Fully faithful nerve â¹ injective on objects?
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If $i: C ⶠD$ (where $C$ is a small subcategory of $D$) is the inclusion functor, and $N_i := rm Hom(i(=), -)$ is the nerve of $i$, is it true that $N_i$ is injective on objects as soon as it is fully faithful?
(because if it is fully faithful, $i$ is dense, so I venture that this may be enough to deduce the injectivity of $N_i$ on objects)
category-theory functors hom-functor
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If $i: C ⶠD$ (where $C$ is a small subcategory of $D$) is the inclusion functor, and $N_i := rm Hom(i(=), -)$ is the nerve of $i$, is it true that $N_i$ is injective on objects as soon as it is fully faithful?
(because if it is fully faithful, $i$ is dense, so I venture that this may be enough to deduce the injectivity of $N_i$ on objects)
category-theory functors hom-functor
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
If $i: C ⶠD$ (where $C$ is a small subcategory of $D$) is the inclusion functor, and $N_i := rm Hom(i(=), -)$ is the nerve of $i$, is it true that $N_i$ is injective on objects as soon as it is fully faithful?
(because if it is fully faithful, $i$ is dense, so I venture that this may be enough to deduce the injectivity of $N_i$ on objects)
category-theory functors hom-functor
If $i: C ⶠD$ (where $C$ is a small subcategory of $D$) is the inclusion functor, and $N_i := rm Hom(i(=), -)$ is the nerve of $i$, is it true that $N_i$ is injective on objects as soon as it is fully faithful?
(because if it is fully faithful, $i$ is dense, so I venture that this may be enough to deduce the injectivity of $N_i$ on objects)
category-theory functors hom-functor
asked Aug 26 at 8:50
Cooke4
325
325
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It's an odd question, because this depends on your conventions about homsets. Under many conventions, $N_i$ is injective on objects as soon as $C$ admits maps into every object of $D$, the point being that $Hom(c,d)$ is never equal to $Hom(c',d')$, unless perhaps they're both empty. Many foundations assume this disjointness of homsets. But it's awkward to think about equality of sets, and it's hard to see what this would do for you. In any case, this has nothing to do with density of $i$, and you could make your conventions so that $N_i$ needn't be injective on objects even with $i$ an identity if you really wanted: just take a category with two isomorphic objects such that all four morphisms are equal.
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
It's an odd question, because this depends on your conventions about homsets. Under many conventions, $N_i$ is injective on objects as soon as $C$ admits maps into every object of $D$, the point being that $Hom(c,d)$ is never equal to $Hom(c',d')$, unless perhaps they're both empty. Many foundations assume this disjointness of homsets. But it's awkward to think about equality of sets, and it's hard to see what this would do for you. In any case, this has nothing to do with density of $i$, and you could make your conventions so that $N_i$ needn't be injective on objects even with $i$ an identity if you really wanted: just take a category with two isomorphic objects such that all four morphisms are equal.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
It's an odd question, because this depends on your conventions about homsets. Under many conventions, $N_i$ is injective on objects as soon as $C$ admits maps into every object of $D$, the point being that $Hom(c,d)$ is never equal to $Hom(c',d')$, unless perhaps they're both empty. Many foundations assume this disjointness of homsets. But it's awkward to think about equality of sets, and it's hard to see what this would do for you. In any case, this has nothing to do with density of $i$, and you could make your conventions so that $N_i$ needn't be injective on objects even with $i$ an identity if you really wanted: just take a category with two isomorphic objects such that all four morphisms are equal.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
It's an odd question, because this depends on your conventions about homsets. Under many conventions, $N_i$ is injective on objects as soon as $C$ admits maps into every object of $D$, the point being that $Hom(c,d)$ is never equal to $Hom(c',d')$, unless perhaps they're both empty. Many foundations assume this disjointness of homsets. But it's awkward to think about equality of sets, and it's hard to see what this would do for you. In any case, this has nothing to do with density of $i$, and you could make your conventions so that $N_i$ needn't be injective on objects even with $i$ an identity if you really wanted: just take a category with two isomorphic objects such that all four morphisms are equal.
It's an odd question, because this depends on your conventions about homsets. Under many conventions, $N_i$ is injective on objects as soon as $C$ admits maps into every object of $D$, the point being that $Hom(c,d)$ is never equal to $Hom(c',d')$, unless perhaps they're both empty. Many foundations assume this disjointness of homsets. But it's awkward to think about equality of sets, and it's hard to see what this would do for you. In any case, this has nothing to do with density of $i$, and you could make your conventions so that $N_i$ needn't be injective on objects even with $i$ an identity if you really wanted: just take a category with two isomorphic objects such that all four morphisms are equal.
answered Aug 26 at 17:09
Kevin Carlson
29.5k23066
29.5k23066
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