Show that $mu(bigcaplimits_n=1^inftyF_n)=limmu(F_n)$ can fail if $mu(F_1) = +infty$ [closed]
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Show that lemma 3.4 (b) in The Elements of Integration by Bartle may fail if the finiteness condition $mu(F_1)<+infty$ is dropped.
Lemma 3.4(b): Let $mu$ be a measure defined on a $sigma$-algebra $X$. If $(F_n)$ is decreasing sequence in $X$ and if $mu(F_1)<+infty$, then
$$mu Bigg(bigcaplimits_n=1^inftyF_nBigg)=limmu(F_n)$$
measure-theory lebesgue-measure
closed as off-topic by Theoretical Economist, amWhy, Xander Henderson, Bungo, Jose Arnaldo Bebita Dris Sep 6 at 5:58
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Theoretical Economist, amWhy, Xander Henderson
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up vote
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Show that lemma 3.4 (b) in The Elements of Integration by Bartle may fail if the finiteness condition $mu(F_1)<+infty$ is dropped.
Lemma 3.4(b): Let $mu$ be a measure defined on a $sigma$-algebra $X$. If $(F_n)$ is decreasing sequence in $X$ and if $mu(F_1)<+infty$, then
$$mu Bigg(bigcaplimits_n=1^inftyF_nBigg)=limmu(F_n)$$
measure-theory lebesgue-measure
closed as off-topic by Theoretical Economist, amWhy, Xander Henderson, Bungo, Jose Arnaldo Bebita Dris Sep 6 at 5:58
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Theoretical Economist, amWhy, Xander Henderson
I think there should be an intersection there...
â Eduardo Longa
Sep 6 at 1:26
1
Hello Max, here in math exchange you should explain more what thoughts did you have until here and try to show what you have done yet.
â Robson
Sep 6 at 3:57
1
Possible duplicate of Example of decreasing sequence of sets with first set having infinite measure
â Bungo
Sep 6 at 5:55
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Show that lemma 3.4 (b) in The Elements of Integration by Bartle may fail if the finiteness condition $mu(F_1)<+infty$ is dropped.
Lemma 3.4(b): Let $mu$ be a measure defined on a $sigma$-algebra $X$. If $(F_n)$ is decreasing sequence in $X$ and if $mu(F_1)<+infty$, then
$$mu Bigg(bigcaplimits_n=1^inftyF_nBigg)=limmu(F_n)$$
measure-theory lebesgue-measure
Show that lemma 3.4 (b) in The Elements of Integration by Bartle may fail if the finiteness condition $mu(F_1)<+infty$ is dropped.
Lemma 3.4(b): Let $mu$ be a measure defined on a $sigma$-algebra $X$. If $(F_n)$ is decreasing sequence in $X$ and if $mu(F_1)<+infty$, then
$$mu Bigg(bigcaplimits_n=1^inftyF_nBigg)=limmu(F_n)$$
measure-theory lebesgue-measure
measure-theory lebesgue-measure
edited Sep 6 at 5:50
Xander Henderson
13.3k83250
13.3k83250
asked Sep 5 at 23:01
Max_Quecano
214
214
closed as off-topic by Theoretical Economist, amWhy, Xander Henderson, Bungo, Jose Arnaldo Bebita Dris Sep 6 at 5:58
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Theoretical Economist, amWhy, Xander Henderson
closed as off-topic by Theoretical Economist, amWhy, Xander Henderson, Bungo, Jose Arnaldo Bebita Dris Sep 6 at 5:58
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Theoretical Economist, amWhy, Xander Henderson
I think there should be an intersection there...
â Eduardo Longa
Sep 6 at 1:26
1
Hello Max, here in math exchange you should explain more what thoughts did you have until here and try to show what you have done yet.
â Robson
Sep 6 at 3:57
1
Possible duplicate of Example of decreasing sequence of sets with first set having infinite measure
â Bungo
Sep 6 at 5:55
add a comment |Â
I think there should be an intersection there...
â Eduardo Longa
Sep 6 at 1:26
1
Hello Max, here in math exchange you should explain more what thoughts did you have until here and try to show what you have done yet.
â Robson
Sep 6 at 3:57
1
Possible duplicate of Example of decreasing sequence of sets with first set having infinite measure
â Bungo
Sep 6 at 5:55
I think there should be an intersection there...
â Eduardo Longa
Sep 6 at 1:26
I think there should be an intersection there...
â Eduardo Longa
Sep 6 at 1:26
1
1
Hello Max, here in math exchange you should explain more what thoughts did you have until here and try to show what you have done yet.
â Robson
Sep 6 at 3:57
Hello Max, here in math exchange you should explain more what thoughts did you have until here and try to show what you have done yet.
â Robson
Sep 6 at 3:57
1
1
Possible duplicate of Example of decreasing sequence of sets with first set having infinite measure
â Bungo
Sep 6 at 5:55
Possible duplicate of Example of decreasing sequence of sets with first set having infinite measure
â Bungo
Sep 6 at 5:55
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
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You can see that in the proof of Lema 3.4(b) when he defines the sequence of sets $E_n=F_1 - F_n $ , you can't say that $mu (E_n) = mu (F_1) - mu (F_n)$ if $mu(F_1)$ is not finite.
This could get you in trouble because expression like $infty - infty$ aren't well defined in this context.
For a counter-example, you could use $X=mathbbR$ as the set; the power set $mathcalP(mathbbR)$ as the $sigma$-álgebra and the following measure:
$$mu (E)=begincases vert E vert mbox, if $E$ is finite\
+inftymbox, otherwise
endcases$$
Then use the sequence $F_n=(-frac1n,frac1n)$.
$mu(bigcaplimits _n=1^inftyF_n)=mu (0)=1 $, but $limmu(F_n)=+infty$.
1
Thank you sou much
â Max_Quecano
Sep 6 at 5:57
Not begging for upvote but if you are already satisfied with the answers here you can mark the answer as correct and upvote it if you want to...
â Robson
Sep 6 at 5:59
You're welcome! Hope you enjoy math stackexchange!
â Robson
Sep 6 at 5:59
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
As Robson said, please include your thoughts on the question. You'll get better responses if we know what you are thinking already.
However, I thought the question was interesting, so:
Hint: Can any of the sets have finite measure if the lemma is to fail?
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
You can see that in the proof of Lema 3.4(b) when he defines the sequence of sets $E_n=F_1 - F_n $ , you can't say that $mu (E_n) = mu (F_1) - mu (F_n)$ if $mu(F_1)$ is not finite.
This could get you in trouble because expression like $infty - infty$ aren't well defined in this context.
For a counter-example, you could use $X=mathbbR$ as the set; the power set $mathcalP(mathbbR)$ as the $sigma$-álgebra and the following measure:
$$mu (E)=begincases vert E vert mbox, if $E$ is finite\
+inftymbox, otherwise
endcases$$
Then use the sequence $F_n=(-frac1n,frac1n)$.
$mu(bigcaplimits _n=1^inftyF_n)=mu (0)=1 $, but $limmu(F_n)=+infty$.
1
Thank you sou much
â Max_Quecano
Sep 6 at 5:57
Not begging for upvote but if you are already satisfied with the answers here you can mark the answer as correct and upvote it if you want to...
â Robson
Sep 6 at 5:59
You're welcome! Hope you enjoy math stackexchange!
â Robson
Sep 6 at 5:59
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
You can see that in the proof of Lema 3.4(b) when he defines the sequence of sets $E_n=F_1 - F_n $ , you can't say that $mu (E_n) = mu (F_1) - mu (F_n)$ if $mu(F_1)$ is not finite.
This could get you in trouble because expression like $infty - infty$ aren't well defined in this context.
For a counter-example, you could use $X=mathbbR$ as the set; the power set $mathcalP(mathbbR)$ as the $sigma$-álgebra and the following measure:
$$mu (E)=begincases vert E vert mbox, if $E$ is finite\
+inftymbox, otherwise
endcases$$
Then use the sequence $F_n=(-frac1n,frac1n)$.
$mu(bigcaplimits _n=1^inftyF_n)=mu (0)=1 $, but $limmu(F_n)=+infty$.
1
Thank you sou much
â Max_Quecano
Sep 6 at 5:57
Not begging for upvote but if you are already satisfied with the answers here you can mark the answer as correct and upvote it if you want to...
â Robson
Sep 6 at 5:59
You're welcome! Hope you enjoy math stackexchange!
â Robson
Sep 6 at 5:59
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
You can see that in the proof of Lema 3.4(b) when he defines the sequence of sets $E_n=F_1 - F_n $ , you can't say that $mu (E_n) = mu (F_1) - mu (F_n)$ if $mu(F_1)$ is not finite.
This could get you in trouble because expression like $infty - infty$ aren't well defined in this context.
For a counter-example, you could use $X=mathbbR$ as the set; the power set $mathcalP(mathbbR)$ as the $sigma$-álgebra and the following measure:
$$mu (E)=begincases vert E vert mbox, if $E$ is finite\
+inftymbox, otherwise
endcases$$
Then use the sequence $F_n=(-frac1n,frac1n)$.
$mu(bigcaplimits _n=1^inftyF_n)=mu (0)=1 $, but $limmu(F_n)=+infty$.
You can see that in the proof of Lema 3.4(b) when he defines the sequence of sets $E_n=F_1 - F_n $ , you can't say that $mu (E_n) = mu (F_1) - mu (F_n)$ if $mu(F_1)$ is not finite.
This could get you in trouble because expression like $infty - infty$ aren't well defined in this context.
For a counter-example, you could use $X=mathbbR$ as the set; the power set $mathcalP(mathbbR)$ as the $sigma$-álgebra and the following measure:
$$mu (E)=begincases vert E vert mbox, if $E$ is finite\
+inftymbox, otherwise
endcases$$
Then use the sequence $F_n=(-frac1n,frac1n)$.
$mu(bigcaplimits _n=1^inftyF_n)=mu (0)=1 $, but $limmu(F_n)=+infty$.
edited Sep 6 at 4:45
answered Sep 6 at 4:30
Robson
47920
47920
1
Thank you sou much
â Max_Quecano
Sep 6 at 5:57
Not begging for upvote but if you are already satisfied with the answers here you can mark the answer as correct and upvote it if you want to...
â Robson
Sep 6 at 5:59
You're welcome! Hope you enjoy math stackexchange!
â Robson
Sep 6 at 5:59
add a comment |Â
1
Thank you sou much
â Max_Quecano
Sep 6 at 5:57
Not begging for upvote but if you are already satisfied with the answers here you can mark the answer as correct and upvote it if you want to...
â Robson
Sep 6 at 5:59
You're welcome! Hope you enjoy math stackexchange!
â Robson
Sep 6 at 5:59
1
1
Thank you sou much
â Max_Quecano
Sep 6 at 5:57
Thank you sou much
â Max_Quecano
Sep 6 at 5:57
Not begging for upvote but if you are already satisfied with the answers here you can mark the answer as correct and upvote it if you want to...
â Robson
Sep 6 at 5:59
Not begging for upvote but if you are already satisfied with the answers here you can mark the answer as correct and upvote it if you want to...
â Robson
Sep 6 at 5:59
You're welcome! Hope you enjoy math stackexchange!
â Robson
Sep 6 at 5:59
You're welcome! Hope you enjoy math stackexchange!
â Robson
Sep 6 at 5:59
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
As Robson said, please include your thoughts on the question. You'll get better responses if we know what you are thinking already.
However, I thought the question was interesting, so:
Hint: Can any of the sets have finite measure if the lemma is to fail?
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
As Robson said, please include your thoughts on the question. You'll get better responses if we know what you are thinking already.
However, I thought the question was interesting, so:
Hint: Can any of the sets have finite measure if the lemma is to fail?
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
As Robson said, please include your thoughts on the question. You'll get better responses if we know what you are thinking already.
However, I thought the question was interesting, so:
Hint: Can any of the sets have finite measure if the lemma is to fail?
As Robson said, please include your thoughts on the question. You'll get better responses if we know what you are thinking already.
However, I thought the question was interesting, so:
Hint: Can any of the sets have finite measure if the lemma is to fail?
answered Sep 6 at 4:02
jgon
8,57011536
8,57011536
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
I think there should be an intersection there...
â Eduardo Longa
Sep 6 at 1:26
1
Hello Max, here in math exchange you should explain more what thoughts did you have until here and try to show what you have done yet.
â Robson
Sep 6 at 3:57
1
Possible duplicate of Example of decreasing sequence of sets with first set having infinite measure
â Bungo
Sep 6 at 5:55