Show that a infinite dimensional vector space must have linearly independent vectors for every positive integer [closed]

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Show that V is infinite dimensional vector space if and only if there is a sequence $v_1,v_2,...$ of vectors in V such that $v_1,v_2,...,v_n$ is linearly independent for every positive integer n.







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closed as off-topic by Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati Aug 17 at 17:34


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 1




    What have you done on this? Where are you having difficulty? What are your thoughts?
    – saulspatz
    Aug 17 at 5:08










  • What exactly is your definition of "infinite dimensional"?
    – Arthur
    Aug 17 at 5:10














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Show that V is infinite dimensional vector space if and only if there is a sequence $v_1,v_2,...$ of vectors in V such that $v_1,v_2,...,v_n$ is linearly independent for every positive integer n.







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closed as off-topic by Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati Aug 17 at 17:34


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 1




    What have you done on this? Where are you having difficulty? What are your thoughts?
    – saulspatz
    Aug 17 at 5:08










  • What exactly is your definition of "infinite dimensional"?
    – Arthur
    Aug 17 at 5:10












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Show that V is infinite dimensional vector space if and only if there is a sequence $v_1,v_2,...$ of vectors in V such that $v_1,v_2,...,v_n$ is linearly independent for every positive integer n.







share|cite|improve this question












Show that V is infinite dimensional vector space if and only if there is a sequence $v_1,v_2,...$ of vectors in V such that $v_1,v_2,...,v_n$ is linearly independent for every positive integer n.









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asked Aug 17 at 5:01









mathnewbie

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closed as off-topic by Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati Aug 17 at 17:34


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati Aug 17 at 17:34


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Hurkyl, Arnaud D., amWhy, Brahadeesh, Nosrati
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







  • 1




    What have you done on this? Where are you having difficulty? What are your thoughts?
    – saulspatz
    Aug 17 at 5:08










  • What exactly is your definition of "infinite dimensional"?
    – Arthur
    Aug 17 at 5:10












  • 1




    What have you done on this? Where are you having difficulty? What are your thoughts?
    – saulspatz
    Aug 17 at 5:08










  • What exactly is your definition of "infinite dimensional"?
    – Arthur
    Aug 17 at 5:10







1




1




What have you done on this? Where are you having difficulty? What are your thoughts?
– saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:08




What have you done on this? Where are you having difficulty? What are your thoughts?
– saulspatz
Aug 17 at 5:08












What exactly is your definition of "infinite dimensional"?
– Arthur
Aug 17 at 5:10




What exactly is your definition of "infinite dimensional"?
– Arthur
Aug 17 at 5:10










2 Answers
2






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oldest

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1
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Take an arbitrary $v_1ne 0.$ Now for $nin Bbb N$ suppose that $S(n)=v_j:jleq n$ is a set of $n$ linearly independent vectors. Since $V$ is not finite dimensional we can take some $v_n+1$ that does not belong to the linear span of $S(n),$ so $S(n+1)=v_n+1cup S(n)$ is a linearly independentset



Without the Axiom of Choice we obtain, by induction on $n$, that for each $nin Bbb N$ there exists a linearly independent set of $n$ vectors. We MUST have the Axiom of Choice (or at least a corollary of it called Dependent Choice) to justify th existence of an infinite sequence of "Takes" to get an infinite sequence $(v_n)_nin Bbb N$ with the desired property.






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    0
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    Dimension of a vector space is defined as the number of elements in the basis, provided the basis has a finite number of elements. In such cases, the vector space is said to be finite dimensional.



    Therefore, a vector space is said to be infinite dimensional if the basis of the vector space has infinitely many elements. Now, a basis should be linearly independent.



    An infinite subset $S$ of a vector space $V$ is said to be linearly independent, iff every finite subset $A subset S$ is linearly independent in $V$. This gives directly that for every $n in mathbbN$, $leftlbrace v_1, v_2, cdots, v_n rightrbrace$ is linearly independent in $V$. Here, however, each $v_i$ must belong to the basis. Otherwise, the construction of the linearly independent set would be different.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • I doubt that the OP has seen a proof that every vector space has a basis.
      – saulspatz
      Aug 17 at 5:12










    • But then, how can one talk about "dimension" without talking about basis? Is there some other way?
      – Aniruddha Deshmukh
      Aug 17 at 5:14










    • Well, you can define "infinite-dimensional" in an elementary course to mean that the is no finite basis. Then you can construct a countable linearly independent set by induction.
      – saulspatz
      Aug 17 at 5:16










    • @saulspatz: ... using the axiom of choice! I remark this because it would be a clue to the OP on how to proceed. I wonder if it's consistent with ZF that there is a infinite-dimensional vector space that doesn't have a countable linearly independent set?
      – Hurkyl
      Aug 17 at 5:23











    • @Hurkyl Right. I meant to say that for every $n$ there is a set of $n$ independent vectors. That doesn't use the axiom of choice, right?
      – saulspatz
      Aug 17 at 5:26

















    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Take an arbitrary $v_1ne 0.$ Now for $nin Bbb N$ suppose that $S(n)=v_j:jleq n$ is a set of $n$ linearly independent vectors. Since $V$ is not finite dimensional we can take some $v_n+1$ that does not belong to the linear span of $S(n),$ so $S(n+1)=v_n+1cup S(n)$ is a linearly independentset



    Without the Axiom of Choice we obtain, by induction on $n$, that for each $nin Bbb N$ there exists a linearly independent set of $n$ vectors. We MUST have the Axiom of Choice (or at least a corollary of it called Dependent Choice) to justify th existence of an infinite sequence of "Takes" to get an infinite sequence $(v_n)_nin Bbb N$ with the desired property.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Take an arbitrary $v_1ne 0.$ Now for $nin Bbb N$ suppose that $S(n)=v_j:jleq n$ is a set of $n$ linearly independent vectors. Since $V$ is not finite dimensional we can take some $v_n+1$ that does not belong to the linear span of $S(n),$ so $S(n+1)=v_n+1cup S(n)$ is a linearly independentset



      Without the Axiom of Choice we obtain, by induction on $n$, that for each $nin Bbb N$ there exists a linearly independent set of $n$ vectors. We MUST have the Axiom of Choice (or at least a corollary of it called Dependent Choice) to justify th existence of an infinite sequence of "Takes" to get an infinite sequence $(v_n)_nin Bbb N$ with the desired property.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        Take an arbitrary $v_1ne 0.$ Now for $nin Bbb N$ suppose that $S(n)=v_j:jleq n$ is a set of $n$ linearly independent vectors. Since $V$ is not finite dimensional we can take some $v_n+1$ that does not belong to the linear span of $S(n),$ so $S(n+1)=v_n+1cup S(n)$ is a linearly independentset



        Without the Axiom of Choice we obtain, by induction on $n$, that for each $nin Bbb N$ there exists a linearly independent set of $n$ vectors. We MUST have the Axiom of Choice (or at least a corollary of it called Dependent Choice) to justify th existence of an infinite sequence of "Takes" to get an infinite sequence $(v_n)_nin Bbb N$ with the desired property.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Take an arbitrary $v_1ne 0.$ Now for $nin Bbb N$ suppose that $S(n)=v_j:jleq n$ is a set of $n$ linearly independent vectors. Since $V$ is not finite dimensional we can take some $v_n+1$ that does not belong to the linear span of $S(n),$ so $S(n+1)=v_n+1cup S(n)$ is a linearly independentset



        Without the Axiom of Choice we obtain, by induction on $n$, that for each $nin Bbb N$ there exists a linearly independent set of $n$ vectors. We MUST have the Axiom of Choice (or at least a corollary of it called Dependent Choice) to justify th existence of an infinite sequence of "Takes" to get an infinite sequence $(v_n)_nin Bbb N$ with the desired property.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Aug 17 at 9:44









        DanielWainfleet

        32k31644




        32k31644




















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Dimension of a vector space is defined as the number of elements in the basis, provided the basis has a finite number of elements. In such cases, the vector space is said to be finite dimensional.



            Therefore, a vector space is said to be infinite dimensional if the basis of the vector space has infinitely many elements. Now, a basis should be linearly independent.



            An infinite subset $S$ of a vector space $V$ is said to be linearly independent, iff every finite subset $A subset S$ is linearly independent in $V$. This gives directly that for every $n in mathbbN$, $leftlbrace v_1, v_2, cdots, v_n rightrbrace$ is linearly independent in $V$. Here, however, each $v_i$ must belong to the basis. Otherwise, the construction of the linearly independent set would be different.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • I doubt that the OP has seen a proof that every vector space has a basis.
              – saulspatz
              Aug 17 at 5:12










            • But then, how can one talk about "dimension" without talking about basis? Is there some other way?
              – Aniruddha Deshmukh
              Aug 17 at 5:14










            • Well, you can define "infinite-dimensional" in an elementary course to mean that the is no finite basis. Then you can construct a countable linearly independent set by induction.
              – saulspatz
              Aug 17 at 5:16










            • @saulspatz: ... using the axiom of choice! I remark this because it would be a clue to the OP on how to proceed. I wonder if it's consistent with ZF that there is a infinite-dimensional vector space that doesn't have a countable linearly independent set?
              – Hurkyl
              Aug 17 at 5:23











            • @Hurkyl Right. I meant to say that for every $n$ there is a set of $n$ independent vectors. That doesn't use the axiom of choice, right?
              – saulspatz
              Aug 17 at 5:26














            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Dimension of a vector space is defined as the number of elements in the basis, provided the basis has a finite number of elements. In such cases, the vector space is said to be finite dimensional.



            Therefore, a vector space is said to be infinite dimensional if the basis of the vector space has infinitely many elements. Now, a basis should be linearly independent.



            An infinite subset $S$ of a vector space $V$ is said to be linearly independent, iff every finite subset $A subset S$ is linearly independent in $V$. This gives directly that for every $n in mathbbN$, $leftlbrace v_1, v_2, cdots, v_n rightrbrace$ is linearly independent in $V$. Here, however, each $v_i$ must belong to the basis. Otherwise, the construction of the linearly independent set would be different.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • I doubt that the OP has seen a proof that every vector space has a basis.
              – saulspatz
              Aug 17 at 5:12










            • But then, how can one talk about "dimension" without talking about basis? Is there some other way?
              – Aniruddha Deshmukh
              Aug 17 at 5:14










            • Well, you can define "infinite-dimensional" in an elementary course to mean that the is no finite basis. Then you can construct a countable linearly independent set by induction.
              – saulspatz
              Aug 17 at 5:16










            • @saulspatz: ... using the axiom of choice! I remark this because it would be a clue to the OP on how to proceed. I wonder if it's consistent with ZF that there is a infinite-dimensional vector space that doesn't have a countable linearly independent set?
              – Hurkyl
              Aug 17 at 5:23











            • @Hurkyl Right. I meant to say that for every $n$ there is a set of $n$ independent vectors. That doesn't use the axiom of choice, right?
              – saulspatz
              Aug 17 at 5:26












            up vote
            0
            down vote










            up vote
            0
            down vote









            Dimension of a vector space is defined as the number of elements in the basis, provided the basis has a finite number of elements. In such cases, the vector space is said to be finite dimensional.



            Therefore, a vector space is said to be infinite dimensional if the basis of the vector space has infinitely many elements. Now, a basis should be linearly independent.



            An infinite subset $S$ of a vector space $V$ is said to be linearly independent, iff every finite subset $A subset S$ is linearly independent in $V$. This gives directly that for every $n in mathbbN$, $leftlbrace v_1, v_2, cdots, v_n rightrbrace$ is linearly independent in $V$. Here, however, each $v_i$ must belong to the basis. Otherwise, the construction of the linearly independent set would be different.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Dimension of a vector space is defined as the number of elements in the basis, provided the basis has a finite number of elements. In such cases, the vector space is said to be finite dimensional.



            Therefore, a vector space is said to be infinite dimensional if the basis of the vector space has infinitely many elements. Now, a basis should be linearly independent.



            An infinite subset $S$ of a vector space $V$ is said to be linearly independent, iff every finite subset $A subset S$ is linearly independent in $V$. This gives directly that for every $n in mathbbN$, $leftlbrace v_1, v_2, cdots, v_n rightrbrace$ is linearly independent in $V$. Here, however, each $v_i$ must belong to the basis. Otherwise, the construction of the linearly independent set would be different.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Aug 17 at 5:08









            Aniruddha Deshmukh

            665417




            665417











            • I doubt that the OP has seen a proof that every vector space has a basis.
              – saulspatz
              Aug 17 at 5:12










            • But then, how can one talk about "dimension" without talking about basis? Is there some other way?
              – Aniruddha Deshmukh
              Aug 17 at 5:14










            • Well, you can define "infinite-dimensional" in an elementary course to mean that the is no finite basis. Then you can construct a countable linearly independent set by induction.
              – saulspatz
              Aug 17 at 5:16










            • @saulspatz: ... using the axiom of choice! I remark this because it would be a clue to the OP on how to proceed. I wonder if it's consistent with ZF that there is a infinite-dimensional vector space that doesn't have a countable linearly independent set?
              – Hurkyl
              Aug 17 at 5:23











            • @Hurkyl Right. I meant to say that for every $n$ there is a set of $n$ independent vectors. That doesn't use the axiom of choice, right?
              – saulspatz
              Aug 17 at 5:26
















            • I doubt that the OP has seen a proof that every vector space has a basis.
              – saulspatz
              Aug 17 at 5:12










            • But then, how can one talk about "dimension" without talking about basis? Is there some other way?
              – Aniruddha Deshmukh
              Aug 17 at 5:14










            • Well, you can define "infinite-dimensional" in an elementary course to mean that the is no finite basis. Then you can construct a countable linearly independent set by induction.
              – saulspatz
              Aug 17 at 5:16










            • @saulspatz: ... using the axiom of choice! I remark this because it would be a clue to the OP on how to proceed. I wonder if it's consistent with ZF that there is a infinite-dimensional vector space that doesn't have a countable linearly independent set?
              – Hurkyl
              Aug 17 at 5:23











            • @Hurkyl Right. I meant to say that for every $n$ there is a set of $n$ independent vectors. That doesn't use the axiom of choice, right?
              – saulspatz
              Aug 17 at 5:26















            I doubt that the OP has seen a proof that every vector space has a basis.
            – saulspatz
            Aug 17 at 5:12




            I doubt that the OP has seen a proof that every vector space has a basis.
            – saulspatz
            Aug 17 at 5:12












            But then, how can one talk about "dimension" without talking about basis? Is there some other way?
            – Aniruddha Deshmukh
            Aug 17 at 5:14




            But then, how can one talk about "dimension" without talking about basis? Is there some other way?
            – Aniruddha Deshmukh
            Aug 17 at 5:14












            Well, you can define "infinite-dimensional" in an elementary course to mean that the is no finite basis. Then you can construct a countable linearly independent set by induction.
            – saulspatz
            Aug 17 at 5:16




            Well, you can define "infinite-dimensional" in an elementary course to mean that the is no finite basis. Then you can construct a countable linearly independent set by induction.
            – saulspatz
            Aug 17 at 5:16












            @saulspatz: ... using the axiom of choice! I remark this because it would be a clue to the OP on how to proceed. I wonder if it's consistent with ZF that there is a infinite-dimensional vector space that doesn't have a countable linearly independent set?
            – Hurkyl
            Aug 17 at 5:23





            @saulspatz: ... using the axiom of choice! I remark this because it would be a clue to the OP on how to proceed. I wonder if it's consistent with ZF that there is a infinite-dimensional vector space that doesn't have a countable linearly independent set?
            – Hurkyl
            Aug 17 at 5:23













            @Hurkyl Right. I meant to say that for every $n$ there is a set of $n$ independent vectors. That doesn't use the axiom of choice, right?
            – saulspatz
            Aug 17 at 5:26




            @Hurkyl Right. I meant to say that for every $n$ there is a set of $n$ independent vectors. That doesn't use the axiom of choice, right?
            – saulspatz
            Aug 17 at 5:26


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