Easiest way to show sequence $e^frac1n$ converges to 1 [closed]
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I don't want to use the definition, is there an easier way?
Like, in the case of limits of functions, it is pretty easy to say by the composition theorem.
Is there any such theorem in case of sequences too?
real-analysis sequences-and-series limits convergence
closed as off-topic by Siong Thye Goh, onurcanbektas, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, John Ma Aug 17 at 18:54
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Siong Thye Goh, onurcanbektas, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, John Ma
add a comment |Â
up vote
-2
down vote
favorite
I don't want to use the definition, is there an easier way?
Like, in the case of limits of functions, it is pretty easy to say by the composition theorem.
Is there any such theorem in case of sequences too?
real-analysis sequences-and-series limits convergence
closed as off-topic by Siong Thye Goh, onurcanbektas, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, John Ma Aug 17 at 18:54
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Siong Thye Goh, onurcanbektas, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, John Ma
A sequence is a function.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:35
@ArnaudMortier, sequence is a function from $mathbbN$. But the theorem is for continuous functions only. So how can you talk about continuity when your domain is $mathbbN$?
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:38
Now that would make a good question, although it is probably a duplicate.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:40
@ArnaudMortier, if its duplicate. Please mark it as duplicate. But my answer answers my question.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:41
Here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2881876/â¦
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:48
add a comment |Â
up vote
-2
down vote
favorite
up vote
-2
down vote
favorite
I don't want to use the definition, is there an easier way?
Like, in the case of limits of functions, it is pretty easy to say by the composition theorem.
Is there any such theorem in case of sequences too?
real-analysis sequences-and-series limits convergence
I don't want to use the definition, is there an easier way?
Like, in the case of limits of functions, it is pretty easy to say by the composition theorem.
Is there any such theorem in case of sequences too?
real-analysis sequences-and-series limits convergence
asked Aug 17 at 5:17
Aditya Agarwal
2,89111536
2,89111536
closed as off-topic by Siong Thye Goh, onurcanbektas, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, John Ma Aug 17 at 18:54
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Siong Thye Goh, onurcanbektas, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, John Ma
closed as off-topic by Siong Thye Goh, onurcanbektas, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, John Ma Aug 17 at 18:54
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Siong Thye Goh, onurcanbektas, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, John Ma
A sequence is a function.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:35
@ArnaudMortier, sequence is a function from $mathbbN$. But the theorem is for continuous functions only. So how can you talk about continuity when your domain is $mathbbN$?
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:38
Now that would make a good question, although it is probably a duplicate.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:40
@ArnaudMortier, if its duplicate. Please mark it as duplicate. But my answer answers my question.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:41
Here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2881876/â¦
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:48
add a comment |Â
A sequence is a function.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:35
@ArnaudMortier, sequence is a function from $mathbbN$. But the theorem is for continuous functions only. So how can you talk about continuity when your domain is $mathbbN$?
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:38
Now that would make a good question, although it is probably a duplicate.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:40
@ArnaudMortier, if its duplicate. Please mark it as duplicate. But my answer answers my question.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:41
Here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2881876/â¦
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:48
A sequence is a function.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:35
A sequence is a function.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:35
@ArnaudMortier, sequence is a function from $mathbbN$. But the theorem is for continuous functions only. So how can you talk about continuity when your domain is $mathbbN$?
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:38
@ArnaudMortier, sequence is a function from $mathbbN$. But the theorem is for continuous functions only. So how can you talk about continuity when your domain is $mathbbN$?
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:38
Now that would make a good question, although it is probably a duplicate.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:40
Now that would make a good question, although it is probably a duplicate.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:40
@ArnaudMortier, if its duplicate. Please mark it as duplicate. But my answer answers my question.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:41
@ArnaudMortier, if its duplicate. Please mark it as duplicate. But my answer answers my question.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:41
Here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2881876/â¦
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:48
Here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2881876/â¦
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:48
add a comment |Â
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
up vote
6
down vote
Hint:
As exponential function is continuous and "limit of the function"=function of the limit" for a continuous function, so$$lim_n e^1/n=e^lim_n 1/n=e^0=1.$$
1
Why down vote?.
â Empty
Aug 17 at 5:19
Your answer is not at all legible. I am asking about sequences. So I presume, that limit, in this case means the number to which the sequence is convergent. But then how could you take the limit in the exponent?
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:21
This is not an acceptable answer. More effort is needed in terms of formatting and clearly explaining the concept in words
â George Thomas
Aug 17 at 5:21
Thats what I am asking. My question is about sequences, not functions.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:22
1
I'm willing to upvote it now after edits
â George Thomas
Aug 17 at 5:43
 |Â
show 14 more comments
up vote
3
down vote
$$1<e^frac1n<3^frac1n=(1+2)^frac1n<1+dfrac2nto1$$
as $ntoinfty$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
I figured it out. Since the function whose domain is $mathbbR$ converges to $1$ (By composiotion theorem). The sequence of the same functional rule should, too.
Since, we know that for every $epsilon>0$, there exists $N$, so that $|f(n)-L|<epsilon$ for $n>N$, So for every $epsilon>0$, there exists $N$, so that $|f(n)-L|<epsilon$ for $n in mathbbI>N$. So the sequence converges too.
That is, $$lim_ntoinftya_n=L$$ too.
If anything is wrong with my answer, or is irrelevant, please explain, the downvoter.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:46
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
For $nin Bbb Z^+$ let $e^1/n=1+A_n.$ We have $A_n>0.$ From the Binomial Theorem we have $$e=(1+A_n)^n=sum_j=0^nbinom nj(A_n)^jgeq sum_j=0^1binom nj(A_n)^j=1+nA_n.$$ Therefore $frac e-1ngeq A_n.$ This also works if we replace $e$ with any number greater than $1.$
add a comment |Â
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
6
down vote
Hint:
As exponential function is continuous and "limit of the function"=function of the limit" for a continuous function, so$$lim_n e^1/n=e^lim_n 1/n=e^0=1.$$
1
Why down vote?.
â Empty
Aug 17 at 5:19
Your answer is not at all legible. I am asking about sequences. So I presume, that limit, in this case means the number to which the sequence is convergent. But then how could you take the limit in the exponent?
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:21
This is not an acceptable answer. More effort is needed in terms of formatting and clearly explaining the concept in words
â George Thomas
Aug 17 at 5:21
Thats what I am asking. My question is about sequences, not functions.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:22
1
I'm willing to upvote it now after edits
â George Thomas
Aug 17 at 5:43
 |Â
show 14 more comments
up vote
6
down vote
Hint:
As exponential function is continuous and "limit of the function"=function of the limit" for a continuous function, so$$lim_n e^1/n=e^lim_n 1/n=e^0=1.$$
1
Why down vote?.
â Empty
Aug 17 at 5:19
Your answer is not at all legible. I am asking about sequences. So I presume, that limit, in this case means the number to which the sequence is convergent. But then how could you take the limit in the exponent?
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:21
This is not an acceptable answer. More effort is needed in terms of formatting and clearly explaining the concept in words
â George Thomas
Aug 17 at 5:21
Thats what I am asking. My question is about sequences, not functions.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:22
1
I'm willing to upvote it now after edits
â George Thomas
Aug 17 at 5:43
 |Â
show 14 more comments
up vote
6
down vote
up vote
6
down vote
Hint:
As exponential function is continuous and "limit of the function"=function of the limit" for a continuous function, so$$lim_n e^1/n=e^lim_n 1/n=e^0=1.$$
Hint:
As exponential function is continuous and "limit of the function"=function of the limit" for a continuous function, so$$lim_n e^1/n=e^lim_n 1/n=e^0=1.$$
edited Aug 17 at 5:23
answered Aug 17 at 5:18
Empty
7,90642154
7,90642154
1
Why down vote?.
â Empty
Aug 17 at 5:19
Your answer is not at all legible. I am asking about sequences. So I presume, that limit, in this case means the number to which the sequence is convergent. But then how could you take the limit in the exponent?
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:21
This is not an acceptable answer. More effort is needed in terms of formatting and clearly explaining the concept in words
â George Thomas
Aug 17 at 5:21
Thats what I am asking. My question is about sequences, not functions.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:22
1
I'm willing to upvote it now after edits
â George Thomas
Aug 17 at 5:43
 |Â
show 14 more comments
1
Why down vote?.
â Empty
Aug 17 at 5:19
Your answer is not at all legible. I am asking about sequences. So I presume, that limit, in this case means the number to which the sequence is convergent. But then how could you take the limit in the exponent?
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:21
This is not an acceptable answer. More effort is needed in terms of formatting and clearly explaining the concept in words
â George Thomas
Aug 17 at 5:21
Thats what I am asking. My question is about sequences, not functions.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:22
1
I'm willing to upvote it now after edits
â George Thomas
Aug 17 at 5:43
1
1
Why down vote?.
â Empty
Aug 17 at 5:19
Why down vote?.
â Empty
Aug 17 at 5:19
Your answer is not at all legible. I am asking about sequences. So I presume, that limit, in this case means the number to which the sequence is convergent. But then how could you take the limit in the exponent?
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:21
Your answer is not at all legible. I am asking about sequences. So I presume, that limit, in this case means the number to which the sequence is convergent. But then how could you take the limit in the exponent?
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:21
This is not an acceptable answer. More effort is needed in terms of formatting and clearly explaining the concept in words
â George Thomas
Aug 17 at 5:21
This is not an acceptable answer. More effort is needed in terms of formatting and clearly explaining the concept in words
â George Thomas
Aug 17 at 5:21
Thats what I am asking. My question is about sequences, not functions.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:22
Thats what I am asking. My question is about sequences, not functions.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:22
1
1
I'm willing to upvote it now after edits
â George Thomas
Aug 17 at 5:43
I'm willing to upvote it now after edits
â George Thomas
Aug 17 at 5:43
 |Â
show 14 more comments
up vote
3
down vote
$$1<e^frac1n<3^frac1n=(1+2)^frac1n<1+dfrac2nto1$$
as $ntoinfty$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
$$1<e^frac1n<3^frac1n=(1+2)^frac1n<1+dfrac2nto1$$
as $ntoinfty$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
$$1<e^frac1n<3^frac1n=(1+2)^frac1n<1+dfrac2nto1$$
as $ntoinfty$.
$$1<e^frac1n<3^frac1n=(1+2)^frac1n<1+dfrac2nto1$$
as $ntoinfty$.
answered Aug 17 at 8:15
Nosrati
20.7k41644
20.7k41644
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
I figured it out. Since the function whose domain is $mathbbR$ converges to $1$ (By composiotion theorem). The sequence of the same functional rule should, too.
Since, we know that for every $epsilon>0$, there exists $N$, so that $|f(n)-L|<epsilon$ for $n>N$, So for every $epsilon>0$, there exists $N$, so that $|f(n)-L|<epsilon$ for $n in mathbbI>N$. So the sequence converges too.
That is, $$lim_ntoinftya_n=L$$ too.
If anything is wrong with my answer, or is irrelevant, please explain, the downvoter.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:46
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
I figured it out. Since the function whose domain is $mathbbR$ converges to $1$ (By composiotion theorem). The sequence of the same functional rule should, too.
Since, we know that for every $epsilon>0$, there exists $N$, so that $|f(n)-L|<epsilon$ for $n>N$, So for every $epsilon>0$, there exists $N$, so that $|f(n)-L|<epsilon$ for $n in mathbbI>N$. So the sequence converges too.
That is, $$lim_ntoinftya_n=L$$ too.
If anything is wrong with my answer, or is irrelevant, please explain, the downvoter.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:46
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
I figured it out. Since the function whose domain is $mathbbR$ converges to $1$ (By composiotion theorem). The sequence of the same functional rule should, too.
Since, we know that for every $epsilon>0$, there exists $N$, so that $|f(n)-L|<epsilon$ for $n>N$, So for every $epsilon>0$, there exists $N$, so that $|f(n)-L|<epsilon$ for $n in mathbbI>N$. So the sequence converges too.
That is, $$lim_ntoinftya_n=L$$ too.
I figured it out. Since the function whose domain is $mathbbR$ converges to $1$ (By composiotion theorem). The sequence of the same functional rule should, too.
Since, we know that for every $epsilon>0$, there exists $N$, so that $|f(n)-L|<epsilon$ for $n>N$, So for every $epsilon>0$, there exists $N$, so that $|f(n)-L|<epsilon$ for $n in mathbbI>N$. So the sequence converges too.
That is, $$lim_ntoinftya_n=L$$ too.
edited Aug 17 at 5:43
answered Aug 17 at 5:31
Aditya Agarwal
2,89111536
2,89111536
If anything is wrong with my answer, or is irrelevant, please explain, the downvoter.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:46
add a comment |Â
If anything is wrong with my answer, or is irrelevant, please explain, the downvoter.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:46
If anything is wrong with my answer, or is irrelevant, please explain, the downvoter.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:46
If anything is wrong with my answer, or is irrelevant, please explain, the downvoter.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:46
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
For $nin Bbb Z^+$ let $e^1/n=1+A_n.$ We have $A_n>0.$ From the Binomial Theorem we have $$e=(1+A_n)^n=sum_j=0^nbinom nj(A_n)^jgeq sum_j=0^1binom nj(A_n)^j=1+nA_n.$$ Therefore $frac e-1ngeq A_n.$ This also works if we replace $e$ with any number greater than $1.$
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
For $nin Bbb Z^+$ let $e^1/n=1+A_n.$ We have $A_n>0.$ From the Binomial Theorem we have $$e=(1+A_n)^n=sum_j=0^nbinom nj(A_n)^jgeq sum_j=0^1binom nj(A_n)^j=1+nA_n.$$ Therefore $frac e-1ngeq A_n.$ This also works if we replace $e$ with any number greater than $1.$
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
For $nin Bbb Z^+$ let $e^1/n=1+A_n.$ We have $A_n>0.$ From the Binomial Theorem we have $$e=(1+A_n)^n=sum_j=0^nbinom nj(A_n)^jgeq sum_j=0^1binom nj(A_n)^j=1+nA_n.$$ Therefore $frac e-1ngeq A_n.$ This also works if we replace $e$ with any number greater than $1.$
For $nin Bbb Z^+$ let $e^1/n=1+A_n.$ We have $A_n>0.$ From the Binomial Theorem we have $$e=(1+A_n)^n=sum_j=0^nbinom nj(A_n)^jgeq sum_j=0^1binom nj(A_n)^j=1+nA_n.$$ Therefore $frac e-1ngeq A_n.$ This also works if we replace $e$ with any number greater than $1.$
answered Aug 17 at 9:07
DanielWainfleet
32k31644
32k31644
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
A sequence is a function.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:35
@ArnaudMortier, sequence is a function from $mathbbN$. But the theorem is for continuous functions only. So how can you talk about continuity when your domain is $mathbbN$?
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:38
Now that would make a good question, although it is probably a duplicate.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:40
@ArnaudMortier, if its duplicate. Please mark it as duplicate. But my answer answers my question.
â Aditya Agarwal
Aug 17 at 5:41
Here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2881876/â¦
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 17 at 5:48