Show that limit cannot be $infty$

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Let function $f: mathbbR to mathbbR$ periodic with period $T>0$. I want to show, using the definition of the limit at infinity, that $f$ cannot have the limit $infty$ while $x to infty$.



The definition is the following:



$lim_xto +infty f(x)=L$ means that for each $epsilon>0$ we can find a $N$ such that if $x>N$ then $|f(x)-L|<epsilon$.



Let $epsilon>0$ and $N$ such that $x>N$.



Since $f$ is periodic, if $|f(x)-L|< epsilon$ then $|f(x+T)-L|< epsilon$.



Then we have that $L-epsilon<f(x)<L+epsilon$ and $L-epsilon<f(x+T)<L+epsilon$.



Is the above procedure right so far? How can we continue?










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  • The one thing wrong with your procedure is that you should not use the definition for $lim = L$, but rather the definition for $lim=infty$.
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Sep 10 at 8:19










  • You're trying to do a different exercise: “if $f$ is periodic with period $T>0$ and $lim_xtoinftyf(x)$ exists finite, then $f$ is constant”.
    – egreg
    Sep 10 at 8:28














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Let function $f: mathbbR to mathbbR$ periodic with period $T>0$. I want to show, using the definition of the limit at infinity, that $f$ cannot have the limit $infty$ while $x to infty$.



The definition is the following:



$lim_xto +infty f(x)=L$ means that for each $epsilon>0$ we can find a $N$ such that if $x>N$ then $|f(x)-L|<epsilon$.



Let $epsilon>0$ and $N$ such that $x>N$.



Since $f$ is periodic, if $|f(x)-L|< epsilon$ then $|f(x+T)-L|< epsilon$.



Then we have that $L-epsilon<f(x)<L+epsilon$ and $L-epsilon<f(x+T)<L+epsilon$.



Is the above procedure right so far? How can we continue?










share|cite|improve this question























  • The one thing wrong with your procedure is that you should not use the definition for $lim = L$, but rather the definition for $lim=infty$.
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Sep 10 at 8:19










  • You're trying to do a different exercise: “if $f$ is periodic with period $T>0$ and $lim_xtoinftyf(x)$ exists finite, then $f$ is constant”.
    – egreg
    Sep 10 at 8:28












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Let function $f: mathbbR to mathbbR$ periodic with period $T>0$. I want to show, using the definition of the limit at infinity, that $f$ cannot have the limit $infty$ while $x to infty$.



The definition is the following:



$lim_xto +infty f(x)=L$ means that for each $epsilon>0$ we can find a $N$ such that if $x>N$ then $|f(x)-L|<epsilon$.



Let $epsilon>0$ and $N$ such that $x>N$.



Since $f$ is periodic, if $|f(x)-L|< epsilon$ then $|f(x+T)-L|< epsilon$.



Then we have that $L-epsilon<f(x)<L+epsilon$ and $L-epsilon<f(x+T)<L+epsilon$.



Is the above procedure right so far? How can we continue?










share|cite|improve this question















Let function $f: mathbbR to mathbbR$ periodic with period $T>0$. I want to show, using the definition of the limit at infinity, that $f$ cannot have the limit $infty$ while $x to infty$.



The definition is the following:



$lim_xto +infty f(x)=L$ means that for each $epsilon>0$ we can find a $N$ such that if $x>N$ then $|f(x)-L|<epsilon$.



Let $epsilon>0$ and $N$ such that $x>N$.



Since $f$ is periodic, if $|f(x)-L|< epsilon$ then $|f(x+T)-L|< epsilon$.



Then we have that $L-epsilon<f(x)<L+epsilon$ and $L-epsilon<f(x+T)<L+epsilon$.



Is the above procedure right so far? How can we continue?







real-analysis limits proof-verification






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edited Sep 10 at 8:28









José Carlos Santos

124k17101186




124k17101186










asked Sep 10 at 8:12









Evinda

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  • The one thing wrong with your procedure is that you should not use the definition for $lim = L$, but rather the definition for $lim=infty$.
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Sep 10 at 8:19










  • You're trying to do a different exercise: “if $f$ is periodic with period $T>0$ and $lim_xtoinftyf(x)$ exists finite, then $f$ is constant”.
    – egreg
    Sep 10 at 8:28
















  • The one thing wrong with your procedure is that you should not use the definition for $lim = L$, but rather the definition for $lim=infty$.
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Sep 10 at 8:19










  • You're trying to do a different exercise: “if $f$ is periodic with period $T>0$ and $lim_xtoinftyf(x)$ exists finite, then $f$ is constant”.
    – egreg
    Sep 10 at 8:28















The one thing wrong with your procedure is that you should not use the definition for $lim = L$, but rather the definition for $lim=infty$.
– Hagen von Eitzen
Sep 10 at 8:19




The one thing wrong with your procedure is that you should not use the definition for $lim = L$, but rather the definition for $lim=infty$.
– Hagen von Eitzen
Sep 10 at 8:19












You're trying to do a different exercise: “if $f$ is periodic with period $T>0$ and $lim_xtoinftyf(x)$ exists finite, then $f$ is constant”.
– egreg
Sep 10 at 8:28




You're trying to do a different exercise: “if $f$ is periodic with period $T>0$ and $lim_xtoinftyf(x)$ exists finite, then $f$ is constant”.
– egreg
Sep 10 at 8:28










3 Answers
3






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up vote
2
down vote



accepted










No, it is not correct. You are aiming at proving that the limit of $f$ at $infty$, if it exists, is not $infty$. But then you start writing about the definition of $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=L$, where $L$ is a real number.



Suppose that $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=infty$. Then there is a $M>0$ such that $x>Mimpliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert>bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$. But that's impossible, because$$f(0)=f(T)=f(2T)=cdots$$and, if $Ninmathbb N$ is large enough, then $nT>M$ and therefore $bigllvert f(nT)bigrrvert$ should be greater than $bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    $f(nT)=f(0)$ for all positive integers $n$. If $f(x) to infty$ as $ x to infty$ then we get $f(0)=infty$ contradicting the fact that $f$ is real valued. Incidentally, you have written the definition of $f$ having a fin ite limit. For $f(x) to infty$ the definition is: given any positive number $A$ there exists $t$ such that $x >t$ implies $f(x) >A$. Show that this cannot happen by taking $A>f(0)$ and $x=nT$ with $n >frac t T$.






    share|cite|improve this answer





























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      You may reason as follows:



      As $f$ is not constant there is a $xi in [0, T)$ such that $f(xi) neq f(0)$.



      Now, set $x_n := nT$ and $xi_n = xi+nT$. So, you get
      $$lim_nrightarrow infty f(x_n) = f(0) mbox and lim_nrightarrow infty f(xi_n) = f(xi)$$



      Consequently, $lim_xrightarrow infty f(x)$ does not exist and in addition



      $$f(x) stackrelxrightarrow inftynot rightarrow infty,$$



      as $(f(x_n))_n in mathbbN$ and $(f(xi_n))_n in mathbbN$ are bounded.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes








        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes








        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted










        No, it is not correct. You are aiming at proving that the limit of $f$ at $infty$, if it exists, is not $infty$. But then you start writing about the definition of $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=L$, where $L$ is a real number.



        Suppose that $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=infty$. Then there is a $M>0$ such that $x>Mimpliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert>bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$. But that's impossible, because$$f(0)=f(T)=f(2T)=cdots$$and, if $Ninmathbb N$ is large enough, then $nT>M$ and therefore $bigllvert f(nT)bigrrvert$ should be greater than $bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$.






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          No, it is not correct. You are aiming at proving that the limit of $f$ at $infty$, if it exists, is not $infty$. But then you start writing about the definition of $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=L$, where $L$ is a real number.



          Suppose that $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=infty$. Then there is a $M>0$ such that $x>Mimpliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert>bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$. But that's impossible, because$$f(0)=f(T)=f(2T)=cdots$$and, if $Ninmathbb N$ is large enough, then $nT>M$ and therefore $bigllvert f(nT)bigrrvert$ should be greater than $bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted






            No, it is not correct. You are aiming at proving that the limit of $f$ at $infty$, if it exists, is not $infty$. But then you start writing about the definition of $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=L$, where $L$ is a real number.



            Suppose that $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=infty$. Then there is a $M>0$ such that $x>Mimpliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert>bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$. But that's impossible, because$$f(0)=f(T)=f(2T)=cdots$$and, if $Ninmathbb N$ is large enough, then $nT>M$ and therefore $bigllvert f(nT)bigrrvert$ should be greater than $bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            No, it is not correct. You are aiming at proving that the limit of $f$ at $infty$, if it exists, is not $infty$. But then you start writing about the definition of $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=L$, where $L$ is a real number.



            Suppose that $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=infty$. Then there is a $M>0$ such that $x>Mimpliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert>bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$. But that's impossible, because$$f(0)=f(T)=f(2T)=cdots$$and, if $Ninmathbb N$ is large enough, then $nT>M$ and therefore $bigllvert f(nT)bigrrvert$ should be greater than $bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Sep 10 at 8:21









            José Carlos Santos

            124k17101186




            124k17101186




















                up vote
                2
                down vote













                $f(nT)=f(0)$ for all positive integers $n$. If $f(x) to infty$ as $ x to infty$ then we get $f(0)=infty$ contradicting the fact that $f$ is real valued. Incidentally, you have written the definition of $f$ having a fin ite limit. For $f(x) to infty$ the definition is: given any positive number $A$ there exists $t$ such that $x >t$ implies $f(x) >A$. Show that this cannot happen by taking $A>f(0)$ and $x=nT$ with $n >frac t T$.






                share|cite|improve this answer


























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote













                  $f(nT)=f(0)$ for all positive integers $n$. If $f(x) to infty$ as $ x to infty$ then we get $f(0)=infty$ contradicting the fact that $f$ is real valued. Incidentally, you have written the definition of $f$ having a fin ite limit. For $f(x) to infty$ the definition is: given any positive number $A$ there exists $t$ such that $x >t$ implies $f(x) >A$. Show that this cannot happen by taking $A>f(0)$ and $x=nT$ with $n >frac t T$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote









                    $f(nT)=f(0)$ for all positive integers $n$. If $f(x) to infty$ as $ x to infty$ then we get $f(0)=infty$ contradicting the fact that $f$ is real valued. Incidentally, you have written the definition of $f$ having a fin ite limit. For $f(x) to infty$ the definition is: given any positive number $A$ there exists $t$ such that $x >t$ implies $f(x) >A$. Show that this cannot happen by taking $A>f(0)$ and $x=nT$ with $n >frac t T$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    $f(nT)=f(0)$ for all positive integers $n$. If $f(x) to infty$ as $ x to infty$ then we get $f(0)=infty$ contradicting the fact that $f$ is real valued. Incidentally, you have written the definition of $f$ having a fin ite limit. For $f(x) to infty$ the definition is: given any positive number $A$ there exists $t$ such that $x >t$ implies $f(x) >A$. Show that this cannot happen by taking $A>f(0)$ and $x=nT$ with $n >frac t T$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Sep 10 at 8:24

























                    answered Sep 10 at 8:19









                    Kavi Rama Murthy

                    27.1k31439




                    27.1k31439




















                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        You may reason as follows:



                        As $f$ is not constant there is a $xi in [0, T)$ such that $f(xi) neq f(0)$.



                        Now, set $x_n := nT$ and $xi_n = xi+nT$. So, you get
                        $$lim_nrightarrow infty f(x_n) = f(0) mbox and lim_nrightarrow infty f(xi_n) = f(xi)$$



                        Consequently, $lim_xrightarrow infty f(x)$ does not exist and in addition



                        $$f(x) stackrelxrightarrow inftynot rightarrow infty,$$



                        as $(f(x_n))_n in mathbbN$ and $(f(xi_n))_n in mathbbN$ are bounded.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote













                          You may reason as follows:



                          As $f$ is not constant there is a $xi in [0, T)$ such that $f(xi) neq f(0)$.



                          Now, set $x_n := nT$ and $xi_n = xi+nT$. So, you get
                          $$lim_nrightarrow infty f(x_n) = f(0) mbox and lim_nrightarrow infty f(xi_n) = f(xi)$$



                          Consequently, $lim_xrightarrow infty f(x)$ does not exist and in addition



                          $$f(x) stackrelxrightarrow inftynot rightarrow infty,$$



                          as $(f(x_n))_n in mathbbN$ and $(f(xi_n))_n in mathbbN$ are bounded.






                          share|cite|improve this answer






















                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote









                            You may reason as follows:



                            As $f$ is not constant there is a $xi in [0, T)$ such that $f(xi) neq f(0)$.



                            Now, set $x_n := nT$ and $xi_n = xi+nT$. So, you get
                            $$lim_nrightarrow infty f(x_n) = f(0) mbox and lim_nrightarrow infty f(xi_n) = f(xi)$$



                            Consequently, $lim_xrightarrow infty f(x)$ does not exist and in addition



                            $$f(x) stackrelxrightarrow inftynot rightarrow infty,$$



                            as $(f(x_n))_n in mathbbN$ and $(f(xi_n))_n in mathbbN$ are bounded.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            You may reason as follows:



                            As $f$ is not constant there is a $xi in [0, T)$ such that $f(xi) neq f(0)$.



                            Now, set $x_n := nT$ and $xi_n = xi+nT$. So, you get
                            $$lim_nrightarrow infty f(x_n) = f(0) mbox and lim_nrightarrow infty f(xi_n) = f(xi)$$



                            Consequently, $lim_xrightarrow infty f(x)$ does not exist and in addition



                            $$f(x) stackrelxrightarrow inftynot rightarrow infty,$$



                            as $(f(x_n))_n in mathbbN$ and $(f(xi_n))_n in mathbbN$ are bounded.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Sep 10 at 8:28









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