Show that limit cannot be $infty$

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Let function $f: mathbbR to mathbbR$ periodic with period $T>0$. I want to show, using the definition of the limit at infinity, that $f$ cannot have the limit $infty$ while $x to infty$.
The definition is the following:
$lim_xto +infty f(x)=L$ means that for each $epsilon>0$ we can find a $N$ such that if $x>N$ then $|f(x)-L|<epsilon$.
Let $epsilon>0$ and $N$ such that $x>N$.
Since $f$ is periodic, if $|f(x)-L|< epsilon$ then $|f(x+T)-L|< epsilon$.
Then we have that $L-epsilon<f(x)<L+epsilon$ and $L-epsilon<f(x+T)<L+epsilon$.
Is the above procedure right so far? How can we continue?
real-analysis limits proof-verification
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up vote
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Let function $f: mathbbR to mathbbR$ periodic with period $T>0$. I want to show, using the definition of the limit at infinity, that $f$ cannot have the limit $infty$ while $x to infty$.
The definition is the following:
$lim_xto +infty f(x)=L$ means that for each $epsilon>0$ we can find a $N$ such that if $x>N$ then $|f(x)-L|<epsilon$.
Let $epsilon>0$ and $N$ such that $x>N$.
Since $f$ is periodic, if $|f(x)-L|< epsilon$ then $|f(x+T)-L|< epsilon$.
Then we have that $L-epsilon<f(x)<L+epsilon$ and $L-epsilon<f(x+T)<L+epsilon$.
Is the above procedure right so far? How can we continue?
real-analysis limits proof-verification
The one thing wrong with your procedure is that you should not use the definition for $lim = L$, but rather the definition for $lim=infty$.
– Hagen von Eitzen
Sep 10 at 8:19
You're trying to do a different exercise: “if $f$ is periodic with period $T>0$ and $lim_xtoinftyf(x)$ exists finite, then $f$ is constantâ€Â.
– egreg
Sep 10 at 8:28
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let function $f: mathbbR to mathbbR$ periodic with period $T>0$. I want to show, using the definition of the limit at infinity, that $f$ cannot have the limit $infty$ while $x to infty$.
The definition is the following:
$lim_xto +infty f(x)=L$ means that for each $epsilon>0$ we can find a $N$ such that if $x>N$ then $|f(x)-L|<epsilon$.
Let $epsilon>0$ and $N$ such that $x>N$.
Since $f$ is periodic, if $|f(x)-L|< epsilon$ then $|f(x+T)-L|< epsilon$.
Then we have that $L-epsilon<f(x)<L+epsilon$ and $L-epsilon<f(x+T)<L+epsilon$.
Is the above procedure right so far? How can we continue?
real-analysis limits proof-verification
Let function $f: mathbbR to mathbbR$ periodic with period $T>0$. I want to show, using the definition of the limit at infinity, that $f$ cannot have the limit $infty$ while $x to infty$.
The definition is the following:
$lim_xto +infty f(x)=L$ means that for each $epsilon>0$ we can find a $N$ such that if $x>N$ then $|f(x)-L|<epsilon$.
Let $epsilon>0$ and $N$ such that $x>N$.
Since $f$ is periodic, if $|f(x)-L|< epsilon$ then $|f(x+T)-L|< epsilon$.
Then we have that $L-epsilon<f(x)<L+epsilon$ and $L-epsilon<f(x+T)<L+epsilon$.
Is the above procedure right so far? How can we continue?
real-analysis limits proof-verification
real-analysis limits proof-verification
edited Sep 10 at 8:28


José Carlos Santos
124k17101186
124k17101186
asked Sep 10 at 8:12
Evinda
552412
552412
The one thing wrong with your procedure is that you should not use the definition for $lim = L$, but rather the definition for $lim=infty$.
– Hagen von Eitzen
Sep 10 at 8:19
You're trying to do a different exercise: “if $f$ is periodic with period $T>0$ and $lim_xtoinftyf(x)$ exists finite, then $f$ is constantâ€Â.
– egreg
Sep 10 at 8:28
add a comment |Â
The one thing wrong with your procedure is that you should not use the definition for $lim = L$, but rather the definition for $lim=infty$.
– Hagen von Eitzen
Sep 10 at 8:19
You're trying to do a different exercise: “if $f$ is periodic with period $T>0$ and $lim_xtoinftyf(x)$ exists finite, then $f$ is constantâ€Â.
– egreg
Sep 10 at 8:28
The one thing wrong with your procedure is that you should not use the definition for $lim = L$, but rather the definition for $lim=infty$.
– Hagen von Eitzen
Sep 10 at 8:19
The one thing wrong with your procedure is that you should not use the definition for $lim = L$, but rather the definition for $lim=infty$.
– Hagen von Eitzen
Sep 10 at 8:19
You're trying to do a different exercise: “if $f$ is periodic with period $T>0$ and $lim_xtoinftyf(x)$ exists finite, then $f$ is constantâ€Â.
– egreg
Sep 10 at 8:28
You're trying to do a different exercise: “if $f$ is periodic with period $T>0$ and $lim_xtoinftyf(x)$ exists finite, then $f$ is constantâ€Â.
– egreg
Sep 10 at 8:28
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
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No, it is not correct. You are aiming at proving that the limit of $f$ at $infty$, if it exists, is not $infty$. But then you start writing about the definition of $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=L$, where $L$ is a real number.
Suppose that $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=infty$. Then there is a $M>0$ such that $x>Mimpliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert>bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$. But that's impossible, because$$f(0)=f(T)=f(2T)=cdots$$and, if $Ninmathbb N$ is large enough, then $nT>M$ and therefore $bigllvert f(nT)bigrrvert$ should be greater than $bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
$f(nT)=f(0)$ for all positive integers $n$. If $f(x) to infty$ as $ x to infty$ then we get $f(0)=infty$ contradicting the fact that $f$ is real valued. Incidentally, you have written the definition of $f$ having a fin ite limit. For $f(x) to infty$ the definition is: given any positive number $A$ there exists $t$ such that $x >t$ implies $f(x) >A$. Show that this cannot happen by taking $A>f(0)$ and $x=nT$ with $n >frac t T$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
You may reason as follows:
As $f$ is not constant there is a $xi in [0, T)$ such that $f(xi) neq f(0)$.
Now, set $x_n := nT$ and $xi_n = xi+nT$. So, you get
$$lim_nrightarrow infty f(x_n) = f(0) mbox and lim_nrightarrow infty f(xi_n) = f(xi)$$
Consequently, $lim_xrightarrow infty f(x)$ does not exist and in addition
$$f(x) stackrelxrightarrow inftynot rightarrow infty,$$
as $(f(x_n))_n in mathbbN$ and $(f(xi_n))_n in mathbbN$ are bounded.
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
No, it is not correct. You are aiming at proving that the limit of $f$ at $infty$, if it exists, is not $infty$. But then you start writing about the definition of $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=L$, where $L$ is a real number.
Suppose that $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=infty$. Then there is a $M>0$ such that $x>Mimpliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert>bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$. But that's impossible, because$$f(0)=f(T)=f(2T)=cdots$$and, if $Ninmathbb N$ is large enough, then $nT>M$ and therefore $bigllvert f(nT)bigrrvert$ should be greater than $bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
No, it is not correct. You are aiming at proving that the limit of $f$ at $infty$, if it exists, is not $infty$. But then you start writing about the definition of $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=L$, where $L$ is a real number.
Suppose that $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=infty$. Then there is a $M>0$ such that $x>Mimpliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert>bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$. But that's impossible, because$$f(0)=f(T)=f(2T)=cdots$$and, if $Ninmathbb N$ is large enough, then $nT>M$ and therefore $bigllvert f(nT)bigrrvert$ should be greater than $bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
No, it is not correct. You are aiming at proving that the limit of $f$ at $infty$, if it exists, is not $infty$. But then you start writing about the definition of $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=L$, where $L$ is a real number.
Suppose that $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=infty$. Then there is a $M>0$ such that $x>Mimpliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert>bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$. But that's impossible, because$$f(0)=f(T)=f(2T)=cdots$$and, if $Ninmathbb N$ is large enough, then $nT>M$ and therefore $bigllvert f(nT)bigrrvert$ should be greater than $bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$.
No, it is not correct. You are aiming at proving that the limit of $f$ at $infty$, if it exists, is not $infty$. But then you start writing about the definition of $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=L$, where $L$ is a real number.
Suppose that $lim_xtoinftyf(x)=infty$. Then there is a $M>0$ such that $x>Mimpliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert>bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$. But that's impossible, because$$f(0)=f(T)=f(2T)=cdots$$and, if $Ninmathbb N$ is large enough, then $nT>M$ and therefore $bigllvert f(nT)bigrrvert$ should be greater than $bigllvert f(0)bigrrvert$.
answered Sep 10 at 8:21


José Carlos Santos
124k17101186
124k17101186
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
$f(nT)=f(0)$ for all positive integers $n$. If $f(x) to infty$ as $ x to infty$ then we get $f(0)=infty$ contradicting the fact that $f$ is real valued. Incidentally, you have written the definition of $f$ having a fin ite limit. For $f(x) to infty$ the definition is: given any positive number $A$ there exists $t$ such that $x >t$ implies $f(x) >A$. Show that this cannot happen by taking $A>f(0)$ and $x=nT$ with $n >frac t T$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
$f(nT)=f(0)$ for all positive integers $n$. If $f(x) to infty$ as $ x to infty$ then we get $f(0)=infty$ contradicting the fact that $f$ is real valued. Incidentally, you have written the definition of $f$ having a fin ite limit. For $f(x) to infty$ the definition is: given any positive number $A$ there exists $t$ such that $x >t$ implies $f(x) >A$. Show that this cannot happen by taking $A>f(0)$ and $x=nT$ with $n >frac t T$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
$f(nT)=f(0)$ for all positive integers $n$. If $f(x) to infty$ as $ x to infty$ then we get $f(0)=infty$ contradicting the fact that $f$ is real valued. Incidentally, you have written the definition of $f$ having a fin ite limit. For $f(x) to infty$ the definition is: given any positive number $A$ there exists $t$ such that $x >t$ implies $f(x) >A$. Show that this cannot happen by taking $A>f(0)$ and $x=nT$ with $n >frac t T$.
$f(nT)=f(0)$ for all positive integers $n$. If $f(x) to infty$ as $ x to infty$ then we get $f(0)=infty$ contradicting the fact that $f$ is real valued. Incidentally, you have written the definition of $f$ having a fin ite limit. For $f(x) to infty$ the definition is: given any positive number $A$ there exists $t$ such that $x >t$ implies $f(x) >A$. Show that this cannot happen by taking $A>f(0)$ and $x=nT$ with $n >frac t T$.
edited Sep 10 at 8:24
answered Sep 10 at 8:19


Kavi Rama Murthy
27.1k31439
27.1k31439
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
You may reason as follows:
As $f$ is not constant there is a $xi in [0, T)$ such that $f(xi) neq f(0)$.
Now, set $x_n := nT$ and $xi_n = xi+nT$. So, you get
$$lim_nrightarrow infty f(x_n) = f(0) mbox and lim_nrightarrow infty f(xi_n) = f(xi)$$
Consequently, $lim_xrightarrow infty f(x)$ does not exist and in addition
$$f(x) stackrelxrightarrow inftynot rightarrow infty,$$
as $(f(x_n))_n in mathbbN$ and $(f(xi_n))_n in mathbbN$ are bounded.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
You may reason as follows:
As $f$ is not constant there is a $xi in [0, T)$ such that $f(xi) neq f(0)$.
Now, set $x_n := nT$ and $xi_n = xi+nT$. So, you get
$$lim_nrightarrow infty f(x_n) = f(0) mbox and lim_nrightarrow infty f(xi_n) = f(xi)$$
Consequently, $lim_xrightarrow infty f(x)$ does not exist and in addition
$$f(x) stackrelxrightarrow inftynot rightarrow infty,$$
as $(f(x_n))_n in mathbbN$ and $(f(xi_n))_n in mathbbN$ are bounded.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
You may reason as follows:
As $f$ is not constant there is a $xi in [0, T)$ such that $f(xi) neq f(0)$.
Now, set $x_n := nT$ and $xi_n = xi+nT$. So, you get
$$lim_nrightarrow infty f(x_n) = f(0) mbox and lim_nrightarrow infty f(xi_n) = f(xi)$$
Consequently, $lim_xrightarrow infty f(x)$ does not exist and in addition
$$f(x) stackrelxrightarrow inftynot rightarrow infty,$$
as $(f(x_n))_n in mathbbN$ and $(f(xi_n))_n in mathbbN$ are bounded.
You may reason as follows:
As $f$ is not constant there is a $xi in [0, T)$ such that $f(xi) neq f(0)$.
Now, set $x_n := nT$ and $xi_n = xi+nT$. So, you get
$$lim_nrightarrow infty f(x_n) = f(0) mbox and lim_nrightarrow infty f(xi_n) = f(xi)$$
Consequently, $lim_xrightarrow infty f(x)$ does not exist and in addition
$$f(x) stackrelxrightarrow inftynot rightarrow infty,$$
as $(f(x_n))_n in mathbbN$ and $(f(xi_n))_n in mathbbN$ are bounded.
answered Sep 10 at 8:28
trancelocation
5,9331516
5,9331516
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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The one thing wrong with your procedure is that you should not use the definition for $lim = L$, but rather the definition for $lim=infty$.
– Hagen von Eitzen
Sep 10 at 8:19
You're trying to do a different exercise: “if $f$ is periodic with period $T>0$ and $lim_xtoinftyf(x)$ exists finite, then $f$ is constantâ€Â.
– egreg
Sep 10 at 8:28