Show that a infinite dimensional vector space must have linearly independent vectors for every positive integer [closed]
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Show that V is infinite dimensional vector space if and only if there is a sequence $v_1,v_2,...$ of vectors in V such that $v_1,v_2,...,v_n$ is linearly independent for every positive integer n.
vector-spaces
closed as off-topic by Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati Aug 17 at 17:34
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
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Show that V is infinite dimensional vector space if and only if there is a sequence $v_1,v_2,...$ of vectors in V such that $v_1,v_2,...,v_n$ is linearly independent for every positive integer n.
vector-spaces
closed as off-topic by Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati Aug 17 at 17:34
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati
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What have you done on this? Where are you having difficulty? What are your thoughts?
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:08
What exactly is your definition of "infinite dimensional"?
â Arthur
Aug 17 at 5:10
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Show that V is infinite dimensional vector space if and only if there is a sequence $v_1,v_2,...$ of vectors in V such that $v_1,v_2,...,v_n$ is linearly independent for every positive integer n.
vector-spaces
Show that V is infinite dimensional vector space if and only if there is a sequence $v_1,v_2,...$ of vectors in V such that $v_1,v_2,...,v_n$ is linearly independent for every positive integer n.
vector-spaces
asked Aug 17 at 5:01
mathnewbie
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closed as off-topic by Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati Aug 17 at 17:34
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati
closed as off-topic by Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati Aug 17 at 17:34
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati
1
What have you done on this? Where are you having difficulty? What are your thoughts?
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:08
What exactly is your definition of "infinite dimensional"?
â Arthur
Aug 17 at 5:10
add a comment |Â
1
What have you done on this? Where are you having difficulty? What are your thoughts?
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:08
What exactly is your definition of "infinite dimensional"?
â Arthur
Aug 17 at 5:10
1
1
What have you done on this? Where are you having difficulty? What are your thoughts?
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:08
What have you done on this? Where are you having difficulty? What are your thoughts?
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:08
What exactly is your definition of "infinite dimensional"?
â Arthur
Aug 17 at 5:10
What exactly is your definition of "infinite dimensional"?
â Arthur
Aug 17 at 5:10
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
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Take an arbitrary $v_1ne 0.$ Now for $nin Bbb N$ suppose that $S(n)=v_j:jleq n$ is a set of $n$ linearly independent vectors. Since $V$ is not finite dimensional we can take some $v_n+1$ that does not belong to the linear span of $S(n),$ so $S(n+1)=v_n+1cup S(n)$ is a linearly independentset
Without the Axiom of Choice we obtain, by induction on $n$, that for each $nin Bbb N$ there exists a linearly independent set of $n$ vectors. We MUST have the Axiom of Choice (or at least a corollary of it called Dependent Choice) to justify th existence of an infinite sequence of "Takes" to get an infinite sequence $(v_n)_nin Bbb N$ with the desired property.
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Dimension of a vector space is defined as the number of elements in the basis, provided the basis has a finite number of elements. In such cases, the vector space is said to be finite dimensional.
Therefore, a vector space is said to be infinite dimensional if the basis of the vector space has infinitely many elements. Now, a basis should be linearly independent.
An infinite subset $S$ of a vector space $V$ is said to be linearly independent, iff every finite subset $A subset S$ is linearly independent in $V$. This gives directly that for every $n in mathbbN$, $leftlbrace v_1, v_2, cdots, v_n rightrbrace$ is linearly independent in $V$. Here, however, each $v_i$ must belong to the basis. Otherwise, the construction of the linearly independent set would be different.
I doubt that the OP has seen a proof that every vector space has a basis.
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:12
But then, how can one talk about "dimension" without talking about basis? Is there some other way?
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 17 at 5:14
Well, you can define "infinite-dimensional" in an elementary course to mean that the is no finite basis. Then you can construct a countable linearly independent set by induction.
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:16
@saulspatz: ... using the axiom of choice! I remark this because it would be a clue to the OP on how to proceed. I wonder if it's consistent with ZF that there is a infinite-dimensional vector space that doesn't have a countable linearly independent set?
â Hurkyl
Aug 17 at 5:23
@Hurkyl Right. I meant to say that for every $n$ there is a set of $n$ independent vectors. That doesn't use the axiom of choice, right?
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:26
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2 Answers
2
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
Take an arbitrary $v_1ne 0.$ Now for $nin Bbb N$ suppose that $S(n)=v_j:jleq n$ is a set of $n$ linearly independent vectors. Since $V$ is not finite dimensional we can take some $v_n+1$ that does not belong to the linear span of $S(n),$ so $S(n+1)=v_n+1cup S(n)$ is a linearly independentset
Without the Axiom of Choice we obtain, by induction on $n$, that for each $nin Bbb N$ there exists a linearly independent set of $n$ vectors. We MUST have the Axiom of Choice (or at least a corollary of it called Dependent Choice) to justify th existence of an infinite sequence of "Takes" to get an infinite sequence $(v_n)_nin Bbb N$ with the desired property.
add a comment |Â
up vote
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Take an arbitrary $v_1ne 0.$ Now for $nin Bbb N$ suppose that $S(n)=v_j:jleq n$ is a set of $n$ linearly independent vectors. Since $V$ is not finite dimensional we can take some $v_n+1$ that does not belong to the linear span of $S(n),$ so $S(n+1)=v_n+1cup S(n)$ is a linearly independentset
Without the Axiom of Choice we obtain, by induction on $n$, that for each $nin Bbb N$ there exists a linearly independent set of $n$ vectors. We MUST have the Axiom of Choice (or at least a corollary of it called Dependent Choice) to justify th existence of an infinite sequence of "Takes" to get an infinite sequence $(v_n)_nin Bbb N$ with the desired property.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
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up vote
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Take an arbitrary $v_1ne 0.$ Now for $nin Bbb N$ suppose that $S(n)=v_j:jleq n$ is a set of $n$ linearly independent vectors. Since $V$ is not finite dimensional we can take some $v_n+1$ that does not belong to the linear span of $S(n),$ so $S(n+1)=v_n+1cup S(n)$ is a linearly independentset
Without the Axiom of Choice we obtain, by induction on $n$, that for each $nin Bbb N$ there exists a linearly independent set of $n$ vectors. We MUST have the Axiom of Choice (or at least a corollary of it called Dependent Choice) to justify th existence of an infinite sequence of "Takes" to get an infinite sequence $(v_n)_nin Bbb N$ with the desired property.
Take an arbitrary $v_1ne 0.$ Now for $nin Bbb N$ suppose that $S(n)=v_j:jleq n$ is a set of $n$ linearly independent vectors. Since $V$ is not finite dimensional we can take some $v_n+1$ that does not belong to the linear span of $S(n),$ so $S(n+1)=v_n+1cup S(n)$ is a linearly independentset
Without the Axiom of Choice we obtain, by induction on $n$, that for each $nin Bbb N$ there exists a linearly independent set of $n$ vectors. We MUST have the Axiom of Choice (or at least a corollary of it called Dependent Choice) to justify th existence of an infinite sequence of "Takes" to get an infinite sequence $(v_n)_nin Bbb N$ with the desired property.
answered Aug 17 at 9:44
DanielWainfleet
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32k31644
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Dimension of a vector space is defined as the number of elements in the basis, provided the basis has a finite number of elements. In such cases, the vector space is said to be finite dimensional.
Therefore, a vector space is said to be infinite dimensional if the basis of the vector space has infinitely many elements. Now, a basis should be linearly independent.
An infinite subset $S$ of a vector space $V$ is said to be linearly independent, iff every finite subset $A subset S$ is linearly independent in $V$. This gives directly that for every $n in mathbbN$, $leftlbrace v_1, v_2, cdots, v_n rightrbrace$ is linearly independent in $V$. Here, however, each $v_i$ must belong to the basis. Otherwise, the construction of the linearly independent set would be different.
I doubt that the OP has seen a proof that every vector space has a basis.
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:12
But then, how can one talk about "dimension" without talking about basis? Is there some other way?
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 17 at 5:14
Well, you can define "infinite-dimensional" in an elementary course to mean that the is no finite basis. Then you can construct a countable linearly independent set by induction.
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:16
@saulspatz: ... using the axiom of choice! I remark this because it would be a clue to the OP on how to proceed. I wonder if it's consistent with ZF that there is a infinite-dimensional vector space that doesn't have a countable linearly independent set?
â Hurkyl
Aug 17 at 5:23
@Hurkyl Right. I meant to say that for every $n$ there is a set of $n$ independent vectors. That doesn't use the axiom of choice, right?
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:26
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
Dimension of a vector space is defined as the number of elements in the basis, provided the basis has a finite number of elements. In such cases, the vector space is said to be finite dimensional.
Therefore, a vector space is said to be infinite dimensional if the basis of the vector space has infinitely many elements. Now, a basis should be linearly independent.
An infinite subset $S$ of a vector space $V$ is said to be linearly independent, iff every finite subset $A subset S$ is linearly independent in $V$. This gives directly that for every $n in mathbbN$, $leftlbrace v_1, v_2, cdots, v_n rightrbrace$ is linearly independent in $V$. Here, however, each $v_i$ must belong to the basis. Otherwise, the construction of the linearly independent set would be different.
I doubt that the OP has seen a proof that every vector space has a basis.
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:12
But then, how can one talk about "dimension" without talking about basis? Is there some other way?
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 17 at 5:14
Well, you can define "infinite-dimensional" in an elementary course to mean that the is no finite basis. Then you can construct a countable linearly independent set by induction.
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:16
@saulspatz: ... using the axiom of choice! I remark this because it would be a clue to the OP on how to proceed. I wonder if it's consistent with ZF that there is a infinite-dimensional vector space that doesn't have a countable linearly independent set?
â Hurkyl
Aug 17 at 5:23
@Hurkyl Right. I meant to say that for every $n$ there is a set of $n$ independent vectors. That doesn't use the axiom of choice, right?
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:26
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Dimension of a vector space is defined as the number of elements in the basis, provided the basis has a finite number of elements. In such cases, the vector space is said to be finite dimensional.
Therefore, a vector space is said to be infinite dimensional if the basis of the vector space has infinitely many elements. Now, a basis should be linearly independent.
An infinite subset $S$ of a vector space $V$ is said to be linearly independent, iff every finite subset $A subset S$ is linearly independent in $V$. This gives directly that for every $n in mathbbN$, $leftlbrace v_1, v_2, cdots, v_n rightrbrace$ is linearly independent in $V$. Here, however, each $v_i$ must belong to the basis. Otherwise, the construction of the linearly independent set would be different.
Dimension of a vector space is defined as the number of elements in the basis, provided the basis has a finite number of elements. In such cases, the vector space is said to be finite dimensional.
Therefore, a vector space is said to be infinite dimensional if the basis of the vector space has infinitely many elements. Now, a basis should be linearly independent.
An infinite subset $S$ of a vector space $V$ is said to be linearly independent, iff every finite subset $A subset S$ is linearly independent in $V$. This gives directly that for every $n in mathbbN$, $leftlbrace v_1, v_2, cdots, v_n rightrbrace$ is linearly independent in $V$. Here, however, each $v_i$ must belong to the basis. Otherwise, the construction of the linearly independent set would be different.
answered Aug 17 at 5:08
Aniruddha Deshmukh
665417
665417
I doubt that the OP has seen a proof that every vector space has a basis.
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:12
But then, how can one talk about "dimension" without talking about basis? Is there some other way?
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 17 at 5:14
Well, you can define "infinite-dimensional" in an elementary course to mean that the is no finite basis. Then you can construct a countable linearly independent set by induction.
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:16
@saulspatz: ... using the axiom of choice! I remark this because it would be a clue to the OP on how to proceed. I wonder if it's consistent with ZF that there is a infinite-dimensional vector space that doesn't have a countable linearly independent set?
â Hurkyl
Aug 17 at 5:23
@Hurkyl Right. I meant to say that for every $n$ there is a set of $n$ independent vectors. That doesn't use the axiom of choice, right?
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:26
 |Â
show 1 more comment
I doubt that the OP has seen a proof that every vector space has a basis.
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:12
But then, how can one talk about "dimension" without talking about basis? Is there some other way?
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 17 at 5:14
Well, you can define "infinite-dimensional" in an elementary course to mean that the is no finite basis. Then you can construct a countable linearly independent set by induction.
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:16
@saulspatz: ... using the axiom of choice! I remark this because it would be a clue to the OP on how to proceed. I wonder if it's consistent with ZF that there is a infinite-dimensional vector space that doesn't have a countable linearly independent set?
â Hurkyl
Aug 17 at 5:23
@Hurkyl Right. I meant to say that for every $n$ there is a set of $n$ independent vectors. That doesn't use the axiom of choice, right?
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:26
I doubt that the OP has seen a proof that every vector space has a basis.
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:12
I doubt that the OP has seen a proof that every vector space has a basis.
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:12
But then, how can one talk about "dimension" without talking about basis? Is there some other way?
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 17 at 5:14
But then, how can one talk about "dimension" without talking about basis? Is there some other way?
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 17 at 5:14
Well, you can define "infinite-dimensional" in an elementary course to mean that the is no finite basis. Then you can construct a countable linearly independent set by induction.
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:16
Well, you can define "infinite-dimensional" in an elementary course to mean that the is no finite basis. Then you can construct a countable linearly independent set by induction.
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:16
@saulspatz: ... using the axiom of choice! I remark this because it would be a clue to the OP on how to proceed. I wonder if it's consistent with ZF that there is a infinite-dimensional vector space that doesn't have a countable linearly independent set?
â Hurkyl
Aug 17 at 5:23
@saulspatz: ... using the axiom of choice! I remark this because it would be a clue to the OP on how to proceed. I wonder if it's consistent with ZF that there is a infinite-dimensional vector space that doesn't have a countable linearly independent set?
â Hurkyl
Aug 17 at 5:23
@Hurkyl Right. I meant to say that for every $n$ there is a set of $n$ independent vectors. That doesn't use the axiom of choice, right?
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:26
@Hurkyl Right. I meant to say that for every $n$ there is a set of $n$ independent vectors. That doesn't use the axiom of choice, right?
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:26
 |Â
show 1 more comment
1
What have you done on this? Where are you having difficulty? What are your thoughts?
â saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:08
What exactly is your definition of "infinite dimensional"?
â Arthur
Aug 17 at 5:10