$p$-groups have normal subgroups of orders $p^i$

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Let $G$ be a group of order $p^n$. I have to show that there are normal subgroups of $G$ of orders $1,p,...,p^n-1,p^n$.



My attempt :



The trivial subgroup is a normal subgroup of order $1$. Assume $G$ has a normal subgroup $N$ of order $p^k,k<n$. To show: $G$ has a normal subgroup of order $p^k+1$.



Let $gamma : G rightarrow G/N$ be the natural homomorphism. The kernel is $N$, whose size is $p^k$. So $gamma$ is $p^k-textto-1$. Since $k<n$, $G/N$ is also a $p$-group. Hence, $G/N$ has a non-trivial centre. $Z(G/N)$ is then also a $p$-group. So by Cauchy's theorem, it has an element $a$ of order $p$. The subgroup $langle arangle$ generated by this element is a subgroup of $Z(G/N)$. Therefore, it is normal in $G/N$. Then the pullback of $langle arangle$ is normal in $G$. Since the order of $langle arangle$ is $p$, the order of $gamma^-1langle arangle$ is $p^k×p=p^k+1$. Thus we have found a normal subgroup of $G$ of order $p^k+1$. This completes my proof.







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  • There are several similar "proof-verifications" for this result, e.g. this one, you might compare with. It also depends what you are allowed to use. Some lectures cover Cauchy after this result. This is a standard result with a standard proof.
    – Dietrich Burde
    Aug 21 at 14:15











  • @DietrichBurde We have indeed covered Cauchy's theorem
    – Hrit Roy
    Aug 21 at 17:13










  • @DietrichBurde This came before Sylow theorems. And yes I know the correspondence.
    – Hrit Roy
    Aug 21 at 19:32














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let $G$ be a group of order $p^n$. I have to show that there are normal subgroups of $G$ of orders $1,p,...,p^n-1,p^n$.



My attempt :



The trivial subgroup is a normal subgroup of order $1$. Assume $G$ has a normal subgroup $N$ of order $p^k,k<n$. To show: $G$ has a normal subgroup of order $p^k+1$.



Let $gamma : G rightarrow G/N$ be the natural homomorphism. The kernel is $N$, whose size is $p^k$. So $gamma$ is $p^k-textto-1$. Since $k<n$, $G/N$ is also a $p$-group. Hence, $G/N$ has a non-trivial centre. $Z(G/N)$ is then also a $p$-group. So by Cauchy's theorem, it has an element $a$ of order $p$. The subgroup $langle arangle$ generated by this element is a subgroup of $Z(G/N)$. Therefore, it is normal in $G/N$. Then the pullback of $langle arangle$ is normal in $G$. Since the order of $langle arangle$ is $p$, the order of $gamma^-1langle arangle$ is $p^k×p=p^k+1$. Thus we have found a normal subgroup of $G$ of order $p^k+1$. This completes my proof.







share|cite|improve this question




















  • There are several similar "proof-verifications" for this result, e.g. this one, you might compare with. It also depends what you are allowed to use. Some lectures cover Cauchy after this result. This is a standard result with a standard proof.
    – Dietrich Burde
    Aug 21 at 14:15











  • @DietrichBurde We have indeed covered Cauchy's theorem
    – Hrit Roy
    Aug 21 at 17:13










  • @DietrichBurde This came before Sylow theorems. And yes I know the correspondence.
    – Hrit Roy
    Aug 21 at 19:32












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Let $G$ be a group of order $p^n$. I have to show that there are normal subgroups of $G$ of orders $1,p,...,p^n-1,p^n$.



My attempt :



The trivial subgroup is a normal subgroup of order $1$. Assume $G$ has a normal subgroup $N$ of order $p^k,k<n$. To show: $G$ has a normal subgroup of order $p^k+1$.



Let $gamma : G rightarrow G/N$ be the natural homomorphism. The kernel is $N$, whose size is $p^k$. So $gamma$ is $p^k-textto-1$. Since $k<n$, $G/N$ is also a $p$-group. Hence, $G/N$ has a non-trivial centre. $Z(G/N)$ is then also a $p$-group. So by Cauchy's theorem, it has an element $a$ of order $p$. The subgroup $langle arangle$ generated by this element is a subgroup of $Z(G/N)$. Therefore, it is normal in $G/N$. Then the pullback of $langle arangle$ is normal in $G$. Since the order of $langle arangle$ is $p$, the order of $gamma^-1langle arangle$ is $p^k×p=p^k+1$. Thus we have found a normal subgroup of $G$ of order $p^k+1$. This completes my proof.







share|cite|improve this question












Let $G$ be a group of order $p^n$. I have to show that there are normal subgroups of $G$ of orders $1,p,...,p^n-1,p^n$.



My attempt :



The trivial subgroup is a normal subgroup of order $1$. Assume $G$ has a normal subgroup $N$ of order $p^k,k<n$. To show: $G$ has a normal subgroup of order $p^k+1$.



Let $gamma : G rightarrow G/N$ be the natural homomorphism. The kernel is $N$, whose size is $p^k$. So $gamma$ is $p^k-textto-1$. Since $k<n$, $G/N$ is also a $p$-group. Hence, $G/N$ has a non-trivial centre. $Z(G/N)$ is then also a $p$-group. So by Cauchy's theorem, it has an element $a$ of order $p$. The subgroup $langle arangle$ generated by this element is a subgroup of $Z(G/N)$. Therefore, it is normal in $G/N$. Then the pullback of $langle arangle$ is normal in $G$. Since the order of $langle arangle$ is $p$, the order of $gamma^-1langle arangle$ is $p^k×p=p^k+1$. Thus we have found a normal subgroup of $G$ of order $p^k+1$. This completes my proof.









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asked Aug 21 at 14:06









Hrit Roy

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  • There are several similar "proof-verifications" for this result, e.g. this one, you might compare with. It also depends what you are allowed to use. Some lectures cover Cauchy after this result. This is a standard result with a standard proof.
    – Dietrich Burde
    Aug 21 at 14:15











  • @DietrichBurde We have indeed covered Cauchy's theorem
    – Hrit Roy
    Aug 21 at 17:13










  • @DietrichBurde This came before Sylow theorems. And yes I know the correspondence.
    – Hrit Roy
    Aug 21 at 19:32
















  • There are several similar "proof-verifications" for this result, e.g. this one, you might compare with. It also depends what you are allowed to use. Some lectures cover Cauchy after this result. This is a standard result with a standard proof.
    – Dietrich Burde
    Aug 21 at 14:15











  • @DietrichBurde We have indeed covered Cauchy's theorem
    – Hrit Roy
    Aug 21 at 17:13










  • @DietrichBurde This came before Sylow theorems. And yes I know the correspondence.
    – Hrit Roy
    Aug 21 at 19:32















There are several similar "proof-verifications" for this result, e.g. this one, you might compare with. It also depends what you are allowed to use. Some lectures cover Cauchy after this result. This is a standard result with a standard proof.
– Dietrich Burde
Aug 21 at 14:15





There are several similar "proof-verifications" for this result, e.g. this one, you might compare with. It also depends what you are allowed to use. Some lectures cover Cauchy after this result. This is a standard result with a standard proof.
– Dietrich Burde
Aug 21 at 14:15













@DietrichBurde We have indeed covered Cauchy's theorem
– Hrit Roy
Aug 21 at 17:13




@DietrichBurde We have indeed covered Cauchy's theorem
– Hrit Roy
Aug 21 at 17:13












@DietrichBurde This came before Sylow theorems. And yes I know the correspondence.
– Hrit Roy
Aug 21 at 19:32




@DietrichBurde This came before Sylow theorems. And yes I know the correspondence.
– Hrit Roy
Aug 21 at 19:32










1 Answer
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Your answer is partially correct: you have made use of non-triviality of center in $p$-groups after passing to $G/N$, but not for $G$. In other words, you took $N$ a normal subgroup of order $p^k$ and $Grightarrow G/N$ the natural homomorphism; but how do you know that $Nneq 1$? IF $N=1$ then the homomorphism is no longer helpful to carry out induction.



In short, the existence of normal subgroups of every order follow from following two facts:



  • For a $p$-group $Gneq 1$, the center is non-trivial.


  • If $Ntrianglelefteq G$ and $Grightarrow G/N$ is natural homomorphism then there is a (nice) bijection between normal subgroups of $G/N$ and the normal subgroups of $G$ which contain $N$.






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    1 Answer
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    active

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    1 Answer
    1






    active

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    active

    oldest

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    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Your answer is partially correct: you have made use of non-triviality of center in $p$-groups after passing to $G/N$, but not for $G$. In other words, you took $N$ a normal subgroup of order $p^k$ and $Grightarrow G/N$ the natural homomorphism; but how do you know that $Nneq 1$? IF $N=1$ then the homomorphism is no longer helpful to carry out induction.



    In short, the existence of normal subgroups of every order follow from following two facts:



    • For a $p$-group $Gneq 1$, the center is non-trivial.


    • If $Ntrianglelefteq G$ and $Grightarrow G/N$ is natural homomorphism then there is a (nice) bijection between normal subgroups of $G/N$ and the normal subgroups of $G$ which contain $N$.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Your answer is partially correct: you have made use of non-triviality of center in $p$-groups after passing to $G/N$, but not for $G$. In other words, you took $N$ a normal subgroup of order $p^k$ and $Grightarrow G/N$ the natural homomorphism; but how do you know that $Nneq 1$? IF $N=1$ then the homomorphism is no longer helpful to carry out induction.



      In short, the existence of normal subgroups of every order follow from following two facts:



      • For a $p$-group $Gneq 1$, the center is non-trivial.


      • If $Ntrianglelefteq G$ and $Grightarrow G/N$ is natural homomorphism then there is a (nice) bijection between normal subgroups of $G/N$ and the normal subgroups of $G$ which contain $N$.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        Your answer is partially correct: you have made use of non-triviality of center in $p$-groups after passing to $G/N$, but not for $G$. In other words, you took $N$ a normal subgroup of order $p^k$ and $Grightarrow G/N$ the natural homomorphism; but how do you know that $Nneq 1$? IF $N=1$ then the homomorphism is no longer helpful to carry out induction.



        In short, the existence of normal subgroups of every order follow from following two facts:



        • For a $p$-group $Gneq 1$, the center is non-trivial.


        • If $Ntrianglelefteq G$ and $Grightarrow G/N$ is natural homomorphism then there is a (nice) bijection between normal subgroups of $G/N$ and the normal subgroups of $G$ which contain $N$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Your answer is partially correct: you have made use of non-triviality of center in $p$-groups after passing to $G/N$, but not for $G$. In other words, you took $N$ a normal subgroup of order $p^k$ and $Grightarrow G/N$ the natural homomorphism; but how do you know that $Nneq 1$? IF $N=1$ then the homomorphism is no longer helpful to carry out induction.



        In short, the existence of normal subgroups of every order follow from following two facts:



        • For a $p$-group $Gneq 1$, the center is non-trivial.


        • If $Ntrianglelefteq G$ and $Grightarrow G/N$ is natural homomorphism then there is a (nice) bijection between normal subgroups of $G/N$ and the normal subgroups of $G$ which contain $N$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Aug 22 at 4:41









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