Has this I.V.P. unique solution?

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down vote

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I know
$$begincases y’=|y|\ y(0)=0 endcases $$
Has the solution $yequiv 0$... does it have another?



The question is about the theorem of existence and uniqueness because $partial_y f(x,y)$ is not continuous







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    up vote
    9
    down vote

    favorite
    2












    I know
    $$begincases y’=|y|\ y(0)=0 endcases $$
    Has the solution $yequiv 0$... does it have another?



    The question is about the theorem of existence and uniqueness because $partial_y f(x,y)$ is not continuous







    share|cite|improve this question






















      up vote
      9
      down vote

      favorite
      2









      up vote
      9
      down vote

      favorite
      2






      2





      I know
      $$begincases y’=|y|\ y(0)=0 endcases $$
      Has the solution $yequiv 0$... does it have another?



      The question is about the theorem of existence and uniqueness because $partial_y f(x,y)$ is not continuous







      share|cite|improve this question












      I know
      $$begincases y’=|y|\ y(0)=0 endcases $$
      Has the solution $yequiv 0$... does it have another?



      The question is about the theorem of existence and uniqueness because $partial_y f(x,y)$ is not continuous









      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Aug 17 at 3:35









      Rubén Tobar

      1046




      1046




















          2 Answers
          2






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          up vote
          10
          down vote



          accepted










          With



          $f(y) = vert y vert, tag 1$



          we have



          $vert f(y_1) - f(y_2) vert = vert vert y_1 vert - vert y_2 vert vert le vert y_1 - y_2 vert, tag 2$



          which shows that $f(y) = vert y vert$ is Lipschitz continuous with Lipschitz constant $1$; therefore by the Picard-Lindelof theorem, the equation



          $dot y = vert y vert tag 3$



          has a unique solution in some interval about any initial point $y_0 = y(t_0)$. So the only solution with $y(0) = 0$ is identically zero, $y(t) equiv 0$.



          This shouldn't really come as too much of a surprise since $vert 0 vert = 0$, so $0$ is an equilibrium of (3).



          Finally, we don't need $f(y)$ differentiable, merely Lipschitz continuous, for existence and uniqueness to apply.



          Note Added in Edit, Friday 17 August 2018 11:14 PM PST: To really flesh this answer out, we should probably also show that the unique solution $y(t) equiv 0$ on an interval about $0$ extends uniquely to $(-infty, infty)$, but I'm leaving this discussion for a later date. End of Note.






          share|cite|improve this answer





























            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Direct proof: any solution $y$ will be nondecreasing as $y'(x) = |y(x)|ge 0$. Then $y(x)ge 0$ for $xge 0$ and $y'(x) = y(x)$ for $xge 0$. Integrating,
            $$y(x) = y(x) - y(0) = int_0^x y = 0 + int_0^x y.$$
            Now, applying the Gronwall lemma, $y(x)le 0$ for $xge 0$.



            EDIT: even more direct (Gronwall-less) proof.



            Take $x_0in(0,1)$. Integrating as before and using that $y$ is nondecreasing,
            $$y(x_0) = int_0^x_0 yle x_0,y(x_0)implies y(x_0) = 0,$$
            i.e., $yequiv 0$ in $[0,1)$, so in $[0,1]$ by continuity. The same argument works in $[1,2]$, $[2,3]$,...






            share|cite|improve this answer






















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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes








              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

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              active

              oldest

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              active

              oldest

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              up vote
              10
              down vote



              accepted










              With



              $f(y) = vert y vert, tag 1$



              we have



              $vert f(y_1) - f(y_2) vert = vert vert y_1 vert - vert y_2 vert vert le vert y_1 - y_2 vert, tag 2$



              which shows that $f(y) = vert y vert$ is Lipschitz continuous with Lipschitz constant $1$; therefore by the Picard-Lindelof theorem, the equation



              $dot y = vert y vert tag 3$



              has a unique solution in some interval about any initial point $y_0 = y(t_0)$. So the only solution with $y(0) = 0$ is identically zero, $y(t) equiv 0$.



              This shouldn't really come as too much of a surprise since $vert 0 vert = 0$, so $0$ is an equilibrium of (3).



              Finally, we don't need $f(y)$ differentiable, merely Lipschitz continuous, for existence and uniqueness to apply.



              Note Added in Edit, Friday 17 August 2018 11:14 PM PST: To really flesh this answer out, we should probably also show that the unique solution $y(t) equiv 0$ on an interval about $0$ extends uniquely to $(-infty, infty)$, but I'm leaving this discussion for a later date. End of Note.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                up vote
                10
                down vote



                accepted










                With



                $f(y) = vert y vert, tag 1$



                we have



                $vert f(y_1) - f(y_2) vert = vert vert y_1 vert - vert y_2 vert vert le vert y_1 - y_2 vert, tag 2$



                which shows that $f(y) = vert y vert$ is Lipschitz continuous with Lipschitz constant $1$; therefore by the Picard-Lindelof theorem, the equation



                $dot y = vert y vert tag 3$



                has a unique solution in some interval about any initial point $y_0 = y(t_0)$. So the only solution with $y(0) = 0$ is identically zero, $y(t) equiv 0$.



                This shouldn't really come as too much of a surprise since $vert 0 vert = 0$, so $0$ is an equilibrium of (3).



                Finally, we don't need $f(y)$ differentiable, merely Lipschitz continuous, for existence and uniqueness to apply.



                Note Added in Edit, Friday 17 August 2018 11:14 PM PST: To really flesh this answer out, we should probably also show that the unique solution $y(t) equiv 0$ on an interval about $0$ extends uniquely to $(-infty, infty)$, but I'm leaving this discussion for a later date. End of Note.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  10
                  down vote



                  accepted







                  up vote
                  10
                  down vote



                  accepted






                  With



                  $f(y) = vert y vert, tag 1$



                  we have



                  $vert f(y_1) - f(y_2) vert = vert vert y_1 vert - vert y_2 vert vert le vert y_1 - y_2 vert, tag 2$



                  which shows that $f(y) = vert y vert$ is Lipschitz continuous with Lipschitz constant $1$; therefore by the Picard-Lindelof theorem, the equation



                  $dot y = vert y vert tag 3$



                  has a unique solution in some interval about any initial point $y_0 = y(t_0)$. So the only solution with $y(0) = 0$ is identically zero, $y(t) equiv 0$.



                  This shouldn't really come as too much of a surprise since $vert 0 vert = 0$, so $0$ is an equilibrium of (3).



                  Finally, we don't need $f(y)$ differentiable, merely Lipschitz continuous, for existence and uniqueness to apply.



                  Note Added in Edit, Friday 17 August 2018 11:14 PM PST: To really flesh this answer out, we should probably also show that the unique solution $y(t) equiv 0$ on an interval about $0$ extends uniquely to $(-infty, infty)$, but I'm leaving this discussion for a later date. End of Note.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  With



                  $f(y) = vert y vert, tag 1$



                  we have



                  $vert f(y_1) - f(y_2) vert = vert vert y_1 vert - vert y_2 vert vert le vert y_1 - y_2 vert, tag 2$



                  which shows that $f(y) = vert y vert$ is Lipschitz continuous with Lipschitz constant $1$; therefore by the Picard-Lindelof theorem, the equation



                  $dot y = vert y vert tag 3$



                  has a unique solution in some interval about any initial point $y_0 = y(t_0)$. So the only solution with $y(0) = 0$ is identically zero, $y(t) equiv 0$.



                  This shouldn't really come as too much of a surprise since $vert 0 vert = 0$, so $0$ is an equilibrium of (3).



                  Finally, we don't need $f(y)$ differentiable, merely Lipschitz continuous, for existence and uniqueness to apply.



                  Note Added in Edit, Friday 17 August 2018 11:14 PM PST: To really flesh this answer out, we should probably also show that the unique solution $y(t) equiv 0$ on an interval about $0$ extends uniquely to $(-infty, infty)$, but I'm leaving this discussion for a later date. End of Note.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Aug 18 at 6:16

























                  answered Aug 17 at 3:46









                  Robert Lewis

                  37.6k22357




                  37.6k22357




















                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote













                      Direct proof: any solution $y$ will be nondecreasing as $y'(x) = |y(x)|ge 0$. Then $y(x)ge 0$ for $xge 0$ and $y'(x) = y(x)$ for $xge 0$. Integrating,
                      $$y(x) = y(x) - y(0) = int_0^x y = 0 + int_0^x y.$$
                      Now, applying the Gronwall lemma, $y(x)le 0$ for $xge 0$.



                      EDIT: even more direct (Gronwall-less) proof.



                      Take $x_0in(0,1)$. Integrating as before and using that $y$ is nondecreasing,
                      $$y(x_0) = int_0^x_0 yle x_0,y(x_0)implies y(x_0) = 0,$$
                      i.e., $yequiv 0$ in $[0,1)$, so in $[0,1]$ by continuity. The same argument works in $[1,2]$, $[2,3]$,...






                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        Direct proof: any solution $y$ will be nondecreasing as $y'(x) = |y(x)|ge 0$. Then $y(x)ge 0$ for $xge 0$ and $y'(x) = y(x)$ for $xge 0$. Integrating,
                        $$y(x) = y(x) - y(0) = int_0^x y = 0 + int_0^x y.$$
                        Now, applying the Gronwall lemma, $y(x)le 0$ for $xge 0$.



                        EDIT: even more direct (Gronwall-less) proof.



                        Take $x_0in(0,1)$. Integrating as before and using that $y$ is nondecreasing,
                        $$y(x_0) = int_0^x_0 yle x_0,y(x_0)implies y(x_0) = 0,$$
                        i.e., $yequiv 0$ in $[0,1)$, so in $[0,1]$ by continuity. The same argument works in $[1,2]$, $[2,3]$,...






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote









                          Direct proof: any solution $y$ will be nondecreasing as $y'(x) = |y(x)|ge 0$. Then $y(x)ge 0$ for $xge 0$ and $y'(x) = y(x)$ for $xge 0$. Integrating,
                          $$y(x) = y(x) - y(0) = int_0^x y = 0 + int_0^x y.$$
                          Now, applying the Gronwall lemma, $y(x)le 0$ for $xge 0$.



                          EDIT: even more direct (Gronwall-less) proof.



                          Take $x_0in(0,1)$. Integrating as before and using that $y$ is nondecreasing,
                          $$y(x_0) = int_0^x_0 yle x_0,y(x_0)implies y(x_0) = 0,$$
                          i.e., $yequiv 0$ in $[0,1)$, so in $[0,1]$ by continuity. The same argument works in $[1,2]$, $[2,3]$,...






                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          Direct proof: any solution $y$ will be nondecreasing as $y'(x) = |y(x)|ge 0$. Then $y(x)ge 0$ for $xge 0$ and $y'(x) = y(x)$ for $xge 0$. Integrating,
                          $$y(x) = y(x) - y(0) = int_0^x y = 0 + int_0^x y.$$
                          Now, applying the Gronwall lemma, $y(x)le 0$ for $xge 0$.



                          EDIT: even more direct (Gronwall-less) proof.



                          Take $x_0in(0,1)$. Integrating as before and using that $y$ is nondecreasing,
                          $$y(x_0) = int_0^x_0 yle x_0,y(x_0)implies y(x_0) = 0,$$
                          i.e., $yequiv 0$ in $[0,1)$, so in $[0,1]$ by continuity. The same argument works in $[1,2]$, $[2,3]$,...







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited Aug 21 at 16:49

























                          answered Aug 17 at 14:04









                          Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla

                          33.4k42570




                          33.4k42570






















                               

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