Proof By Contradiction With Rational and Irrational Numbers

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The question I am working on is:




Use a proof by contradiction to prove that the sum of an irrational number and a rational number is irrational.




After searching through Google, to see if this particular question had been asked before, I found this: http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20081012182747AA3AaHz



I am looking exclusively at Charles' answer. I understand the proof, and its steps, I just don't understand how it proves the original statement is true; I only see it as proving that, if you add two rational numbers, you get another rational number. Could someone help me?







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  • 1




    Do you understand proof by contradiction?
    – Thomas Andrews
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:31










  • @ThomasAndrews Yes, I do. Essentially, the idea is that you proof that something, say $q$, implies something that is, say $p$, and something that isn't, say $neg p$. Hence, $q implies (p wedge neg p)$ Which is absurd: something can't both be and not be at the same time--unless, of course, we are discussing quantum mechanics.
    – Mack
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:37











  • Okay, now define your $p$ and $q$.
    – Joe Z.
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:39










  • Well, I know that $p$ would definitely be that "$i$ is irrational"; however, I am not sure exactly what $q$ would be. Would $q$ be "the sum of a rational and irrational number?"
    – Mack
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:42











  • @Mack q⟹(p∧¬p) isn't saying that something is: both be and not be at the same time For instance if p is true then ¬p is false, it's not saying that p=¬p, such would be false which is the same logic here: p∧¬p. Ultimately they're not the same, and they are logical opposites.
    – CTS_AE
    May 17 '17 at 4:38














up vote
3
down vote

favorite












The question I am working on is:




Use a proof by contradiction to prove that the sum of an irrational number and a rational number is irrational.




After searching through Google, to see if this particular question had been asked before, I found this: http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20081012182747AA3AaHz



I am looking exclusively at Charles' answer. I understand the proof, and its steps, I just don't understand how it proves the original statement is true; I only see it as proving that, if you add two rational numbers, you get another rational number. Could someone help me?







share|cite|improve this question
















  • 1




    Do you understand proof by contradiction?
    – Thomas Andrews
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:31










  • @ThomasAndrews Yes, I do. Essentially, the idea is that you proof that something, say $q$, implies something that is, say $p$, and something that isn't, say $neg p$. Hence, $q implies (p wedge neg p)$ Which is absurd: something can't both be and not be at the same time--unless, of course, we are discussing quantum mechanics.
    – Mack
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:37











  • Okay, now define your $p$ and $q$.
    – Joe Z.
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:39










  • Well, I know that $p$ would definitely be that "$i$ is irrational"; however, I am not sure exactly what $q$ would be. Would $q$ be "the sum of a rational and irrational number?"
    – Mack
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:42











  • @Mack q⟹(p∧¬p) isn't saying that something is: both be and not be at the same time For instance if p is true then ¬p is false, it's not saying that p=¬p, such would be false which is the same logic here: p∧¬p. Ultimately they're not the same, and they are logical opposites.
    – CTS_AE
    May 17 '17 at 4:38












up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











The question I am working on is:




Use a proof by contradiction to prove that the sum of an irrational number and a rational number is irrational.




After searching through Google, to see if this particular question had been asked before, I found this: http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20081012182747AA3AaHz



I am looking exclusively at Charles' answer. I understand the proof, and its steps, I just don't understand how it proves the original statement is true; I only see it as proving that, if you add two rational numbers, you get another rational number. Could someone help me?







share|cite|improve this question












The question I am working on is:




Use a proof by contradiction to prove that the sum of an irrational number and a rational number is irrational.




After searching through Google, to see if this particular question had been asked before, I found this: http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20081012182747AA3AaHz



I am looking exclusively at Charles' answer. I understand the proof, and its steps, I just don't understand how it proves the original statement is true; I only see it as proving that, if you add two rational numbers, you get another rational number. Could someone help me?









share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Feb 14 '13 at 13:24









Mack

1,9611462114




1,9611462114







  • 1




    Do you understand proof by contradiction?
    – Thomas Andrews
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:31










  • @ThomasAndrews Yes, I do. Essentially, the idea is that you proof that something, say $q$, implies something that is, say $p$, and something that isn't, say $neg p$. Hence, $q implies (p wedge neg p)$ Which is absurd: something can't both be and not be at the same time--unless, of course, we are discussing quantum mechanics.
    – Mack
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:37











  • Okay, now define your $p$ and $q$.
    – Joe Z.
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:39










  • Well, I know that $p$ would definitely be that "$i$ is irrational"; however, I am not sure exactly what $q$ would be. Would $q$ be "the sum of a rational and irrational number?"
    – Mack
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:42











  • @Mack q⟹(p∧¬p) isn't saying that something is: both be and not be at the same time For instance if p is true then ¬p is false, it's not saying that p=¬p, such would be false which is the same logic here: p∧¬p. Ultimately they're not the same, and they are logical opposites.
    – CTS_AE
    May 17 '17 at 4:38












  • 1




    Do you understand proof by contradiction?
    – Thomas Andrews
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:31










  • @ThomasAndrews Yes, I do. Essentially, the idea is that you proof that something, say $q$, implies something that is, say $p$, and something that isn't, say $neg p$. Hence, $q implies (p wedge neg p)$ Which is absurd: something can't both be and not be at the same time--unless, of course, we are discussing quantum mechanics.
    – Mack
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:37











  • Okay, now define your $p$ and $q$.
    – Joe Z.
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:39










  • Well, I know that $p$ would definitely be that "$i$ is irrational"; however, I am not sure exactly what $q$ would be. Would $q$ be "the sum of a rational and irrational number?"
    – Mack
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:42











  • @Mack q⟹(p∧¬p) isn't saying that something is: both be and not be at the same time For instance if p is true then ¬p is false, it's not saying that p=¬p, such would be false which is the same logic here: p∧¬p. Ultimately they're not the same, and they are logical opposites.
    – CTS_AE
    May 17 '17 at 4:38







1




1




Do you understand proof by contradiction?
– Thomas Andrews
Feb 14 '13 at 13:31




Do you understand proof by contradiction?
– Thomas Andrews
Feb 14 '13 at 13:31












@ThomasAndrews Yes, I do. Essentially, the idea is that you proof that something, say $q$, implies something that is, say $p$, and something that isn't, say $neg p$. Hence, $q implies (p wedge neg p)$ Which is absurd: something can't both be and not be at the same time--unless, of course, we are discussing quantum mechanics.
– Mack
Feb 14 '13 at 13:37





@ThomasAndrews Yes, I do. Essentially, the idea is that you proof that something, say $q$, implies something that is, say $p$, and something that isn't, say $neg p$. Hence, $q implies (p wedge neg p)$ Which is absurd: something can't both be and not be at the same time--unless, of course, we are discussing quantum mechanics.
– Mack
Feb 14 '13 at 13:37













Okay, now define your $p$ and $q$.
– Joe Z.
Feb 14 '13 at 13:39




Okay, now define your $p$ and $q$.
– Joe Z.
Feb 14 '13 at 13:39












Well, I know that $p$ would definitely be that "$i$ is irrational"; however, I am not sure exactly what $q$ would be. Would $q$ be "the sum of a rational and irrational number?"
– Mack
Feb 14 '13 at 13:42





Well, I know that $p$ would definitely be that "$i$ is irrational"; however, I am not sure exactly what $q$ would be. Would $q$ be "the sum of a rational and irrational number?"
– Mack
Feb 14 '13 at 13:42













@Mack q⟹(p∧¬p) isn't saying that something is: both be and not be at the same time For instance if p is true then ¬p is false, it's not saying that p=¬p, such would be false which is the same logic here: p∧¬p. Ultimately they're not the same, and they are logical opposites.
– CTS_AE
May 17 '17 at 4:38




@Mack q⟹(p∧¬p) isn't saying that something is: both be and not be at the same time For instance if p is true then ¬p is false, it's not saying that p=¬p, such would be false which is the same logic here: p∧¬p. Ultimately they're not the same, and they are logical opposites.
– CTS_AE
May 17 '17 at 4:38










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
5
down vote



accepted










He starts by assuming you can find rational $r$ and irrational $i$ that have rational sum $s$. Using a direct proof that the difference of two rationals is rational, he shows that this assumption leads to a contradiction. Therefore you cannot find a rational and irrational that sum to a rational, so the sum of a rational and irrational is always irrational.






share|cite|improve this answer
















  • 1




    Oh, I see. It's as if we have two cases: a rational + irrational can equal either a rational or irrational; we've ruled out that it can't be rational, therefore, it must be irrational. Is that correct thinking?
    – Mack
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:39







  • 1




    Yes. Basically, the definition of "irrational" is "not rational." So when he shows that a number is irrational and rational, he has his contradiction.
    – Thomas Andrews
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:46


















up vote
0
down vote













Actually he proves more than that: he shows that if $r$ is rational and $iinmathbb R$, then the sum $r+i$ is rational if and only if the number $i$ is rational:
$$
rinmathbb Q ~~textand~~ r+iinmathbb Q quadRightarrowquad iinmathbb Q
$$
hence
$$
rinmathbb Q ~~textand~~ inotinmathbb Q quadRightarrowquad r+inotinmathbb Q
$$






share|cite|improve this answer




















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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    5
    down vote



    accepted










    He starts by assuming you can find rational $r$ and irrational $i$ that have rational sum $s$. Using a direct proof that the difference of two rationals is rational, he shows that this assumption leads to a contradiction. Therefore you cannot find a rational and irrational that sum to a rational, so the sum of a rational and irrational is always irrational.






    share|cite|improve this answer
















    • 1




      Oh, I see. It's as if we have two cases: a rational + irrational can equal either a rational or irrational; we've ruled out that it can't be rational, therefore, it must be irrational. Is that correct thinking?
      – Mack
      Feb 14 '13 at 13:39







    • 1




      Yes. Basically, the definition of "irrational" is "not rational." So when he shows that a number is irrational and rational, he has his contradiction.
      – Thomas Andrews
      Feb 14 '13 at 13:46















    up vote
    5
    down vote



    accepted










    He starts by assuming you can find rational $r$ and irrational $i$ that have rational sum $s$. Using a direct proof that the difference of two rationals is rational, he shows that this assumption leads to a contradiction. Therefore you cannot find a rational and irrational that sum to a rational, so the sum of a rational and irrational is always irrational.






    share|cite|improve this answer
















    • 1




      Oh, I see. It's as if we have two cases: a rational + irrational can equal either a rational or irrational; we've ruled out that it can't be rational, therefore, it must be irrational. Is that correct thinking?
      – Mack
      Feb 14 '13 at 13:39







    • 1




      Yes. Basically, the definition of "irrational" is "not rational." So when he shows that a number is irrational and rational, he has his contradiction.
      – Thomas Andrews
      Feb 14 '13 at 13:46













    up vote
    5
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    5
    down vote



    accepted






    He starts by assuming you can find rational $r$ and irrational $i$ that have rational sum $s$. Using a direct proof that the difference of two rationals is rational, he shows that this assumption leads to a contradiction. Therefore you cannot find a rational and irrational that sum to a rational, so the sum of a rational and irrational is always irrational.






    share|cite|improve this answer












    He starts by assuming you can find rational $r$ and irrational $i$ that have rational sum $s$. Using a direct proof that the difference of two rationals is rational, he shows that this assumption leads to a contradiction. Therefore you cannot find a rational and irrational that sum to a rational, so the sum of a rational and irrational is always irrational.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Feb 14 '13 at 13:33









    Ross Millikan

    278k21188354




    278k21188354







    • 1




      Oh, I see. It's as if we have two cases: a rational + irrational can equal either a rational or irrational; we've ruled out that it can't be rational, therefore, it must be irrational. Is that correct thinking?
      – Mack
      Feb 14 '13 at 13:39







    • 1




      Yes. Basically, the definition of "irrational" is "not rational." So when he shows that a number is irrational and rational, he has his contradiction.
      – Thomas Andrews
      Feb 14 '13 at 13:46













    • 1




      Oh, I see. It's as if we have two cases: a rational + irrational can equal either a rational or irrational; we've ruled out that it can't be rational, therefore, it must be irrational. Is that correct thinking?
      – Mack
      Feb 14 '13 at 13:39







    • 1




      Yes. Basically, the definition of "irrational" is "not rational." So when he shows that a number is irrational and rational, he has his contradiction.
      – Thomas Andrews
      Feb 14 '13 at 13:46








    1




    1




    Oh, I see. It's as if we have two cases: a rational + irrational can equal either a rational or irrational; we've ruled out that it can't be rational, therefore, it must be irrational. Is that correct thinking?
    – Mack
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:39





    Oh, I see. It's as if we have two cases: a rational + irrational can equal either a rational or irrational; we've ruled out that it can't be rational, therefore, it must be irrational. Is that correct thinking?
    – Mack
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:39





    1




    1




    Yes. Basically, the definition of "irrational" is "not rational." So when he shows that a number is irrational and rational, he has his contradiction.
    – Thomas Andrews
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:46





    Yes. Basically, the definition of "irrational" is "not rational." So when he shows that a number is irrational and rational, he has his contradiction.
    – Thomas Andrews
    Feb 14 '13 at 13:46











    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Actually he proves more than that: he shows that if $r$ is rational and $iinmathbb R$, then the sum $r+i$ is rational if and only if the number $i$ is rational:
    $$
    rinmathbb Q ~~textand~~ r+iinmathbb Q quadRightarrowquad iinmathbb Q
    $$
    hence
    $$
    rinmathbb Q ~~textand~~ inotinmathbb Q quadRightarrowquad r+inotinmathbb Q
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Actually he proves more than that: he shows that if $r$ is rational and $iinmathbb R$, then the sum $r+i$ is rational if and only if the number $i$ is rational:
      $$
      rinmathbb Q ~~textand~~ r+iinmathbb Q quadRightarrowquad iinmathbb Q
      $$
      hence
      $$
      rinmathbb Q ~~textand~~ inotinmathbb Q quadRightarrowquad r+inotinmathbb Q
      $$






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        Actually he proves more than that: he shows that if $r$ is rational and $iinmathbb R$, then the sum $r+i$ is rational if and only if the number $i$ is rational:
        $$
        rinmathbb Q ~~textand~~ r+iinmathbb Q quadRightarrowquad iinmathbb Q
        $$
        hence
        $$
        rinmathbb Q ~~textand~~ inotinmathbb Q quadRightarrowquad r+inotinmathbb Q
        $$






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Actually he proves more than that: he shows that if $r$ is rational and $iinmathbb R$, then the sum $r+i$ is rational if and only if the number $i$ is rational:
        $$
        rinmathbb Q ~~textand~~ r+iinmathbb Q quadRightarrowquad iinmathbb Q
        $$
        hence
        $$
        rinmathbb Q ~~textand~~ inotinmathbb Q quadRightarrowquad r+inotinmathbb Q
        $$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Feb 14 '13 at 13:33









        AndreasT

        3,2661224




        3,2661224






















             

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