Show that the projection from $C[0,1]$ onto $P_n[0,1]$ under $L^q$ norm is nonlinear when $q>1$ and $qneq 2$.

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Let $C[0,1]$ denote the space of real valued continuous functions defined on $[0,1]$. Let $P_n[0,1]$ the space of real polynomials with degree not greater than $n$ defined on $[0,1]$. Let $q>1$ denote a finite real number. For any $fin C[0,1]$, one can show by compactness argument and uniform convexity of $L^q$ norm that there exists an unique $P(f)in P_n[0,1]$ such that
beginequation
||f-P(f)||_L^q(0,1)=inflimits_pin P_n[0,1]||f-p||_L^q(0,1).
endequation
In this fashion, we define a projection operator: $fin C[0,1]mapsto P(f)in P_n[0,1]$. How to show that $P(cdot)$ is nonlinear when $qneq 2$? Could anyone help me show this? I really don't know how to start it.










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  • Since $P$ will be homogeneous for all $q$, the problem must be additivity. Have you tried examples where $f+g$ is a polynomial but $f$ and $g$ aren't?
    – Christoph
    Sep 6 at 7:31










  • What do you mean by homogeneous and additivity? Can you provided more details?
    – Lin Xuelei
    Sep 6 at 7:51










  • $P$ is homogeneous: $P(lambda f) = lambda P(f)$ for $lambdainmathbb R$. $P$ is additive: $P(f+g) = P(f) + P(g)$.
    – Christoph
    Sep 6 at 8:27










  • yes, when $q=2$, then $P(cdot)$ is linear, which is the result of projection theorem in Hilbert space. The question is how to show $q=2$ using assumption that $P(cdot)$ is linear.
    – Lin Xuelei
    Sep 6 at 8:33














up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1












Let $C[0,1]$ denote the space of real valued continuous functions defined on $[0,1]$. Let $P_n[0,1]$ the space of real polynomials with degree not greater than $n$ defined on $[0,1]$. Let $q>1$ denote a finite real number. For any $fin C[0,1]$, one can show by compactness argument and uniform convexity of $L^q$ norm that there exists an unique $P(f)in P_n[0,1]$ such that
beginequation
||f-P(f)||_L^q(0,1)=inflimits_pin P_n[0,1]||f-p||_L^q(0,1).
endequation
In this fashion, we define a projection operator: $fin C[0,1]mapsto P(f)in P_n[0,1]$. How to show that $P(cdot)$ is nonlinear when $qneq 2$? Could anyone help me show this? I really don't know how to start it.










share|cite|improve this question























  • Since $P$ will be homogeneous for all $q$, the problem must be additivity. Have you tried examples where $f+g$ is a polynomial but $f$ and $g$ aren't?
    – Christoph
    Sep 6 at 7:31










  • What do you mean by homogeneous and additivity? Can you provided more details?
    – Lin Xuelei
    Sep 6 at 7:51










  • $P$ is homogeneous: $P(lambda f) = lambda P(f)$ for $lambdainmathbb R$. $P$ is additive: $P(f+g) = P(f) + P(g)$.
    – Christoph
    Sep 6 at 8:27










  • yes, when $q=2$, then $P(cdot)$ is linear, which is the result of projection theorem in Hilbert space. The question is how to show $q=2$ using assumption that $P(cdot)$ is linear.
    – Lin Xuelei
    Sep 6 at 8:33












up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1






1





Let $C[0,1]$ denote the space of real valued continuous functions defined on $[0,1]$. Let $P_n[0,1]$ the space of real polynomials with degree not greater than $n$ defined on $[0,1]$. Let $q>1$ denote a finite real number. For any $fin C[0,1]$, one can show by compactness argument and uniform convexity of $L^q$ norm that there exists an unique $P(f)in P_n[0,1]$ such that
beginequation
||f-P(f)||_L^q(0,1)=inflimits_pin P_n[0,1]||f-p||_L^q(0,1).
endequation
In this fashion, we define a projection operator: $fin C[0,1]mapsto P(f)in P_n[0,1]$. How to show that $P(cdot)$ is nonlinear when $qneq 2$? Could anyone help me show this? I really don't know how to start it.










share|cite|improve this question















Let $C[0,1]$ denote the space of real valued continuous functions defined on $[0,1]$. Let $P_n[0,1]$ the space of real polynomials with degree not greater than $n$ defined on $[0,1]$. Let $q>1$ denote a finite real number. For any $fin C[0,1]$, one can show by compactness argument and uniform convexity of $L^q$ norm that there exists an unique $P(f)in P_n[0,1]$ such that
beginequation
||f-P(f)||_L^q(0,1)=inflimits_pin P_n[0,1]||f-p||_L^q(0,1).
endequation
In this fashion, we define a projection operator: $fin C[0,1]mapsto P(f)in P_n[0,1]$. How to show that $P(cdot)$ is nonlinear when $qneq 2$? Could anyone help me show this? I really don't know how to start it.







functional-analysis polynomials continuity lp-spaces projection






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edited Sep 6 at 14:27

























asked Sep 6 at 7:22









Lin Xuelei

847




847











  • Since $P$ will be homogeneous for all $q$, the problem must be additivity. Have you tried examples where $f+g$ is a polynomial but $f$ and $g$ aren't?
    – Christoph
    Sep 6 at 7:31










  • What do you mean by homogeneous and additivity? Can you provided more details?
    – Lin Xuelei
    Sep 6 at 7:51










  • $P$ is homogeneous: $P(lambda f) = lambda P(f)$ for $lambdainmathbb R$. $P$ is additive: $P(f+g) = P(f) + P(g)$.
    – Christoph
    Sep 6 at 8:27










  • yes, when $q=2$, then $P(cdot)$ is linear, which is the result of projection theorem in Hilbert space. The question is how to show $q=2$ using assumption that $P(cdot)$ is linear.
    – Lin Xuelei
    Sep 6 at 8:33
















  • Since $P$ will be homogeneous for all $q$, the problem must be additivity. Have you tried examples where $f+g$ is a polynomial but $f$ and $g$ aren't?
    – Christoph
    Sep 6 at 7:31










  • What do you mean by homogeneous and additivity? Can you provided more details?
    – Lin Xuelei
    Sep 6 at 7:51










  • $P$ is homogeneous: $P(lambda f) = lambda P(f)$ for $lambdainmathbb R$. $P$ is additive: $P(f+g) = P(f) + P(g)$.
    – Christoph
    Sep 6 at 8:27










  • yes, when $q=2$, then $P(cdot)$ is linear, which is the result of projection theorem in Hilbert space. The question is how to show $q=2$ using assumption that $P(cdot)$ is linear.
    – Lin Xuelei
    Sep 6 at 8:33















Since $P$ will be homogeneous for all $q$, the problem must be additivity. Have you tried examples where $f+g$ is a polynomial but $f$ and $g$ aren't?
– Christoph
Sep 6 at 7:31




Since $P$ will be homogeneous for all $q$, the problem must be additivity. Have you tried examples where $f+g$ is a polynomial but $f$ and $g$ aren't?
– Christoph
Sep 6 at 7:31












What do you mean by homogeneous and additivity? Can you provided more details?
– Lin Xuelei
Sep 6 at 7:51




What do you mean by homogeneous and additivity? Can you provided more details?
– Lin Xuelei
Sep 6 at 7:51












$P$ is homogeneous: $P(lambda f) = lambda P(f)$ for $lambdainmathbb R$. $P$ is additive: $P(f+g) = P(f) + P(g)$.
– Christoph
Sep 6 at 8:27




$P$ is homogeneous: $P(lambda f) = lambda P(f)$ for $lambdainmathbb R$. $P$ is additive: $P(f+g) = P(f) + P(g)$.
– Christoph
Sep 6 at 8:27












yes, when $q=2$, then $P(cdot)$ is linear, which is the result of projection theorem in Hilbert space. The question is how to show $q=2$ using assumption that $P(cdot)$ is linear.
– Lin Xuelei
Sep 6 at 8:33




yes, when $q=2$, then $P(cdot)$ is linear, which is the result of projection theorem in Hilbert space. The question is how to show $q=2$ using assumption that $P(cdot)$ is linear.
– Lin Xuelei
Sep 6 at 8:33










1 Answer
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I am just giving a (possibly a trivial) perception here.
Let $q=m$ an even positive integer.
beginequation
||f-sum_j=0^n a_i x^i||_m^m = int_0^1 (f-sum_j=0^n a_i x^i)^m dx\
= sum_i_1,...,i_n,i_m+1 fracm!i_1!...i_n+1! (-1)^i_1+...+i_m a_1^i_1...a_n^i_n int_0^1 f^i_n+1x^sum_k=0^n ki_k dx
endequation



for $m=2$, if we differentiate the above equation w.r.t $a_i$ and set to $0$, then its a system of linear equations in $f,a_1,...,a_n$ and for $m >2$, if we differentiate above and set to $0$, its a set of non-linear equations in $f,a_1,...,a_n$.






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  • Yes, you provide a good idea to the proof. I think your answer can be regarded as a hint to the proof.
    – Lin Xuelei
    Sep 6 at 14:52










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1 Answer
1






active

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










I am just giving a (possibly a trivial) perception here.
Let $q=m$ an even positive integer.
beginequation
||f-sum_j=0^n a_i x^i||_m^m = int_0^1 (f-sum_j=0^n a_i x^i)^m dx\
= sum_i_1,...,i_n,i_m+1 fracm!i_1!...i_n+1! (-1)^i_1+...+i_m a_1^i_1...a_n^i_n int_0^1 f^i_n+1x^sum_k=0^n ki_k dx
endequation



for $m=2$, if we differentiate the above equation w.r.t $a_i$ and set to $0$, then its a system of linear equations in $f,a_1,...,a_n$ and for $m >2$, if we differentiate above and set to $0$, its a set of non-linear equations in $f,a_1,...,a_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Yes, you provide a good idea to the proof. I think your answer can be regarded as a hint to the proof.
    – Lin Xuelei
    Sep 6 at 14:52














up vote
1
down vote



accepted










I am just giving a (possibly a trivial) perception here.
Let $q=m$ an even positive integer.
beginequation
||f-sum_j=0^n a_i x^i||_m^m = int_0^1 (f-sum_j=0^n a_i x^i)^m dx\
= sum_i_1,...,i_n,i_m+1 fracm!i_1!...i_n+1! (-1)^i_1+...+i_m a_1^i_1...a_n^i_n int_0^1 f^i_n+1x^sum_k=0^n ki_k dx
endequation



for $m=2$, if we differentiate the above equation w.r.t $a_i$ and set to $0$, then its a system of linear equations in $f,a_1,...,a_n$ and for $m >2$, if we differentiate above and set to $0$, its a set of non-linear equations in $f,a_1,...,a_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Yes, you provide a good idea to the proof. I think your answer can be regarded as a hint to the proof.
    – Lin Xuelei
    Sep 6 at 14:52












up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






I am just giving a (possibly a trivial) perception here.
Let $q=m$ an even positive integer.
beginequation
||f-sum_j=0^n a_i x^i||_m^m = int_0^1 (f-sum_j=0^n a_i x^i)^m dx\
= sum_i_1,...,i_n,i_m+1 fracm!i_1!...i_n+1! (-1)^i_1+...+i_m a_1^i_1...a_n^i_n int_0^1 f^i_n+1x^sum_k=0^n ki_k dx
endequation



for $m=2$, if we differentiate the above equation w.r.t $a_i$ and set to $0$, then its a system of linear equations in $f,a_1,...,a_n$ and for $m >2$, if we differentiate above and set to $0$, its a set of non-linear equations in $f,a_1,...,a_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer














I am just giving a (possibly a trivial) perception here.
Let $q=m$ an even positive integer.
beginequation
||f-sum_j=0^n a_i x^i||_m^m = int_0^1 (f-sum_j=0^n a_i x^i)^m dx\
= sum_i_1,...,i_n,i_m+1 fracm!i_1!...i_n+1! (-1)^i_1+...+i_m a_1^i_1...a_n^i_n int_0^1 f^i_n+1x^sum_k=0^n ki_k dx
endequation



for $m=2$, if we differentiate the above equation w.r.t $a_i$ and set to $0$, then its a system of linear equations in $f,a_1,...,a_n$ and for $m >2$, if we differentiate above and set to $0$, its a set of non-linear equations in $f,a_1,...,a_n$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Sep 6 at 14:48

























answered Sep 6 at 13:58









Balaji sb

40325




40325











  • Yes, you provide a good idea to the proof. I think your answer can be regarded as a hint to the proof.
    – Lin Xuelei
    Sep 6 at 14:52
















  • Yes, you provide a good idea to the proof. I think your answer can be regarded as a hint to the proof.
    – Lin Xuelei
    Sep 6 at 14:52















Yes, you provide a good idea to the proof. I think your answer can be regarded as a hint to the proof.
– Lin Xuelei
Sep 6 at 14:52




Yes, you provide a good idea to the proof. I think your answer can be regarded as a hint to the proof.
– Lin Xuelei
Sep 6 at 14:52

















 

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