Questions on how to prove that a set of connectives is NOT functionally complete

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In my textbook I am introduced to two ways to prove that a set of connectives is functionally incomplete. The first one is to prove that it has a property that not all truth functions do.



I am stuck at finding one such property for $lnot$ (and I can't believe I am so dumb to be stuck...). I have two ideas: first one is to prove that $lnot$ always returns a $F$ for any true argument (thus rendering a truth function that returns $T$ from a true arugment impossible).




Prove that if $phi$ is built up using the variable $P$ with $lnot$, and $v$ is the truth assignment s.t. $v(p)=T$, then $v(phi)=F$.



Induction on the number $n$ of connectives in $phi$.



Base case $n=0$: $phi=P$ - there isn't any $lnot$ to talk about, so it is vacuously true.



Assume that it holds true for $le n$, prove that it holds true for $n+1$.



$phi=lnot psi$: Number of connectives within $psi=n$, thus it holds true for $psi$. Therefore $v(p)=Tto v(psi)=F$.




As you can see, if $v(psi)=F$, then $v(phi)=v(lnot psi)=T$, which is not what we want. This seems to be an instance of double negation; it can flip whatever truth value to the opposite, so it seems futile to try and show that there is a truth function $lnot$ cannot show, because with double negation you can always show a $T/F$.



The second idea to show that a negation can only show a truth function with one argument, but not one with more than one. But this seems only to be a syntactical problem: yes, you can't show a formula of $>1$ variables with only negation, but you can still draw a truth table for it nonetheless.



So my first question is,




1) what went wrong with my proof, and how to prove $lnot$ is functionally incomplete by showing a property that only this set has?





The second way is to show how many truth functions of $n$ arguments can be represented; if this number is $<2^2^n$, then it is not complete; vice versa.



The book showed how to use this approach to prove that $land$ is incomplete. The number for this set is $2^n -1$. My question is,




2) how do we know the number for $lnot,land,lor=2^2^n$?




It must be so since it is complete, but I just don't know how to prove it.



(The book equivalated formulas $phi$ built up using variables in the set $p_1, p_2, . . . , p_n$ to a normal form where no parenthesis remains and only variables are left, and explained that the number of non-empty subsets of this
set of variables used to build the normal form $=2^n -1$. e.g. $phi=(p_3land p_1)land (p_2land(p_1land p_4))$, normal form=$p_1land p_2 land p_3 land p_4$)



Really appreciate any help offered!







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  • Using $lnot$ you can only create two functions.
    – copper.hat
    Jan 31 at 5:56






  • 1




    If you assign $F$ to all variables, any formula composed with the connective $land$ has the value $F$.
    – copper.hat
    Jan 31 at 6:02










  • Use the Boole expansion and induction to show that a formula can be created for any given truth table.
    – copper.hat
    Jan 31 at 6:05














up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1












In my textbook I am introduced to two ways to prove that a set of connectives is functionally incomplete. The first one is to prove that it has a property that not all truth functions do.



I am stuck at finding one such property for $lnot$ (and I can't believe I am so dumb to be stuck...). I have two ideas: first one is to prove that $lnot$ always returns a $F$ for any true argument (thus rendering a truth function that returns $T$ from a true arugment impossible).




Prove that if $phi$ is built up using the variable $P$ with $lnot$, and $v$ is the truth assignment s.t. $v(p)=T$, then $v(phi)=F$.



Induction on the number $n$ of connectives in $phi$.



Base case $n=0$: $phi=P$ - there isn't any $lnot$ to talk about, so it is vacuously true.



Assume that it holds true for $le n$, prove that it holds true for $n+1$.



$phi=lnot psi$: Number of connectives within $psi=n$, thus it holds true for $psi$. Therefore $v(p)=Tto v(psi)=F$.




As you can see, if $v(psi)=F$, then $v(phi)=v(lnot psi)=T$, which is not what we want. This seems to be an instance of double negation; it can flip whatever truth value to the opposite, so it seems futile to try and show that there is a truth function $lnot$ cannot show, because with double negation you can always show a $T/F$.



The second idea to show that a negation can only show a truth function with one argument, but not one with more than one. But this seems only to be a syntactical problem: yes, you can't show a formula of $>1$ variables with only negation, but you can still draw a truth table for it nonetheless.



So my first question is,




1) what went wrong with my proof, and how to prove $lnot$ is functionally incomplete by showing a property that only this set has?





The second way is to show how many truth functions of $n$ arguments can be represented; if this number is $<2^2^n$, then it is not complete; vice versa.



The book showed how to use this approach to prove that $land$ is incomplete. The number for this set is $2^n -1$. My question is,




2) how do we know the number for $lnot,land,lor=2^2^n$?




It must be so since it is complete, but I just don't know how to prove it.



(The book equivalated formulas $phi$ built up using variables in the set $p_1, p_2, . . . , p_n$ to a normal form where no parenthesis remains and only variables are left, and explained that the number of non-empty subsets of this
set of variables used to build the normal form $=2^n -1$. e.g. $phi=(p_3land p_1)land (p_2land(p_1land p_4))$, normal form=$p_1land p_2 land p_3 land p_4$)



Really appreciate any help offered!







share|cite|improve this question






















  • Using $lnot$ you can only create two functions.
    – copper.hat
    Jan 31 at 5:56






  • 1




    If you assign $F$ to all variables, any formula composed with the connective $land$ has the value $F$.
    – copper.hat
    Jan 31 at 6:02










  • Use the Boole expansion and induction to show that a formula can be created for any given truth table.
    – copper.hat
    Jan 31 at 6:05












up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1






1





In my textbook I am introduced to two ways to prove that a set of connectives is functionally incomplete. The first one is to prove that it has a property that not all truth functions do.



I am stuck at finding one such property for $lnot$ (and I can't believe I am so dumb to be stuck...). I have two ideas: first one is to prove that $lnot$ always returns a $F$ for any true argument (thus rendering a truth function that returns $T$ from a true arugment impossible).




Prove that if $phi$ is built up using the variable $P$ with $lnot$, and $v$ is the truth assignment s.t. $v(p)=T$, then $v(phi)=F$.



Induction on the number $n$ of connectives in $phi$.



Base case $n=0$: $phi=P$ - there isn't any $lnot$ to talk about, so it is vacuously true.



Assume that it holds true for $le n$, prove that it holds true for $n+1$.



$phi=lnot psi$: Number of connectives within $psi=n$, thus it holds true for $psi$. Therefore $v(p)=Tto v(psi)=F$.




As you can see, if $v(psi)=F$, then $v(phi)=v(lnot psi)=T$, which is not what we want. This seems to be an instance of double negation; it can flip whatever truth value to the opposite, so it seems futile to try and show that there is a truth function $lnot$ cannot show, because with double negation you can always show a $T/F$.



The second idea to show that a negation can only show a truth function with one argument, but not one with more than one. But this seems only to be a syntactical problem: yes, you can't show a formula of $>1$ variables with only negation, but you can still draw a truth table for it nonetheless.



So my first question is,




1) what went wrong with my proof, and how to prove $lnot$ is functionally incomplete by showing a property that only this set has?





The second way is to show how many truth functions of $n$ arguments can be represented; if this number is $<2^2^n$, then it is not complete; vice versa.



The book showed how to use this approach to prove that $land$ is incomplete. The number for this set is $2^n -1$. My question is,




2) how do we know the number for $lnot,land,lor=2^2^n$?




It must be so since it is complete, but I just don't know how to prove it.



(The book equivalated formulas $phi$ built up using variables in the set $p_1, p_2, . . . , p_n$ to a normal form where no parenthesis remains and only variables are left, and explained that the number of non-empty subsets of this
set of variables used to build the normal form $=2^n -1$. e.g. $phi=(p_3land p_1)land (p_2land(p_1land p_4))$, normal form=$p_1land p_2 land p_3 land p_4$)



Really appreciate any help offered!







share|cite|improve this question














In my textbook I am introduced to two ways to prove that a set of connectives is functionally incomplete. The first one is to prove that it has a property that not all truth functions do.



I am stuck at finding one such property for $lnot$ (and I can't believe I am so dumb to be stuck...). I have two ideas: first one is to prove that $lnot$ always returns a $F$ for any true argument (thus rendering a truth function that returns $T$ from a true arugment impossible).




Prove that if $phi$ is built up using the variable $P$ with $lnot$, and $v$ is the truth assignment s.t. $v(p)=T$, then $v(phi)=F$.



Induction on the number $n$ of connectives in $phi$.



Base case $n=0$: $phi=P$ - there isn't any $lnot$ to talk about, so it is vacuously true.



Assume that it holds true for $le n$, prove that it holds true for $n+1$.



$phi=lnot psi$: Number of connectives within $psi=n$, thus it holds true for $psi$. Therefore $v(p)=Tto v(psi)=F$.




As you can see, if $v(psi)=F$, then $v(phi)=v(lnot psi)=T$, which is not what we want. This seems to be an instance of double negation; it can flip whatever truth value to the opposite, so it seems futile to try and show that there is a truth function $lnot$ cannot show, because with double negation you can always show a $T/F$.



The second idea to show that a negation can only show a truth function with one argument, but not one with more than one. But this seems only to be a syntactical problem: yes, you can't show a formula of $>1$ variables with only negation, but you can still draw a truth table for it nonetheless.



So my first question is,




1) what went wrong with my proof, and how to prove $lnot$ is functionally incomplete by showing a property that only this set has?





The second way is to show how many truth functions of $n$ arguments can be represented; if this number is $<2^2^n$, then it is not complete; vice versa.



The book showed how to use this approach to prove that $land$ is incomplete. The number for this set is $2^n -1$. My question is,




2) how do we know the number for $lnot,land,lor=2^2^n$?




It must be so since it is complete, but I just don't know how to prove it.



(The book equivalated formulas $phi$ built up using variables in the set $p_1, p_2, . . . , p_n$ to a normal form where no parenthesis remains and only variables are left, and explained that the number of non-empty subsets of this
set of variables used to build the normal form $=2^n -1$. e.g. $phi=(p_3land p_1)land (p_2land(p_1land p_4))$, normal form=$p_1land p_2 land p_3 land p_4$)



Really appreciate any help offered!









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 31 at 5:27

























asked Jan 31 at 5:21









Daniel Mak

365216




365216











  • Using $lnot$ you can only create two functions.
    – copper.hat
    Jan 31 at 5:56






  • 1




    If you assign $F$ to all variables, any formula composed with the connective $land$ has the value $F$.
    – copper.hat
    Jan 31 at 6:02










  • Use the Boole expansion and induction to show that a formula can be created for any given truth table.
    – copper.hat
    Jan 31 at 6:05
















  • Using $lnot$ you can only create two functions.
    – copper.hat
    Jan 31 at 5:56






  • 1




    If you assign $F$ to all variables, any formula composed with the connective $land$ has the value $F$.
    – copper.hat
    Jan 31 at 6:02










  • Use the Boole expansion and induction to show that a formula can be created for any given truth table.
    – copper.hat
    Jan 31 at 6:05















Using $lnot$ you can only create two functions.
– copper.hat
Jan 31 at 5:56




Using $lnot$ you can only create two functions.
– copper.hat
Jan 31 at 5:56




1




1




If you assign $F$ to all variables, any formula composed with the connective $land$ has the value $F$.
– copper.hat
Jan 31 at 6:02




If you assign $F$ to all variables, any formula composed with the connective $land$ has the value $F$.
– copper.hat
Jan 31 at 6:02












Use the Boole expansion and induction to show that a formula can be created for any given truth table.
– copper.hat
Jan 31 at 6:05




Use the Boole expansion and induction to show that a formula can be created for any given truth table.
– copper.hat
Jan 31 at 6:05










2 Answers
2






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oldest

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up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Daniil wrote an excellent post, but just to add to that a little bit:



As Daniil pointed out, you can't capture any truth-functions that non-trivially depend on more than $1$ variable, such as $P land Q$, with only a $neg$. So, let's restrict ourselves to functions defined over one variable, $P$, and see if maybe we can capture all those using a $neg$?



Unfortunately, the answer is still no. Again, as Daniil already pointed out, we can't capture any tautology or contradiction. That is, we can't capture the truth-function that always returns true (i.e. the function $f$ such that $f(T)=f(F)=T$), nor can we capture the truth-function that always returns false (i.e. the function $f'$ such that $f'(T)=f'(F)=F$)



So in this post I just wanted to show you how you can prove that result using induction. In particular, let's prove the following:



Claim



For any expression $phi$ built up from $P$ and $neg$ alone, it will be true that if $v$ is the valuation that sets $P$ to true (i.e. $v(P)=T$), and $v'$ is the valuation that sets $P$ to false (i.e. $v'(P)=F$), then either $v(phi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=F$, or $v'(phi)=T$ and $v(phi)=F$ (in other words, $v(phi)$ and $v'(phi)$ will always opposite values, meaning that $phi$ can not be a tautology or contradiction, for that would require that $phi$ has the same value for any valuation)



Proof



We'll prove the claim by structural induction on the formation of $phi$:



*Base: *



$phi=P$. Then $v(phi)=v(P)=T$, while $v'(phi)=v'(P)=F$. Check!



Step:



If $phi$ is not an atomic proposition, then there is only one possibility: $phi$ is the negation of some other statement $psi$, i.e. $phi = neg psi$.



Now, by inductive hypothesis we can assume that $v(psi)=T$ and $v'(psi)=F$, or $v'(psi)=T$ and $v(psi)=F$



Well, if $v(psi)=T$ and $v'(psi)=F$, then $v(phi)=v(neg psi)=F$ and $v'(phi)=v'(neg psi) =T$. On the other hand, if $v(psi)=F$ and $v'(psi)=T$, then $v(phi)=v(neg psi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=v'(neg psi) =F$. So, we can conclude that $v(phi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=F$, or $v'(phi)=T$ and $v(phi)=F$, as desired.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thank you for your help time and again! The whole approach is crystal clear to me; just wanna follow up: so trying to show that for any formula constructed from $lnot$, $v(p)=Tto v(phi)=F$ would never work because the double negation can always flip it back to $T$, correct? And to prove that $¬$ cannot show any truth function with 2 or more arguments, would we need to use induction or just an argument? Because this seems to be a counter-argument example type of work, so an induction doesn't seem to work, but I am just not sure.
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:35







  • 1




    @DanielMak well, the only kind of statement you can get with only a $neg$ is of the form $neg neg neg .... P$ with $P$ some atomic propsition; I don't think that would need any further elaboration.
    – Bram28
    Feb 2 at 1:33

















up vote
2
down vote













Let's begin with a definition.




A set of classical logical connectives is called “functionally complete” w.r.t. class of Boolean functions iff any Boolean function with a finite number of arguments can be expressed using only the connectives from that set.




In your first question you want to find such a property for negation that there are some other functions lacking it. Well, it is simple: if you have only negation, you cannot do any of the following.



  1. Construct tautologies and contradictory formulas. You can make tautologies, e.g. if you have only implication and XOR is enough for contradictiory formulas.

  2. You cannot construct formulas with more than one variable. This can be done using any function with at least two arguments.

I am sure, there are some other properties.



Now, to your second question.



We can prove an equivalent result: that $wedge,vee,neg$ is functionally complete as defined above. But first let us recall, that there are exactly $2^2^n$ Boolean functions with $n$ arguments. Hence, if $wedge,vee,neg$ is functionally complete, then there will be $2^2^n$ Boolean functions with $n$ arguments for any $n$.



$neg,vee,wedge$ is functionally complete with respect to the class of all $n$-ary Boolean functions.



Assume now, we have arbitrary $n$-ary Boolean function $eta$ defined as follows.



$$beginmatrix p_1&ldots&p_n&eta(p_1,ldots,p_n)\ alpha_1_1&ldots&alpha_1_n&beta_1\ vdots&ddots&vdots&vdots\ alpha_k_1&ldots&alpha_k_n&beta_k\ endmatrix$$



Here $alpha_i_j,beta_iinmathbfT,mathbfF$ and $k=2^n$ with $iin1,ldots,k$ and $jin1,ldots,n$. We construct the conjunction $bigwedgelimits^n_m=1p^*_m$ for every truth value assignment with number $i$ of propositional variables $p_1,ldots,p_n$.



$$p^*_m=left{beginmatrixp_m&Leftrightarrow&alpha_i_j=mathbfT\neg p_m&Leftrightarrow&alpha_i_j=mathbfFendmatrixright.$$
We will call these conjunctions truth constituents.



The proof splits into three parts depending on under how many (none, one, some) assignments $eta(p_1,ldots,p_n)=mathbfT$.



One



Assume $eta$ returns $mathbfT$ on exactly one assignment, say, $alpha_i_1,ldots,alpha_i_n$. We construct a truth constituent for this assignment which contains only negation and conjuction and is true under this assignment. It is quite easy to see that this truth constituent is true only under $alpha_i_1,ldots,alpha_i_n$. The case is proven.



Some



Assume there are $r$ such different assignments that $eta$ is true. We construct a truth constituent $mathbfC_i$ for every such assignment and then join them together into $bigveelimits^r_i=1mathbfC_i$. It is easy to see that our formula is true under the same assignments as $eta$.



None



In this case $eta$ is represented as $bigveelimits^n_i=1(p_iwedgeneg p_i)$. Obviously, this is a contradictory formula.




Now, since we have shown that $wedge,vee,neg$ is indeed functionally complete, we know that for any $n$ it can express any Boolean function with $n$ arguments. Since we know that there are $2^2^n$ of them, we proved what we needed.






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  • Thank you so much for your help! I don't quite understand the diagram you drew to illustrate the Boolean function, but I am guessing you constructed a conjunctive normal form that can represent any truth function? The whole approach is understandable to me, but is there a way to count the number of truth functions any given normal form can represent?
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:22










  • We know that this number for a CNF/DNF is $2^2^n$ because we know there are in total that many truth functions given $n$ arguments, but what if we are given a normal form (eg. like the one I talked about above where a string of conjunction is being rearranged into an orderly one by equivalence) that cannot represent every possible truth function?
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:24











  • And to prove that ¬ cannot show any truth function with 2 or more arguments, would we need to use induction or just an argument along the lines of what you wrote above would do? I think whether to use induction or not is where I am getting stuck with that one. Спасибо!
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:37










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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Daniil wrote an excellent post, but just to add to that a little bit:



As Daniil pointed out, you can't capture any truth-functions that non-trivially depend on more than $1$ variable, such as $P land Q$, with only a $neg$. So, let's restrict ourselves to functions defined over one variable, $P$, and see if maybe we can capture all those using a $neg$?



Unfortunately, the answer is still no. Again, as Daniil already pointed out, we can't capture any tautology or contradiction. That is, we can't capture the truth-function that always returns true (i.e. the function $f$ such that $f(T)=f(F)=T$), nor can we capture the truth-function that always returns false (i.e. the function $f'$ such that $f'(T)=f'(F)=F$)



So in this post I just wanted to show you how you can prove that result using induction. In particular, let's prove the following:



Claim



For any expression $phi$ built up from $P$ and $neg$ alone, it will be true that if $v$ is the valuation that sets $P$ to true (i.e. $v(P)=T$), and $v'$ is the valuation that sets $P$ to false (i.e. $v'(P)=F$), then either $v(phi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=F$, or $v'(phi)=T$ and $v(phi)=F$ (in other words, $v(phi)$ and $v'(phi)$ will always opposite values, meaning that $phi$ can not be a tautology or contradiction, for that would require that $phi$ has the same value for any valuation)



Proof



We'll prove the claim by structural induction on the formation of $phi$:



*Base: *



$phi=P$. Then $v(phi)=v(P)=T$, while $v'(phi)=v'(P)=F$. Check!



Step:



If $phi$ is not an atomic proposition, then there is only one possibility: $phi$ is the negation of some other statement $psi$, i.e. $phi = neg psi$.



Now, by inductive hypothesis we can assume that $v(psi)=T$ and $v'(psi)=F$, or $v'(psi)=T$ and $v(psi)=F$



Well, if $v(psi)=T$ and $v'(psi)=F$, then $v(phi)=v(neg psi)=F$ and $v'(phi)=v'(neg psi) =T$. On the other hand, if $v(psi)=F$ and $v'(psi)=T$, then $v(phi)=v(neg psi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=v'(neg psi) =F$. So, we can conclude that $v(phi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=F$, or $v'(phi)=T$ and $v(phi)=F$, as desired.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thank you for your help time and again! The whole approach is crystal clear to me; just wanna follow up: so trying to show that for any formula constructed from $lnot$, $v(p)=Tto v(phi)=F$ would never work because the double negation can always flip it back to $T$, correct? And to prove that $¬$ cannot show any truth function with 2 or more arguments, would we need to use induction or just an argument? Because this seems to be a counter-argument example type of work, so an induction doesn't seem to work, but I am just not sure.
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:35







  • 1




    @DanielMak well, the only kind of statement you can get with only a $neg$ is of the form $neg neg neg .... P$ with $P$ some atomic propsition; I don't think that would need any further elaboration.
    – Bram28
    Feb 2 at 1:33














up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Daniil wrote an excellent post, but just to add to that a little bit:



As Daniil pointed out, you can't capture any truth-functions that non-trivially depend on more than $1$ variable, such as $P land Q$, with only a $neg$. So, let's restrict ourselves to functions defined over one variable, $P$, and see if maybe we can capture all those using a $neg$?



Unfortunately, the answer is still no. Again, as Daniil already pointed out, we can't capture any tautology or contradiction. That is, we can't capture the truth-function that always returns true (i.e. the function $f$ such that $f(T)=f(F)=T$), nor can we capture the truth-function that always returns false (i.e. the function $f'$ such that $f'(T)=f'(F)=F$)



So in this post I just wanted to show you how you can prove that result using induction. In particular, let's prove the following:



Claim



For any expression $phi$ built up from $P$ and $neg$ alone, it will be true that if $v$ is the valuation that sets $P$ to true (i.e. $v(P)=T$), and $v'$ is the valuation that sets $P$ to false (i.e. $v'(P)=F$), then either $v(phi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=F$, or $v'(phi)=T$ and $v(phi)=F$ (in other words, $v(phi)$ and $v'(phi)$ will always opposite values, meaning that $phi$ can not be a tautology or contradiction, for that would require that $phi$ has the same value for any valuation)



Proof



We'll prove the claim by structural induction on the formation of $phi$:



*Base: *



$phi=P$. Then $v(phi)=v(P)=T$, while $v'(phi)=v'(P)=F$. Check!



Step:



If $phi$ is not an atomic proposition, then there is only one possibility: $phi$ is the negation of some other statement $psi$, i.e. $phi = neg psi$.



Now, by inductive hypothesis we can assume that $v(psi)=T$ and $v'(psi)=F$, or $v'(psi)=T$ and $v(psi)=F$



Well, if $v(psi)=T$ and $v'(psi)=F$, then $v(phi)=v(neg psi)=F$ and $v'(phi)=v'(neg psi) =T$. On the other hand, if $v(psi)=F$ and $v'(psi)=T$, then $v(phi)=v(neg psi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=v'(neg psi) =F$. So, we can conclude that $v(phi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=F$, or $v'(phi)=T$ and $v(phi)=F$, as desired.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thank you for your help time and again! The whole approach is crystal clear to me; just wanna follow up: so trying to show that for any formula constructed from $lnot$, $v(p)=Tto v(phi)=F$ would never work because the double negation can always flip it back to $T$, correct? And to prove that $¬$ cannot show any truth function with 2 or more arguments, would we need to use induction or just an argument? Because this seems to be a counter-argument example type of work, so an induction doesn't seem to work, but I am just not sure.
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:35







  • 1




    @DanielMak well, the only kind of statement you can get with only a $neg$ is of the form $neg neg neg .... P$ with $P$ some atomic propsition; I don't think that would need any further elaboration.
    – Bram28
    Feb 2 at 1:33












up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






Daniil wrote an excellent post, but just to add to that a little bit:



As Daniil pointed out, you can't capture any truth-functions that non-trivially depend on more than $1$ variable, such as $P land Q$, with only a $neg$. So, let's restrict ourselves to functions defined over one variable, $P$, and see if maybe we can capture all those using a $neg$?



Unfortunately, the answer is still no. Again, as Daniil already pointed out, we can't capture any tautology or contradiction. That is, we can't capture the truth-function that always returns true (i.e. the function $f$ such that $f(T)=f(F)=T$), nor can we capture the truth-function that always returns false (i.e. the function $f'$ such that $f'(T)=f'(F)=F$)



So in this post I just wanted to show you how you can prove that result using induction. In particular, let's prove the following:



Claim



For any expression $phi$ built up from $P$ and $neg$ alone, it will be true that if $v$ is the valuation that sets $P$ to true (i.e. $v(P)=T$), and $v'$ is the valuation that sets $P$ to false (i.e. $v'(P)=F$), then either $v(phi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=F$, or $v'(phi)=T$ and $v(phi)=F$ (in other words, $v(phi)$ and $v'(phi)$ will always opposite values, meaning that $phi$ can not be a tautology or contradiction, for that would require that $phi$ has the same value for any valuation)



Proof



We'll prove the claim by structural induction on the formation of $phi$:



*Base: *



$phi=P$. Then $v(phi)=v(P)=T$, while $v'(phi)=v'(P)=F$. Check!



Step:



If $phi$ is not an atomic proposition, then there is only one possibility: $phi$ is the negation of some other statement $psi$, i.e. $phi = neg psi$.



Now, by inductive hypothesis we can assume that $v(psi)=T$ and $v'(psi)=F$, or $v'(psi)=T$ and $v(psi)=F$



Well, if $v(psi)=T$ and $v'(psi)=F$, then $v(phi)=v(neg psi)=F$ and $v'(phi)=v'(neg psi) =T$. On the other hand, if $v(psi)=F$ and $v'(psi)=T$, then $v(phi)=v(neg psi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=v'(neg psi) =F$. So, we can conclude that $v(phi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=F$, or $v'(phi)=T$ and $v(phi)=F$, as desired.






share|cite|improve this answer












Daniil wrote an excellent post, but just to add to that a little bit:



As Daniil pointed out, you can't capture any truth-functions that non-trivially depend on more than $1$ variable, such as $P land Q$, with only a $neg$. So, let's restrict ourselves to functions defined over one variable, $P$, and see if maybe we can capture all those using a $neg$?



Unfortunately, the answer is still no. Again, as Daniil already pointed out, we can't capture any tautology or contradiction. That is, we can't capture the truth-function that always returns true (i.e. the function $f$ such that $f(T)=f(F)=T$), nor can we capture the truth-function that always returns false (i.e. the function $f'$ such that $f'(T)=f'(F)=F$)



So in this post I just wanted to show you how you can prove that result using induction. In particular, let's prove the following:



Claim



For any expression $phi$ built up from $P$ and $neg$ alone, it will be true that if $v$ is the valuation that sets $P$ to true (i.e. $v(P)=T$), and $v'$ is the valuation that sets $P$ to false (i.e. $v'(P)=F$), then either $v(phi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=F$, or $v'(phi)=T$ and $v(phi)=F$ (in other words, $v(phi)$ and $v'(phi)$ will always opposite values, meaning that $phi$ can not be a tautology or contradiction, for that would require that $phi$ has the same value for any valuation)



Proof



We'll prove the claim by structural induction on the formation of $phi$:



*Base: *



$phi=P$. Then $v(phi)=v(P)=T$, while $v'(phi)=v'(P)=F$. Check!



Step:



If $phi$ is not an atomic proposition, then there is only one possibility: $phi$ is the negation of some other statement $psi$, i.e. $phi = neg psi$.



Now, by inductive hypothesis we can assume that $v(psi)=T$ and $v'(psi)=F$, or $v'(psi)=T$ and $v(psi)=F$



Well, if $v(psi)=T$ and $v'(psi)=F$, then $v(phi)=v(neg psi)=F$ and $v'(phi)=v'(neg psi) =T$. On the other hand, if $v(psi)=F$ and $v'(psi)=T$, then $v(phi)=v(neg psi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=v'(neg psi) =F$. So, we can conclude that $v(phi)=T$ and $v'(phi)=F$, or $v'(phi)=T$ and $v(phi)=F$, as desired.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 31 at 15:03









Bram28

55.5k33982




55.5k33982











  • Thank you for your help time and again! The whole approach is crystal clear to me; just wanna follow up: so trying to show that for any formula constructed from $lnot$, $v(p)=Tto v(phi)=F$ would never work because the double negation can always flip it back to $T$, correct? And to prove that $¬$ cannot show any truth function with 2 or more arguments, would we need to use induction or just an argument? Because this seems to be a counter-argument example type of work, so an induction doesn't seem to work, but I am just not sure.
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:35







  • 1




    @DanielMak well, the only kind of statement you can get with only a $neg$ is of the form $neg neg neg .... P$ with $P$ some atomic propsition; I don't think that would need any further elaboration.
    – Bram28
    Feb 2 at 1:33
















  • Thank you for your help time and again! The whole approach is crystal clear to me; just wanna follow up: so trying to show that for any formula constructed from $lnot$, $v(p)=Tto v(phi)=F$ would never work because the double negation can always flip it back to $T$, correct? And to prove that $¬$ cannot show any truth function with 2 or more arguments, would we need to use induction or just an argument? Because this seems to be a counter-argument example type of work, so an induction doesn't seem to work, but I am just not sure.
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:35







  • 1




    @DanielMak well, the only kind of statement you can get with only a $neg$ is of the form $neg neg neg .... P$ with $P$ some atomic propsition; I don't think that would need any further elaboration.
    – Bram28
    Feb 2 at 1:33















Thank you for your help time and again! The whole approach is crystal clear to me; just wanna follow up: so trying to show that for any formula constructed from $lnot$, $v(p)=Tto v(phi)=F$ would never work because the double negation can always flip it back to $T$, correct? And to prove that $¬$ cannot show any truth function with 2 or more arguments, would we need to use induction or just an argument? Because this seems to be a counter-argument example type of work, so an induction doesn't seem to work, but I am just not sure.
– Daniel Mak
Feb 2 at 0:35





Thank you for your help time and again! The whole approach is crystal clear to me; just wanna follow up: so trying to show that for any formula constructed from $lnot$, $v(p)=Tto v(phi)=F$ would never work because the double negation can always flip it back to $T$, correct? And to prove that $¬$ cannot show any truth function with 2 or more arguments, would we need to use induction or just an argument? Because this seems to be a counter-argument example type of work, so an induction doesn't seem to work, but I am just not sure.
– Daniel Mak
Feb 2 at 0:35





1




1




@DanielMak well, the only kind of statement you can get with only a $neg$ is of the form $neg neg neg .... P$ with $P$ some atomic propsition; I don't think that would need any further elaboration.
– Bram28
Feb 2 at 1:33




@DanielMak well, the only kind of statement you can get with only a $neg$ is of the form $neg neg neg .... P$ with $P$ some atomic propsition; I don't think that would need any further elaboration.
– Bram28
Feb 2 at 1:33










up vote
2
down vote













Let's begin with a definition.




A set of classical logical connectives is called “functionally complete” w.r.t. class of Boolean functions iff any Boolean function with a finite number of arguments can be expressed using only the connectives from that set.




In your first question you want to find such a property for negation that there are some other functions lacking it. Well, it is simple: if you have only negation, you cannot do any of the following.



  1. Construct tautologies and contradictory formulas. You can make tautologies, e.g. if you have only implication and XOR is enough for contradictiory formulas.

  2. You cannot construct formulas with more than one variable. This can be done using any function with at least two arguments.

I am sure, there are some other properties.



Now, to your second question.



We can prove an equivalent result: that $wedge,vee,neg$ is functionally complete as defined above. But first let us recall, that there are exactly $2^2^n$ Boolean functions with $n$ arguments. Hence, if $wedge,vee,neg$ is functionally complete, then there will be $2^2^n$ Boolean functions with $n$ arguments for any $n$.



$neg,vee,wedge$ is functionally complete with respect to the class of all $n$-ary Boolean functions.



Assume now, we have arbitrary $n$-ary Boolean function $eta$ defined as follows.



$$beginmatrix p_1&ldots&p_n&eta(p_1,ldots,p_n)\ alpha_1_1&ldots&alpha_1_n&beta_1\ vdots&ddots&vdots&vdots\ alpha_k_1&ldots&alpha_k_n&beta_k\ endmatrix$$



Here $alpha_i_j,beta_iinmathbfT,mathbfF$ and $k=2^n$ with $iin1,ldots,k$ and $jin1,ldots,n$. We construct the conjunction $bigwedgelimits^n_m=1p^*_m$ for every truth value assignment with number $i$ of propositional variables $p_1,ldots,p_n$.



$$p^*_m=left{beginmatrixp_m&Leftrightarrow&alpha_i_j=mathbfT\neg p_m&Leftrightarrow&alpha_i_j=mathbfFendmatrixright.$$
We will call these conjunctions truth constituents.



The proof splits into three parts depending on under how many (none, one, some) assignments $eta(p_1,ldots,p_n)=mathbfT$.



One



Assume $eta$ returns $mathbfT$ on exactly one assignment, say, $alpha_i_1,ldots,alpha_i_n$. We construct a truth constituent for this assignment which contains only negation and conjuction and is true under this assignment. It is quite easy to see that this truth constituent is true only under $alpha_i_1,ldots,alpha_i_n$. The case is proven.



Some



Assume there are $r$ such different assignments that $eta$ is true. We construct a truth constituent $mathbfC_i$ for every such assignment and then join them together into $bigveelimits^r_i=1mathbfC_i$. It is easy to see that our formula is true under the same assignments as $eta$.



None



In this case $eta$ is represented as $bigveelimits^n_i=1(p_iwedgeneg p_i)$. Obviously, this is a contradictory formula.




Now, since we have shown that $wedge,vee,neg$ is indeed functionally complete, we know that for any $n$ it can express any Boolean function with $n$ arguments. Since we know that there are $2^2^n$ of them, we proved what we needed.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Thank you so much for your help! I don't quite understand the diagram you drew to illustrate the Boolean function, but I am guessing you constructed a conjunctive normal form that can represent any truth function? The whole approach is understandable to me, but is there a way to count the number of truth functions any given normal form can represent?
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:22










  • We know that this number for a CNF/DNF is $2^2^n$ because we know there are in total that many truth functions given $n$ arguments, but what if we are given a normal form (eg. like the one I talked about above where a string of conjunction is being rearranged into an orderly one by equivalence) that cannot represent every possible truth function?
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:24











  • And to prove that ¬ cannot show any truth function with 2 or more arguments, would we need to use induction or just an argument along the lines of what you wrote above would do? I think whether to use induction or not is where I am getting stuck with that one. Спасибо!
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:37














up vote
2
down vote













Let's begin with a definition.




A set of classical logical connectives is called “functionally complete” w.r.t. class of Boolean functions iff any Boolean function with a finite number of arguments can be expressed using only the connectives from that set.




In your first question you want to find such a property for negation that there are some other functions lacking it. Well, it is simple: if you have only negation, you cannot do any of the following.



  1. Construct tautologies and contradictory formulas. You can make tautologies, e.g. if you have only implication and XOR is enough for contradictiory formulas.

  2. You cannot construct formulas with more than one variable. This can be done using any function with at least two arguments.

I am sure, there are some other properties.



Now, to your second question.



We can prove an equivalent result: that $wedge,vee,neg$ is functionally complete as defined above. But first let us recall, that there are exactly $2^2^n$ Boolean functions with $n$ arguments. Hence, if $wedge,vee,neg$ is functionally complete, then there will be $2^2^n$ Boolean functions with $n$ arguments for any $n$.



$neg,vee,wedge$ is functionally complete with respect to the class of all $n$-ary Boolean functions.



Assume now, we have arbitrary $n$-ary Boolean function $eta$ defined as follows.



$$beginmatrix p_1&ldots&p_n&eta(p_1,ldots,p_n)\ alpha_1_1&ldots&alpha_1_n&beta_1\ vdots&ddots&vdots&vdots\ alpha_k_1&ldots&alpha_k_n&beta_k\ endmatrix$$



Here $alpha_i_j,beta_iinmathbfT,mathbfF$ and $k=2^n$ with $iin1,ldots,k$ and $jin1,ldots,n$. We construct the conjunction $bigwedgelimits^n_m=1p^*_m$ for every truth value assignment with number $i$ of propositional variables $p_1,ldots,p_n$.



$$p^*_m=left{beginmatrixp_m&Leftrightarrow&alpha_i_j=mathbfT\neg p_m&Leftrightarrow&alpha_i_j=mathbfFendmatrixright.$$
We will call these conjunctions truth constituents.



The proof splits into three parts depending on under how many (none, one, some) assignments $eta(p_1,ldots,p_n)=mathbfT$.



One



Assume $eta$ returns $mathbfT$ on exactly one assignment, say, $alpha_i_1,ldots,alpha_i_n$. We construct a truth constituent for this assignment which contains only negation and conjuction and is true under this assignment. It is quite easy to see that this truth constituent is true only under $alpha_i_1,ldots,alpha_i_n$. The case is proven.



Some



Assume there are $r$ such different assignments that $eta$ is true. We construct a truth constituent $mathbfC_i$ for every such assignment and then join them together into $bigveelimits^r_i=1mathbfC_i$. It is easy to see that our formula is true under the same assignments as $eta$.



None



In this case $eta$ is represented as $bigveelimits^n_i=1(p_iwedgeneg p_i)$. Obviously, this is a contradictory formula.




Now, since we have shown that $wedge,vee,neg$ is indeed functionally complete, we know that for any $n$ it can express any Boolean function with $n$ arguments. Since we know that there are $2^2^n$ of them, we proved what we needed.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Thank you so much for your help! I don't quite understand the diagram you drew to illustrate the Boolean function, but I am guessing you constructed a conjunctive normal form that can represent any truth function? The whole approach is understandable to me, but is there a way to count the number of truth functions any given normal form can represent?
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:22










  • We know that this number for a CNF/DNF is $2^2^n$ because we know there are in total that many truth functions given $n$ arguments, but what if we are given a normal form (eg. like the one I talked about above where a string of conjunction is being rearranged into an orderly one by equivalence) that cannot represent every possible truth function?
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:24











  • And to prove that ¬ cannot show any truth function with 2 or more arguments, would we need to use induction or just an argument along the lines of what you wrote above would do? I think whether to use induction or not is where I am getting stuck with that one. Спасибо!
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:37












up vote
2
down vote










up vote
2
down vote









Let's begin with a definition.




A set of classical logical connectives is called “functionally complete” w.r.t. class of Boolean functions iff any Boolean function with a finite number of arguments can be expressed using only the connectives from that set.




In your first question you want to find such a property for negation that there are some other functions lacking it. Well, it is simple: if you have only negation, you cannot do any of the following.



  1. Construct tautologies and contradictory formulas. You can make tautologies, e.g. if you have only implication and XOR is enough for contradictiory formulas.

  2. You cannot construct formulas with more than one variable. This can be done using any function with at least two arguments.

I am sure, there are some other properties.



Now, to your second question.



We can prove an equivalent result: that $wedge,vee,neg$ is functionally complete as defined above. But first let us recall, that there are exactly $2^2^n$ Boolean functions with $n$ arguments. Hence, if $wedge,vee,neg$ is functionally complete, then there will be $2^2^n$ Boolean functions with $n$ arguments for any $n$.



$neg,vee,wedge$ is functionally complete with respect to the class of all $n$-ary Boolean functions.



Assume now, we have arbitrary $n$-ary Boolean function $eta$ defined as follows.



$$beginmatrix p_1&ldots&p_n&eta(p_1,ldots,p_n)\ alpha_1_1&ldots&alpha_1_n&beta_1\ vdots&ddots&vdots&vdots\ alpha_k_1&ldots&alpha_k_n&beta_k\ endmatrix$$



Here $alpha_i_j,beta_iinmathbfT,mathbfF$ and $k=2^n$ with $iin1,ldots,k$ and $jin1,ldots,n$. We construct the conjunction $bigwedgelimits^n_m=1p^*_m$ for every truth value assignment with number $i$ of propositional variables $p_1,ldots,p_n$.



$$p^*_m=left{beginmatrixp_m&Leftrightarrow&alpha_i_j=mathbfT\neg p_m&Leftrightarrow&alpha_i_j=mathbfFendmatrixright.$$
We will call these conjunctions truth constituents.



The proof splits into three parts depending on under how many (none, one, some) assignments $eta(p_1,ldots,p_n)=mathbfT$.



One



Assume $eta$ returns $mathbfT$ on exactly one assignment, say, $alpha_i_1,ldots,alpha_i_n$. We construct a truth constituent for this assignment which contains only negation and conjuction and is true under this assignment. It is quite easy to see that this truth constituent is true only under $alpha_i_1,ldots,alpha_i_n$. The case is proven.



Some



Assume there are $r$ such different assignments that $eta$ is true. We construct a truth constituent $mathbfC_i$ for every such assignment and then join them together into $bigveelimits^r_i=1mathbfC_i$. It is easy to see that our formula is true under the same assignments as $eta$.



None



In this case $eta$ is represented as $bigveelimits^n_i=1(p_iwedgeneg p_i)$. Obviously, this is a contradictory formula.




Now, since we have shown that $wedge,vee,neg$ is indeed functionally complete, we know that for any $n$ it can express any Boolean function with $n$ arguments. Since we know that there are $2^2^n$ of them, we proved what we needed.






share|cite|improve this answer














Let's begin with a definition.




A set of classical logical connectives is called “functionally complete” w.r.t. class of Boolean functions iff any Boolean function with a finite number of arguments can be expressed using only the connectives from that set.




In your first question you want to find such a property for negation that there are some other functions lacking it. Well, it is simple: if you have only negation, you cannot do any of the following.



  1. Construct tautologies and contradictory formulas. You can make tautologies, e.g. if you have only implication and XOR is enough for contradictiory formulas.

  2. You cannot construct formulas with more than one variable. This can be done using any function with at least two arguments.

I am sure, there are some other properties.



Now, to your second question.



We can prove an equivalent result: that $wedge,vee,neg$ is functionally complete as defined above. But first let us recall, that there are exactly $2^2^n$ Boolean functions with $n$ arguments. Hence, if $wedge,vee,neg$ is functionally complete, then there will be $2^2^n$ Boolean functions with $n$ arguments for any $n$.



$neg,vee,wedge$ is functionally complete with respect to the class of all $n$-ary Boolean functions.



Assume now, we have arbitrary $n$-ary Boolean function $eta$ defined as follows.



$$beginmatrix p_1&ldots&p_n&eta(p_1,ldots,p_n)\ alpha_1_1&ldots&alpha_1_n&beta_1\ vdots&ddots&vdots&vdots\ alpha_k_1&ldots&alpha_k_n&beta_k\ endmatrix$$



Here $alpha_i_j,beta_iinmathbfT,mathbfF$ and $k=2^n$ with $iin1,ldots,k$ and $jin1,ldots,n$. We construct the conjunction $bigwedgelimits^n_m=1p^*_m$ for every truth value assignment with number $i$ of propositional variables $p_1,ldots,p_n$.



$$p^*_m=left{beginmatrixp_m&Leftrightarrow&alpha_i_j=mathbfT\neg p_m&Leftrightarrow&alpha_i_j=mathbfFendmatrixright.$$
We will call these conjunctions truth constituents.



The proof splits into three parts depending on under how many (none, one, some) assignments $eta(p_1,ldots,p_n)=mathbfT$.



One



Assume $eta$ returns $mathbfT$ on exactly one assignment, say, $alpha_i_1,ldots,alpha_i_n$. We construct a truth constituent for this assignment which contains only negation and conjuction and is true under this assignment. It is quite easy to see that this truth constituent is true only under $alpha_i_1,ldots,alpha_i_n$. The case is proven.



Some



Assume there are $r$ such different assignments that $eta$ is true. We construct a truth constituent $mathbfC_i$ for every such assignment and then join them together into $bigveelimits^r_i=1mathbfC_i$. It is easy to see that our formula is true under the same assignments as $eta$.



None



In this case $eta$ is represented as $bigveelimits^n_i=1(p_iwedgeneg p_i)$. Obviously, this is a contradictory formula.




Now, since we have shown that $wedge,vee,neg$ is indeed functionally complete, we know that for any $n$ it can express any Boolean function with $n$ arguments. Since we know that there are $2^2^n$ of them, we proved what we needed.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 26 at 11:20

























answered Jan 31 at 13:06









Daniil Kozhemiachenko

1437




1437











  • Thank you so much for your help! I don't quite understand the diagram you drew to illustrate the Boolean function, but I am guessing you constructed a conjunctive normal form that can represent any truth function? The whole approach is understandable to me, but is there a way to count the number of truth functions any given normal form can represent?
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:22










  • We know that this number for a CNF/DNF is $2^2^n$ because we know there are in total that many truth functions given $n$ arguments, but what if we are given a normal form (eg. like the one I talked about above where a string of conjunction is being rearranged into an orderly one by equivalence) that cannot represent every possible truth function?
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:24











  • And to prove that ¬ cannot show any truth function with 2 or more arguments, would we need to use induction or just an argument along the lines of what you wrote above would do? I think whether to use induction or not is where I am getting stuck with that one. Спасибо!
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:37
















  • Thank you so much for your help! I don't quite understand the diagram you drew to illustrate the Boolean function, but I am guessing you constructed a conjunctive normal form that can represent any truth function? The whole approach is understandable to me, but is there a way to count the number of truth functions any given normal form can represent?
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:22










  • We know that this number for a CNF/DNF is $2^2^n$ because we know there are in total that many truth functions given $n$ arguments, but what if we are given a normal form (eg. like the one I talked about above where a string of conjunction is being rearranged into an orderly one by equivalence) that cannot represent every possible truth function?
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:24











  • And to prove that ¬ cannot show any truth function with 2 or more arguments, would we need to use induction or just an argument along the lines of what you wrote above would do? I think whether to use induction or not is where I am getting stuck with that one. Спасибо!
    – Daniel Mak
    Feb 2 at 0:37















Thank you so much for your help! I don't quite understand the diagram you drew to illustrate the Boolean function, but I am guessing you constructed a conjunctive normal form that can represent any truth function? The whole approach is understandable to me, but is there a way to count the number of truth functions any given normal form can represent?
– Daniel Mak
Feb 2 at 0:22




Thank you so much for your help! I don't quite understand the diagram you drew to illustrate the Boolean function, but I am guessing you constructed a conjunctive normal form that can represent any truth function? The whole approach is understandable to me, but is there a way to count the number of truth functions any given normal form can represent?
– Daniel Mak
Feb 2 at 0:22












We know that this number for a CNF/DNF is $2^2^n$ because we know there are in total that many truth functions given $n$ arguments, but what if we are given a normal form (eg. like the one I talked about above where a string of conjunction is being rearranged into an orderly one by equivalence) that cannot represent every possible truth function?
– Daniel Mak
Feb 2 at 0:24





We know that this number for a CNF/DNF is $2^2^n$ because we know there are in total that many truth functions given $n$ arguments, but what if we are given a normal form (eg. like the one I talked about above where a string of conjunction is being rearranged into an orderly one by equivalence) that cannot represent every possible truth function?
– Daniel Mak
Feb 2 at 0:24













And to prove that ¬ cannot show any truth function with 2 or more arguments, would we need to use induction or just an argument along the lines of what you wrote above would do? I think whether to use induction or not is where I am getting stuck with that one. Спасибо!
– Daniel Mak
Feb 2 at 0:37




And to prove that ¬ cannot show any truth function with 2 or more arguments, would we need to use induction or just an argument along the lines of what you wrote above would do? I think whether to use induction or not is where I am getting stuck with that one. Спасибо!
– Daniel Mak
Feb 2 at 0:37

















 

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