor expansions, we know that this is the Taylor expansion of $f$ at $0$, but its coefficients are certainly not nonnegative.
The reason why I'm asking this question is that I read a paper and there is given a rational function $f : (-1,1)^r xrightarrow mathbbR$ which is the uniform limit of some functions $f_n$ on the same domain. Then it was stated that all the coefficients of the taylor expansion of $f$ around 0 are nonnegtive since the coefficients of $f$ are nonnegative
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:43
@love_math I would guess that some further restrictions are needed on $f$ to obtain such a result
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:46
can you mention some restrictions?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:49
@love_math I cannot come up with anything out of the blue. However, you could of course just require all derivatives of $f$ at $0$ to be nonnegative.
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:52
Say we have a polynomial $f(x_1,...,x_r) = sum_i_1,...,i_ra_i_1,...,i_rx_1^i_1...x_r^r$. Suppose all coefficients are not zero. What can I say now about the coefficient of the taylor expansion around $0$?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:57
 |Â
show 5 more comments
up vote
1
down vote
EDIT: This was an answer to the question before it was edited.
No. Take for example $f : mathbbR to mathbbR$ defined by
$$ f(x) = frac11+x^2. $$
Then by the geometric series formula
$$ f(x) = frac11-(-x^2) = sum_k=0^infty (-1)^kx^2k, $$
whenever $|x| < 1$.
By the uniqueness of Taylor expansions, we know that this is the Taylor expansion of $f$ at $0$, but its coefficients are certainly not nonnegative.
The reason why I'm asking this question is that I read a paper and there is given a rational function $f : (-1,1)^r xrightarrow mathbbR$ which is the uniform limit of some functions $f_n$ on the same domain. Then it was stated that all the coefficients of the taylor expansion of $f$ around 0 are nonnegtive since the coefficients of $f$ are nonnegative
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:43
@love_math I would guess that some further restrictions are needed on $f$ to obtain such a result
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:46
can you mention some restrictions?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:49
@love_math I cannot come up with anything out of the blue. However, you could of course just require all derivatives of $f$ at $0$ to be nonnegative.
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:52
Say we have a polynomial $f(x_1,...,x_r) = sum_i_1,...,i_ra_i_1,...,i_rx_1^i_1...x_r^r$. Suppose all coefficients are not zero. What can I say now about the coefficient of the taylor expansion around $0$?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:57
 |Â
show 5 more comments
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
EDIT: This was an answer to the question before it was edited.
No. Take for example $f : mathbbR to mathbbR$ defined by
$$ f(x) = frac11+x^2. $$
Then by the geometric series formula
$$ f(x) = frac11-(-x^2) = sum_k=0^infty (-1)^kx^2k, $$
whenever $|x| < 1$.
By the uniqueness of Taylor expansions, we know that this is the Taylor expansion of $f$ at $0$, but its coefficients are certainly not nonnegative.
EDIT: This was an answer to the question before it was edited.
No. Take for example $f : mathbbR to mathbbR$ defined by
$$ f(x) = frac11+x^2. $$
Then by the geometric series formula
$$ f(x) = frac11-(-x^2) = sum_k=0^infty (-1)^kx^2k, $$
whenever $|x| < 1$.
By the uniqueness of Taylor expansions, we know that this is the Taylor expansion of $f$ at $0$, but its coefficients are certainly not nonnegative.
edited Sep 10 at 13:31
answered Sep 10 at 12:36
Sobi
2,925517
2,925517
The reason why I'm asking this question is that I read a paper and there is given a rational function $f : (-1,1)^r xrightarrow mathbbR$ which is the uniform limit of some functions $f_n$ on the same domain. Then it was stated that all the coefficients of the taylor expansion of $f$ around 0 are nonnegtive since the coefficients of $f$ are nonnegative
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:43
@love_math I would guess that some further restrictions are needed on $f$ to obtain such a result
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:46
can you mention some restrictions?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:49
@love_math I cannot come up with anything out of the blue. However, you could of course just require all derivatives of $f$ at $0$ to be nonnegative.
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:52
Say we have a polynomial $f(x_1,...,x_r) = sum_i_1,...,i_ra_i_1,...,i_rx_1^i_1...x_r^r$. Suppose all coefficients are not zero. What can I say now about the coefficient of the taylor expansion around $0$?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:57
 |Â
show 5 more comments
The reason why I'm asking this question is that I read a paper and there is given a rational function $f : (-1,1)^r xrightarrow mathbbR$ which is the uniform limit of some functions $f_n$ on the same domain. Then it was stated that all the coefficients of the taylor expansion of $f$ around 0 are nonnegtive since the coefficients of $f$ are nonnegative
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:43
@love_math I would guess that some further restrictions are needed on $f$ to obtain such a result
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:46
can you mention some restrictions?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:49
@love_math I cannot come up with anything out of the blue. However, you could of course just require all derivatives of $f$ at $0$ to be nonnegative.
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:52
Say we have a polynomial $f(x_1,...,x_r) = sum_i_1,...,i_ra_i_1,...,i_rx_1^i_1...x_r^r$. Suppose all coefficients are not zero. What can I say now about the coefficient of the taylor expansion around $0$?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:57
The reason why I'm asking this question is that I read a paper and there is given a rational function $f : (-1,1)^r xrightarrow mathbbR$ which is the uniform limit of some functions $f_n$ on the same domain. Then it was stated that all the coefficients of the taylor expansion of $f$ around 0 are nonnegtive since the coefficients of $f$ are nonnegative
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:43
The reason why I'm asking this question is that I read a paper and there is given a rational function $f : (-1,1)^r xrightarrow mathbbR$ which is the uniform limit of some functions $f_n$ on the same domain. Then it was stated that all the coefficients of the taylor expansion of $f$ around 0 are nonnegtive since the coefficients of $f$ are nonnegative
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:43
@love_math I would guess that some further restrictions are needed on $f$ to obtain such a result
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:46
@love_math I would guess that some further restrictions are needed on $f$ to obtain such a result
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:46
can you mention some restrictions?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:49
can you mention some restrictions?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:49
@love_math I cannot come up with anything out of the blue. However, you could of course just require all derivatives of $f$ at $0$ to be nonnegative.
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:52
@love_math I cannot come up with anything out of the blue. However, you could of course just require all derivatives of $f$ at $0$ to be nonnegative.
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:52
Say we have a polynomial $f(x_1,...,x_r) = sum_i_1,...,i_ra_i_1,...,i_rx_1^i_1...x_r^r$. Suppose all coefficients are not zero. What can I say now about the coefficient of the taylor expansion around $0$?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:57
Say we have a polynomial $f(x_1,...,x_r) = sum_i_1,...,i_ra_i_1,...,i_rx_1^i_1...x_r^r$. Suppose all coefficients are not zero. What can I say now about the coefficient of the taylor expansion around $0$?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:57
 |Â
show 5 more comments
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1
What do you mean by "all coefficients of $f$ are nonnegative"?
– Sobi
Sep 10 at 12:28
I have edited my question. Sorry!
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:32
Well the exponential function is one example. So is fx = 1.
– Paul Childs
Sep 10 at 12:35
but is there a general result for rational functions?
– love_math
Sep 10 at 12:36