If $P(A) = frac13, P(B) = frac12$, and $P(A cup B) = frac34$ find…

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If $P(A) = frac13, P(B) = frac12$, and $P(A cup B) = frac34$ Find:



$P(A cap B),\
P(A^complement cup B^complement) \
P(A^complement cap B)$



Here is what I did:



$P(A cap B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A cup B) = frac112$



$P(A^complement cup B^complement) = P( [A cap B]^complement ) = 1 - frac112 = frac1112$ (Not sure if this is correct)



$P(A^complement cap B) = ...$ (I'm not quite sure how to approach this)










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  • This is really a problem in set theory - how can you rewrite $A^complement cap B$ in terms of $A$, $B$, $A cap B$ etc. As $A cup A^complement$ is the whole space, and the union is disjoint, you also have for every subset $B$: $B = (B cap A) cup (B cap A^complement)$ and the union is disjoint. This will lead you to Ahmad Bazzi's answer.
    – mathguy
    Sep 6 at 3:55











  • Try drawing a venn diagram with 2 circles, one for A and one for B.
    – DanielV
    Sep 6 at 4:01














up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1












If $P(A) = frac13, P(B) = frac12$, and $P(A cup B) = frac34$ Find:



$P(A cap B),\
P(A^complement cup B^complement) \
P(A^complement cap B)$



Here is what I did:



$P(A cap B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A cup B) = frac112$



$P(A^complement cup B^complement) = P( [A cap B]^complement ) = 1 - frac112 = frac1112$ (Not sure if this is correct)



$P(A^complement cap B) = ...$ (I'm not quite sure how to approach this)










share|cite|improve this question























  • This is really a problem in set theory - how can you rewrite $A^complement cap B$ in terms of $A$, $B$, $A cap B$ etc. As $A cup A^complement$ is the whole space, and the union is disjoint, you also have for every subset $B$: $B = (B cap A) cup (B cap A^complement)$ and the union is disjoint. This will lead you to Ahmad Bazzi's answer.
    – mathguy
    Sep 6 at 3:55











  • Try drawing a venn diagram with 2 circles, one for A and one for B.
    – DanielV
    Sep 6 at 4:01












up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1






1





If $P(A) = frac13, P(B) = frac12$, and $P(A cup B) = frac34$ Find:



$P(A cap B),\
P(A^complement cup B^complement) \
P(A^complement cap B)$



Here is what I did:



$P(A cap B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A cup B) = frac112$



$P(A^complement cup B^complement) = P( [A cap B]^complement ) = 1 - frac112 = frac1112$ (Not sure if this is correct)



$P(A^complement cap B) = ...$ (I'm not quite sure how to approach this)










share|cite|improve this question















If $P(A) = frac13, P(B) = frac12$, and $P(A cup B) = frac34$ Find:



$P(A cap B),\
P(A^complement cup B^complement) \
P(A^complement cap B)$



Here is what I did:



$P(A cap B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A cup B) = frac112$



$P(A^complement cup B^complement) = P( [A cap B]^complement ) = 1 - frac112 = frac1112$ (Not sure if this is correct)



$P(A^complement cap B) = ...$ (I'm not quite sure how to approach this)







probability elementary-set-theory






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edited Sep 6 at 4:14









spaceisdarkgreen

29.1k21549




29.1k21549










asked Sep 6 at 3:43









AznBoyStride

324




324











  • This is really a problem in set theory - how can you rewrite $A^complement cap B$ in terms of $A$, $B$, $A cap B$ etc. As $A cup A^complement$ is the whole space, and the union is disjoint, you also have for every subset $B$: $B = (B cap A) cup (B cap A^complement)$ and the union is disjoint. This will lead you to Ahmad Bazzi's answer.
    – mathguy
    Sep 6 at 3:55











  • Try drawing a venn diagram with 2 circles, one for A and one for B.
    – DanielV
    Sep 6 at 4:01
















  • This is really a problem in set theory - how can you rewrite $A^complement cap B$ in terms of $A$, $B$, $A cap B$ etc. As $A cup A^complement$ is the whole space, and the union is disjoint, you also have for every subset $B$: $B = (B cap A) cup (B cap A^complement)$ and the union is disjoint. This will lead you to Ahmad Bazzi's answer.
    – mathguy
    Sep 6 at 3:55











  • Try drawing a venn diagram with 2 circles, one for A and one for B.
    – DanielV
    Sep 6 at 4:01















This is really a problem in set theory - how can you rewrite $A^complement cap B$ in terms of $A$, $B$, $A cap B$ etc. As $A cup A^complement$ is the whole space, and the union is disjoint, you also have for every subset $B$: $B = (B cap A) cup (B cap A^complement)$ and the union is disjoint. This will lead you to Ahmad Bazzi's answer.
– mathguy
Sep 6 at 3:55





This is really a problem in set theory - how can you rewrite $A^complement cap B$ in terms of $A$, $B$, $A cap B$ etc. As $A cup A^complement$ is the whole space, and the union is disjoint, you also have for every subset $B$: $B = (B cap A) cup (B cap A^complement)$ and the union is disjoint. This will lead you to Ahmad Bazzi's answer.
– mathguy
Sep 6 at 3:55













Try drawing a venn diagram with 2 circles, one for A and one for B.
– DanielV
Sep 6 at 4:01




Try drawing a venn diagram with 2 circles, one for A and one for B.
– DanielV
Sep 6 at 4:01










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Ponder the following diagram, where $()$ denotes $A$ and $$ denotes $B$:



$$( *** [ * ) ***** ] ***$$



$A$ has four stars, out of twelve, i.e. $1/3$.



$B$ has six stars, out of twelve, i.e. $1/2$.



$Acup B$ has nine stars, out of twelve, i.e. $3/4$.



You now have the complete Venn diagram, and can answer all the questions directly. $Bcap A^c$ has five stars.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    3
    down vote













    All is correct. For the last one you'd need:



    $$P(A^complement cap B) = P(B) - P(A cap B) = frac12 - frac112 = frac512$$



    Image to help visualize stuff



    enter image description here






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • How did you arrive to $P(A^complement cap B)$ = $P(B) - P(A cap B)$. Is this a general rule? Or something that should be intuitive?
      – AznBoyStride
      Sep 6 at 3:55











    • @AznBoyStride Take a look at the image that i just added, can you see why ?
      – Ahmad Bazzi
      Sep 6 at 4:01










    • Yes makes perfect sense now!
      – AznBoyStride
      Sep 6 at 4:10






    • 1




      Its just a rearrangement of the Law of Total Probability. $mathsf P(B)=mathsf P(Acap B)+mathsf P(A^complementcap B)$
      – Graham Kemp
      Sep 6 at 4:11










    Your Answer




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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    Ponder the following diagram, where $()$ denotes $A$ and $$ denotes $B$:



    $$( *** [ * ) ***** ] ***$$



    $A$ has four stars, out of twelve, i.e. $1/3$.



    $B$ has six stars, out of twelve, i.e. $1/2$.



    $Acup B$ has nine stars, out of twelve, i.e. $3/4$.



    You now have the complete Venn diagram, and can answer all the questions directly. $Bcap A^c$ has five stars.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      Ponder the following diagram, where $()$ denotes $A$ and $$ denotes $B$:



      $$( *** [ * ) ***** ] ***$$



      $A$ has four stars, out of twelve, i.e. $1/3$.



      $B$ has six stars, out of twelve, i.e. $1/2$.



      $Acup B$ has nine stars, out of twelve, i.e. $3/4$.



      You now have the complete Venn diagram, and can answer all the questions directly. $Bcap A^c$ has five stars.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted






        Ponder the following diagram, where $()$ denotes $A$ and $$ denotes $B$:



        $$( *** [ * ) ***** ] ***$$



        $A$ has four stars, out of twelve, i.e. $1/3$.



        $B$ has six stars, out of twelve, i.e. $1/2$.



        $Acup B$ has nine stars, out of twelve, i.e. $3/4$.



        You now have the complete Venn diagram, and can answer all the questions directly. $Bcap A^c$ has five stars.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Ponder the following diagram, where $()$ denotes $A$ and $$ denotes $B$:



        $$( *** [ * ) ***** ] ***$$



        $A$ has four stars, out of twelve, i.e. $1/3$.



        $B$ has six stars, out of twelve, i.e. $1/2$.



        $Acup B$ has nine stars, out of twelve, i.e. $3/4$.



        You now have the complete Venn diagram, and can answer all the questions directly. $Bcap A^c$ has five stars.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Sep 6 at 3:50









        vadim123

        74.6k896186




        74.6k896186




















            up vote
            3
            down vote













            All is correct. For the last one you'd need:



            $$P(A^complement cap B) = P(B) - P(A cap B) = frac12 - frac112 = frac512$$



            Image to help visualize stuff



            enter image description here






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • How did you arrive to $P(A^complement cap B)$ = $P(B) - P(A cap B)$. Is this a general rule? Or something that should be intuitive?
              – AznBoyStride
              Sep 6 at 3:55











            • @AznBoyStride Take a look at the image that i just added, can you see why ?
              – Ahmad Bazzi
              Sep 6 at 4:01










            • Yes makes perfect sense now!
              – AznBoyStride
              Sep 6 at 4:10






            • 1




              Its just a rearrangement of the Law of Total Probability. $mathsf P(B)=mathsf P(Acap B)+mathsf P(A^complementcap B)$
              – Graham Kemp
              Sep 6 at 4:11














            up vote
            3
            down vote













            All is correct. For the last one you'd need:



            $$P(A^complement cap B) = P(B) - P(A cap B) = frac12 - frac112 = frac512$$



            Image to help visualize stuff



            enter image description here






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • How did you arrive to $P(A^complement cap B)$ = $P(B) - P(A cap B)$. Is this a general rule? Or something that should be intuitive?
              – AznBoyStride
              Sep 6 at 3:55











            • @AznBoyStride Take a look at the image that i just added, can you see why ?
              – Ahmad Bazzi
              Sep 6 at 4:01










            • Yes makes perfect sense now!
              – AznBoyStride
              Sep 6 at 4:10






            • 1




              Its just a rearrangement of the Law of Total Probability. $mathsf P(B)=mathsf P(Acap B)+mathsf P(A^complementcap B)$
              – Graham Kemp
              Sep 6 at 4:11












            up vote
            3
            down vote










            up vote
            3
            down vote









            All is correct. For the last one you'd need:



            $$P(A^complement cap B) = P(B) - P(A cap B) = frac12 - frac112 = frac512$$



            Image to help visualize stuff



            enter image description here






            share|cite|improve this answer














            All is correct. For the last one you'd need:



            $$P(A^complement cap B) = P(B) - P(A cap B) = frac12 - frac112 = frac512$$



            Image to help visualize stuff



            enter image description here







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Sep 6 at 4:01

























            answered Sep 6 at 3:49









            Ahmad Bazzi

            6,1991624




            6,1991624











            • How did you arrive to $P(A^complement cap B)$ = $P(B) - P(A cap B)$. Is this a general rule? Or something that should be intuitive?
              – AznBoyStride
              Sep 6 at 3:55











            • @AznBoyStride Take a look at the image that i just added, can you see why ?
              – Ahmad Bazzi
              Sep 6 at 4:01










            • Yes makes perfect sense now!
              – AznBoyStride
              Sep 6 at 4:10






            • 1




              Its just a rearrangement of the Law of Total Probability. $mathsf P(B)=mathsf P(Acap B)+mathsf P(A^complementcap B)$
              – Graham Kemp
              Sep 6 at 4:11
















            • How did you arrive to $P(A^complement cap B)$ = $P(B) - P(A cap B)$. Is this a general rule? Or something that should be intuitive?
              – AznBoyStride
              Sep 6 at 3:55











            • @AznBoyStride Take a look at the image that i just added, can you see why ?
              – Ahmad Bazzi
              Sep 6 at 4:01










            • Yes makes perfect sense now!
              – AznBoyStride
              Sep 6 at 4:10






            • 1




              Its just a rearrangement of the Law of Total Probability. $mathsf P(B)=mathsf P(Acap B)+mathsf P(A^complementcap B)$
              – Graham Kemp
              Sep 6 at 4:11















            How did you arrive to $P(A^complement cap B)$ = $P(B) - P(A cap B)$. Is this a general rule? Or something that should be intuitive?
            – AznBoyStride
            Sep 6 at 3:55





            How did you arrive to $P(A^complement cap B)$ = $P(B) - P(A cap B)$. Is this a general rule? Or something that should be intuitive?
            – AznBoyStride
            Sep 6 at 3:55













            @AznBoyStride Take a look at the image that i just added, can you see why ?
            – Ahmad Bazzi
            Sep 6 at 4:01




            @AznBoyStride Take a look at the image that i just added, can you see why ?
            – Ahmad Bazzi
            Sep 6 at 4:01












            Yes makes perfect sense now!
            – AznBoyStride
            Sep 6 at 4:10




            Yes makes perfect sense now!
            – AznBoyStride
            Sep 6 at 4:10




            1




            1




            Its just a rearrangement of the Law of Total Probability. $mathsf P(B)=mathsf P(Acap B)+mathsf P(A^complementcap B)$
            – Graham Kemp
            Sep 6 at 4:11




            Its just a rearrangement of the Law of Total Probability. $mathsf P(B)=mathsf P(Acap B)+mathsf P(A^complementcap B)$
            – Graham Kemp
            Sep 6 at 4:11

















             

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