Show this function on sequences is cyclical.
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
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Given a sequence $f$ define a new sequence $phi f$ as follows:
$$ phi f(n):=textcard kinmathbbN_leqnmid f(k)=f(n)$$
where $textcard$ is the set cardinality function. In other words $phi f(n)$ counts up how often $f(n)=f(k)$ for $kleq n$. Also, we can iteratively apply $phi$ to $f$. Here is an example:
$$beginarray \
f & = & (a,&b,&a,&c,&b,&d,&a,&c,&a,&b,&...) \
phi f & = & (1,&1,&2,&1,&2,&1,&3,&2,&4,&3,&...) \
phi^2 f & = & (1,&2,&1,&3,&2,&4,&1,&3,&1,&2,&...) \
phi^3 f & = & (1,&1,&2,&1,&2,&1,&3,&2,&4,&3,&...) \
endarray$$
Notice that $phi f=phi^3 f$, which via induction implies $phi^nf=phi^n+2f$ for all $ninmathbbN$
Conjecture : If $f$ is any sequence then $phi^n f = phi^n+2 f$ for all $ninmathbbN$.
sequences-and-series
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up vote
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Given a sequence $f$ define a new sequence $phi f$ as follows:
$$ phi f(n):=textcard kinmathbbN_leqnmid f(k)=f(n)$$
where $textcard$ is the set cardinality function. In other words $phi f(n)$ counts up how often $f(n)=f(k)$ for $kleq n$. Also, we can iteratively apply $phi$ to $f$. Here is an example:
$$beginarray \
f & = & (a,&b,&a,&c,&b,&d,&a,&c,&a,&b,&...) \
phi f & = & (1,&1,&2,&1,&2,&1,&3,&2,&4,&3,&...) \
phi^2 f & = & (1,&2,&1,&3,&2,&4,&1,&3,&1,&2,&...) \
phi^3 f & = & (1,&1,&2,&1,&2,&1,&3,&2,&4,&3,&...) \
endarray$$
Notice that $phi f=phi^3 f$, which via induction implies $phi^nf=phi^n+2f$ for all $ninmathbbN$
Conjecture : If $f$ is any sequence then $phi^n f = phi^n+2 f$ for all $ninmathbbN$.
sequences-and-series
add a comment |Â
up vote
10
down vote
favorite
up vote
10
down vote
favorite
Given a sequence $f$ define a new sequence $phi f$ as follows:
$$ phi f(n):=textcard kinmathbbN_leqnmid f(k)=f(n)$$
where $textcard$ is the set cardinality function. In other words $phi f(n)$ counts up how often $f(n)=f(k)$ for $kleq n$. Also, we can iteratively apply $phi$ to $f$. Here is an example:
$$beginarray \
f & = & (a,&b,&a,&c,&b,&d,&a,&c,&a,&b,&...) \
phi f & = & (1,&1,&2,&1,&2,&1,&3,&2,&4,&3,&...) \
phi^2 f & = & (1,&2,&1,&3,&2,&4,&1,&3,&1,&2,&...) \
phi^3 f & = & (1,&1,&2,&1,&2,&1,&3,&2,&4,&3,&...) \
endarray$$
Notice that $phi f=phi^3 f$, which via induction implies $phi^nf=phi^n+2f$ for all $ninmathbbN$
Conjecture : If $f$ is any sequence then $phi^n f = phi^n+2 f$ for all $ninmathbbN$.
sequences-and-series
Given a sequence $f$ define a new sequence $phi f$ as follows:
$$ phi f(n):=textcard kinmathbbN_leqnmid f(k)=f(n)$$
where $textcard$ is the set cardinality function. In other words $phi f(n)$ counts up how often $f(n)=f(k)$ for $kleq n$. Also, we can iteratively apply $phi$ to $f$. Here is an example:
$$beginarray \
f & = & (a,&b,&a,&c,&b,&d,&a,&c,&a,&b,&...) \
phi f & = & (1,&1,&2,&1,&2,&1,&3,&2,&4,&3,&...) \
phi^2 f & = & (1,&2,&1,&3,&2,&4,&1,&3,&1,&2,&...) \
phi^3 f & = & (1,&1,&2,&1,&2,&1,&3,&2,&4,&3,&...) \
endarray$$
Notice that $phi f=phi^3 f$, which via induction implies $phi^nf=phi^n+2f$ for all $ninmathbbN$
Conjecture : If $f$ is any sequence then $phi^n f = phi^n+2 f$ for all $ninmathbbN$.
sequences-and-series
edited 2 days ago
asked Aug 26 at 20:51
M. Nestor
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2 Answers
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Very nice observation.
As you note, for the conjecture it suffices to prove $phi^3=phi$.
Call sequences $a=(a_1,a_2,dots)$ and $b=(b_1,b_2,dots)$ similar, if $phi a=phi b$, i.e. for each index $n$, $ a_n$ occurs the same times among $a_1,dots,a_n $ as $ b_n$ among $b_1,dots,b_n$.
For example, the sequences $(1,1,2,2,3,3,1), (1,1,2,2,3,3,2), (1,1,2,2,3,3,3)$ are similar.
We have to show that $phi^2 a$ is similar to $a$ for an arbitrary sequence $a$.
Assume it holds for $n$ long sequences, and take $a_n+1$ in $a=(a_1,dots,a_n+1)$.
- It is either a 'new element' ($phi a(n+1)=1$), in which case the number of $1$'s that denotes the new elements, is increased by one in $phi a$, implying $phi^2 a(n+1)=|a_1,dots,a_n+1|$ which is a new element in the sequence $phi^2a$.
- Or, it is a repeating element, and $s:=phi a(n+1)=|ile n+1:a_i=a_n+1|$.
This $s$ occurs in $phi a$ for exactly $q$ times, where $q$ is the number of $a_i$'s occuring exactly $s$ times in $a$. (If $s$ is new, then $q=1$, and $a_n+1$ can be replaced by any of these $a_i$'s to get a similar sequence.)
On one hand, it means $phi^2 a(n+1)=q$.
On the other hand, $q$ already occured in $phi^2 a(1,dots,n)$ exactly $s-1=|ile n:a_i=a_n+1|$ times.
Another approach
Call a sequence $a$ of positive integers a regular sequence, if for all $n$,
- $ 1le a_nlemax_i<na_i+1$
- In every initial segment of $a$, the number of $x$'s is at least the number of $y$'s whenever $xle y$.
Note that 2. can be rephrased as: if $a_n=a_i$ for some $i<n$, then $a_n$ is minimal among those sequence elements which occur exactly $(phi a)_n-1$ times in $(a_1,dots,a_n-1)$
[because $a_n$ in $(a_1,dots,a_n)$
has one more occurances than any of them].
For example, $(1,2,2)$ and $(1,2,3,2)$ are not regular, while $(1,2,1)$ and $(1,2,3,1)$ are regular.
Proposition.
$ $ a) $ phi a$ is regular for any sequence $a$.
$ $ b) $ $If $a$ is a regular sequence, then $phi^2 a=a$.
Currently considering "level sets" of the sequence. If the original sequence $f$ has domain $D$ then for $xin D$ I let $E_x=ninmathbbNmid f(n)=x$. If you list those elements like $E_x=e_1,e_2,...$ then $f(e_n)=n$, and $phi f(e_n)$ is a constant, and furthermore $E_x$ is the only set which is mapped to this constant. Thus, $phi^2 f(e_n)=f(e_n)=n$ for all $n$.
â M. Nestor
Aug 26 at 23:42
Yes, level sets definitely play some role here around.
â Berci
Aug 26 at 23:46
Hmm.. You still have to finish the proof (of the last sentence).
â Berci
Aug 27 at 0:32
I think I can prove the case for the level sets, essentially that $(1,2,3,...)mapsto(1,1,1,...)mapsto(1,2,3,...)$, and then a larger argument piecing them together for an arbitrary sequence.
â M. Nestor
Aug 27 at 0:52
You're allowed to post your own answer. What is that argument?
â Berci
Aug 27 at 6:11
 |Â
show 5 more comments
up vote
1
down vote
Solution in progress
For a sequence $f$ define
the pre-image of $f$ denoted $f^-1(a):=ninmathbbNmid f(n)=a$.
a truncation of $f$ at $t$, denoted $f_leq t$, is the sequence with the domain restricted to $ninmathbbNmid nleq t$.
Then by $f_leq t^-1(n)$ denote $kinmathbbNmid kleq t,f(k)=f(n)$. Here is a new definition for $phi$:
Definition 1: For any sequence $f$, define $phi f(n) := textcard f_leq n^-1(n) $
The following definition and conjecture describes the sequences that $phi$ will produce:
Definition 2: A sequence $f$ with range $mathbbN$ is regular if for any truncation at $tinmathbbN$, $$textcard f_leq
t^-1(1)geqtextcard f_leq t^-1(2)geqtextcard f_leq
t^-1(3)geq...$$
That is, for any truncation of the sequence $f$, the number of $1$s is $geq$ the number of $2$s, which is $geq$ the number of $3$s and so on, which ensures the sequence is counting properly. I am nearly certain this definition is equivalent to those in comments.
Conjecture: If $f$ is any sequence then $phi f$ is regular, and if $f$ is regular then $phi^2 f = f$.
Prove $phi f$ is regular via induction on the size of truncations and using the following lemma:
Lemma 1: A sequence $f$ is regular iff for each $tinmathbbN$ the truncated sequence $f_leq t$ is regular.
Proposition: For any sequence $f$, $phi f$ is regular.
Proof: If $t=1$, $phi f_leq 1$ is the singleton sequence, $phi f_leq 1=(1)$, so it is trivially regular.
Inductive step: Assume for any $s<t$, the truncated sequence $phi f_leq s$ is regular. Now show $phi f_leq t$ is regular by showing that for any truncation the defining inequality holds. In fact, it is sufficient to demonstrate the inequality for truncation up to length $t$.
Yes, your definition 2 matches up to condition 2 in my second approach, see my last comment there.
â Berci
Aug 29 at 7:58
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Very nice observation.
As you note, for the conjecture it suffices to prove $phi^3=phi$.
Call sequences $a=(a_1,a_2,dots)$ and $b=(b_1,b_2,dots)$ similar, if $phi a=phi b$, i.e. for each index $n$, $ a_n$ occurs the same times among $a_1,dots,a_n $ as $ b_n$ among $b_1,dots,b_n$.
For example, the sequences $(1,1,2,2,3,3,1), (1,1,2,2,3,3,2), (1,1,2,2,3,3,3)$ are similar.
We have to show that $phi^2 a$ is similar to $a$ for an arbitrary sequence $a$.
Assume it holds for $n$ long sequences, and take $a_n+1$ in $a=(a_1,dots,a_n+1)$.
- It is either a 'new element' ($phi a(n+1)=1$), in which case the number of $1$'s that denotes the new elements, is increased by one in $phi a$, implying $phi^2 a(n+1)=|a_1,dots,a_n+1|$ which is a new element in the sequence $phi^2a$.
- Or, it is a repeating element, and $s:=phi a(n+1)=|ile n+1:a_i=a_n+1|$.
This $s$ occurs in $phi a$ for exactly $q$ times, where $q$ is the number of $a_i$'s occuring exactly $s$ times in $a$. (If $s$ is new, then $q=1$, and $a_n+1$ can be replaced by any of these $a_i$'s to get a similar sequence.)
On one hand, it means $phi^2 a(n+1)=q$.
On the other hand, $q$ already occured in $phi^2 a(1,dots,n)$ exactly $s-1=|ile n:a_i=a_n+1|$ times.
Another approach
Call a sequence $a$ of positive integers a regular sequence, if for all $n$,
- $ 1le a_nlemax_i<na_i+1$
- In every initial segment of $a$, the number of $x$'s is at least the number of $y$'s whenever $xle y$.
Note that 2. can be rephrased as: if $a_n=a_i$ for some $i<n$, then $a_n$ is minimal among those sequence elements which occur exactly $(phi a)_n-1$ times in $(a_1,dots,a_n-1)$
[because $a_n$ in $(a_1,dots,a_n)$
has one more occurances than any of them].
For example, $(1,2,2)$ and $(1,2,3,2)$ are not regular, while $(1,2,1)$ and $(1,2,3,1)$ are regular.
Proposition.
$ $ a) $ phi a$ is regular for any sequence $a$.
$ $ b) $ $If $a$ is a regular sequence, then $phi^2 a=a$.
Currently considering "level sets" of the sequence. If the original sequence $f$ has domain $D$ then for $xin D$ I let $E_x=ninmathbbNmid f(n)=x$. If you list those elements like $E_x=e_1,e_2,...$ then $f(e_n)=n$, and $phi f(e_n)$ is a constant, and furthermore $E_x$ is the only set which is mapped to this constant. Thus, $phi^2 f(e_n)=f(e_n)=n$ for all $n$.
â M. Nestor
Aug 26 at 23:42
Yes, level sets definitely play some role here around.
â Berci
Aug 26 at 23:46
Hmm.. You still have to finish the proof (of the last sentence).
â Berci
Aug 27 at 0:32
I think I can prove the case for the level sets, essentially that $(1,2,3,...)mapsto(1,1,1,...)mapsto(1,2,3,...)$, and then a larger argument piecing them together for an arbitrary sequence.
â M. Nestor
Aug 27 at 0:52
You're allowed to post your own answer. What is that argument?
â Berci
Aug 27 at 6:11
 |Â
show 5 more comments
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Very nice observation.
As you note, for the conjecture it suffices to prove $phi^3=phi$.
Call sequences $a=(a_1,a_2,dots)$ and $b=(b_1,b_2,dots)$ similar, if $phi a=phi b$, i.e. for each index $n$, $ a_n$ occurs the same times among $a_1,dots,a_n $ as $ b_n$ among $b_1,dots,b_n$.
For example, the sequences $(1,1,2,2,3,3,1), (1,1,2,2,3,3,2), (1,1,2,2,3,3,3)$ are similar.
We have to show that $phi^2 a$ is similar to $a$ for an arbitrary sequence $a$.
Assume it holds for $n$ long sequences, and take $a_n+1$ in $a=(a_1,dots,a_n+1)$.
- It is either a 'new element' ($phi a(n+1)=1$), in which case the number of $1$'s that denotes the new elements, is increased by one in $phi a$, implying $phi^2 a(n+1)=|a_1,dots,a_n+1|$ which is a new element in the sequence $phi^2a$.
- Or, it is a repeating element, and $s:=phi a(n+1)=|ile n+1:a_i=a_n+1|$.
This $s$ occurs in $phi a$ for exactly $q$ times, where $q$ is the number of $a_i$'s occuring exactly $s$ times in $a$. (If $s$ is new, then $q=1$, and $a_n+1$ can be replaced by any of these $a_i$'s to get a similar sequence.)
On one hand, it means $phi^2 a(n+1)=q$.
On the other hand, $q$ already occured in $phi^2 a(1,dots,n)$ exactly $s-1=|ile n:a_i=a_n+1|$ times.
Another approach
Call a sequence $a$ of positive integers a regular sequence, if for all $n$,
- $ 1le a_nlemax_i<na_i+1$
- In every initial segment of $a$, the number of $x$'s is at least the number of $y$'s whenever $xle y$.
Note that 2. can be rephrased as: if $a_n=a_i$ for some $i<n$, then $a_n$ is minimal among those sequence elements which occur exactly $(phi a)_n-1$ times in $(a_1,dots,a_n-1)$
[because $a_n$ in $(a_1,dots,a_n)$
has one more occurances than any of them].
For example, $(1,2,2)$ and $(1,2,3,2)$ are not regular, while $(1,2,1)$ and $(1,2,3,1)$ are regular.
Proposition.
$ $ a) $ phi a$ is regular for any sequence $a$.
$ $ b) $ $If $a$ is a regular sequence, then $phi^2 a=a$.
Currently considering "level sets" of the sequence. If the original sequence $f$ has domain $D$ then for $xin D$ I let $E_x=ninmathbbNmid f(n)=x$. If you list those elements like $E_x=e_1,e_2,...$ then $f(e_n)=n$, and $phi f(e_n)$ is a constant, and furthermore $E_x$ is the only set which is mapped to this constant. Thus, $phi^2 f(e_n)=f(e_n)=n$ for all $n$.
â M. Nestor
Aug 26 at 23:42
Yes, level sets definitely play some role here around.
â Berci
Aug 26 at 23:46
Hmm.. You still have to finish the proof (of the last sentence).
â Berci
Aug 27 at 0:32
I think I can prove the case for the level sets, essentially that $(1,2,3,...)mapsto(1,1,1,...)mapsto(1,2,3,...)$, and then a larger argument piecing them together for an arbitrary sequence.
â M. Nestor
Aug 27 at 0:52
You're allowed to post your own answer. What is that argument?
â Berci
Aug 27 at 6:11
 |Â
show 5 more comments
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Very nice observation.
As you note, for the conjecture it suffices to prove $phi^3=phi$.
Call sequences $a=(a_1,a_2,dots)$ and $b=(b_1,b_2,dots)$ similar, if $phi a=phi b$, i.e. for each index $n$, $ a_n$ occurs the same times among $a_1,dots,a_n $ as $ b_n$ among $b_1,dots,b_n$.
For example, the sequences $(1,1,2,2,3,3,1), (1,1,2,2,3,3,2), (1,1,2,2,3,3,3)$ are similar.
We have to show that $phi^2 a$ is similar to $a$ for an arbitrary sequence $a$.
Assume it holds for $n$ long sequences, and take $a_n+1$ in $a=(a_1,dots,a_n+1)$.
- It is either a 'new element' ($phi a(n+1)=1$), in which case the number of $1$'s that denotes the new elements, is increased by one in $phi a$, implying $phi^2 a(n+1)=|a_1,dots,a_n+1|$ which is a new element in the sequence $phi^2a$.
- Or, it is a repeating element, and $s:=phi a(n+1)=|ile n+1:a_i=a_n+1|$.
This $s$ occurs in $phi a$ for exactly $q$ times, where $q$ is the number of $a_i$'s occuring exactly $s$ times in $a$. (If $s$ is new, then $q=1$, and $a_n+1$ can be replaced by any of these $a_i$'s to get a similar sequence.)
On one hand, it means $phi^2 a(n+1)=q$.
On the other hand, $q$ already occured in $phi^2 a(1,dots,n)$ exactly $s-1=|ile n:a_i=a_n+1|$ times.
Another approach
Call a sequence $a$ of positive integers a regular sequence, if for all $n$,
- $ 1le a_nlemax_i<na_i+1$
- In every initial segment of $a$, the number of $x$'s is at least the number of $y$'s whenever $xle y$.
Note that 2. can be rephrased as: if $a_n=a_i$ for some $i<n$, then $a_n$ is minimal among those sequence elements which occur exactly $(phi a)_n-1$ times in $(a_1,dots,a_n-1)$
[because $a_n$ in $(a_1,dots,a_n)$
has one more occurances than any of them].
For example, $(1,2,2)$ and $(1,2,3,2)$ are not regular, while $(1,2,1)$ and $(1,2,3,1)$ are regular.
Proposition.
$ $ a) $ phi a$ is regular for any sequence $a$.
$ $ b) $ $If $a$ is a regular sequence, then $phi^2 a=a$.
Very nice observation.
As you note, for the conjecture it suffices to prove $phi^3=phi$.
Call sequences $a=(a_1,a_2,dots)$ and $b=(b_1,b_2,dots)$ similar, if $phi a=phi b$, i.e. for each index $n$, $ a_n$ occurs the same times among $a_1,dots,a_n $ as $ b_n$ among $b_1,dots,b_n$.
For example, the sequences $(1,1,2,2,3,3,1), (1,1,2,2,3,3,2), (1,1,2,2,3,3,3)$ are similar.
We have to show that $phi^2 a$ is similar to $a$ for an arbitrary sequence $a$.
Assume it holds for $n$ long sequences, and take $a_n+1$ in $a=(a_1,dots,a_n+1)$.
- It is either a 'new element' ($phi a(n+1)=1$), in which case the number of $1$'s that denotes the new elements, is increased by one in $phi a$, implying $phi^2 a(n+1)=|a_1,dots,a_n+1|$ which is a new element in the sequence $phi^2a$.
- Or, it is a repeating element, and $s:=phi a(n+1)=|ile n+1:a_i=a_n+1|$.
This $s$ occurs in $phi a$ for exactly $q$ times, where $q$ is the number of $a_i$'s occuring exactly $s$ times in $a$. (If $s$ is new, then $q=1$, and $a_n+1$ can be replaced by any of these $a_i$'s to get a similar sequence.)
On one hand, it means $phi^2 a(n+1)=q$.
On the other hand, $q$ already occured in $phi^2 a(1,dots,n)$ exactly $s-1=|ile n:a_i=a_n+1|$ times.
Another approach
Call a sequence $a$ of positive integers a regular sequence, if for all $n$,
- $ 1le a_nlemax_i<na_i+1$
- In every initial segment of $a$, the number of $x$'s is at least the number of $y$'s whenever $xle y$.
Note that 2. can be rephrased as: if $a_n=a_i$ for some $i<n$, then $a_n$ is minimal among those sequence elements which occur exactly $(phi a)_n-1$ times in $(a_1,dots,a_n-1)$
[because $a_n$ in $(a_1,dots,a_n)$
has one more occurances than any of them].
For example, $(1,2,2)$ and $(1,2,3,2)$ are not regular, while $(1,2,1)$ and $(1,2,3,1)$ are regular.
Proposition.
$ $ a) $ phi a$ is regular for any sequence $a$.
$ $ b) $ $If $a$ is a regular sequence, then $phi^2 a=a$.
edited Aug 31 at 22:22
answered Aug 26 at 22:54
Berci
57k23570
57k23570
Currently considering "level sets" of the sequence. If the original sequence $f$ has domain $D$ then for $xin D$ I let $E_x=ninmathbbNmid f(n)=x$. If you list those elements like $E_x=e_1,e_2,...$ then $f(e_n)=n$, and $phi f(e_n)$ is a constant, and furthermore $E_x$ is the only set which is mapped to this constant. Thus, $phi^2 f(e_n)=f(e_n)=n$ for all $n$.
â M. Nestor
Aug 26 at 23:42
Yes, level sets definitely play some role here around.
â Berci
Aug 26 at 23:46
Hmm.. You still have to finish the proof (of the last sentence).
â Berci
Aug 27 at 0:32
I think I can prove the case for the level sets, essentially that $(1,2,3,...)mapsto(1,1,1,...)mapsto(1,2,3,...)$, and then a larger argument piecing them together for an arbitrary sequence.
â M. Nestor
Aug 27 at 0:52
You're allowed to post your own answer. What is that argument?
â Berci
Aug 27 at 6:11
 |Â
show 5 more comments
Currently considering "level sets" of the sequence. If the original sequence $f$ has domain $D$ then for $xin D$ I let $E_x=ninmathbbNmid f(n)=x$. If you list those elements like $E_x=e_1,e_2,...$ then $f(e_n)=n$, and $phi f(e_n)$ is a constant, and furthermore $E_x$ is the only set which is mapped to this constant. Thus, $phi^2 f(e_n)=f(e_n)=n$ for all $n$.
â M. Nestor
Aug 26 at 23:42
Yes, level sets definitely play some role here around.
â Berci
Aug 26 at 23:46
Hmm.. You still have to finish the proof (of the last sentence).
â Berci
Aug 27 at 0:32
I think I can prove the case for the level sets, essentially that $(1,2,3,...)mapsto(1,1,1,...)mapsto(1,2,3,...)$, and then a larger argument piecing them together for an arbitrary sequence.
â M. Nestor
Aug 27 at 0:52
You're allowed to post your own answer. What is that argument?
â Berci
Aug 27 at 6:11
Currently considering "level sets" of the sequence. If the original sequence $f$ has domain $D$ then for $xin D$ I let $E_x=ninmathbbNmid f(n)=x$. If you list those elements like $E_x=e_1,e_2,...$ then $f(e_n)=n$, and $phi f(e_n)$ is a constant, and furthermore $E_x$ is the only set which is mapped to this constant. Thus, $phi^2 f(e_n)=f(e_n)=n$ for all $n$.
â M. Nestor
Aug 26 at 23:42
Currently considering "level sets" of the sequence. If the original sequence $f$ has domain $D$ then for $xin D$ I let $E_x=ninmathbbNmid f(n)=x$. If you list those elements like $E_x=e_1,e_2,...$ then $f(e_n)=n$, and $phi f(e_n)$ is a constant, and furthermore $E_x$ is the only set which is mapped to this constant. Thus, $phi^2 f(e_n)=f(e_n)=n$ for all $n$.
â M. Nestor
Aug 26 at 23:42
Yes, level sets definitely play some role here around.
â Berci
Aug 26 at 23:46
Yes, level sets definitely play some role here around.
â Berci
Aug 26 at 23:46
Hmm.. You still have to finish the proof (of the last sentence).
â Berci
Aug 27 at 0:32
Hmm.. You still have to finish the proof (of the last sentence).
â Berci
Aug 27 at 0:32
I think I can prove the case for the level sets, essentially that $(1,2,3,...)mapsto(1,1,1,...)mapsto(1,2,3,...)$, and then a larger argument piecing them together for an arbitrary sequence.
â M. Nestor
Aug 27 at 0:52
I think I can prove the case for the level sets, essentially that $(1,2,3,...)mapsto(1,1,1,...)mapsto(1,2,3,...)$, and then a larger argument piecing them together for an arbitrary sequence.
â M. Nestor
Aug 27 at 0:52
You're allowed to post your own answer. What is that argument?
â Berci
Aug 27 at 6:11
You're allowed to post your own answer. What is that argument?
â Berci
Aug 27 at 6:11
 |Â
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up vote
1
down vote
Solution in progress
For a sequence $f$ define
the pre-image of $f$ denoted $f^-1(a):=ninmathbbNmid f(n)=a$.
a truncation of $f$ at $t$, denoted $f_leq t$, is the sequence with the domain restricted to $ninmathbbNmid nleq t$.
Then by $f_leq t^-1(n)$ denote $kinmathbbNmid kleq t,f(k)=f(n)$. Here is a new definition for $phi$:
Definition 1: For any sequence $f$, define $phi f(n) := textcard f_leq n^-1(n) $
The following definition and conjecture describes the sequences that $phi$ will produce:
Definition 2: A sequence $f$ with range $mathbbN$ is regular if for any truncation at $tinmathbbN$, $$textcard f_leq
t^-1(1)geqtextcard f_leq t^-1(2)geqtextcard f_leq
t^-1(3)geq...$$
That is, for any truncation of the sequence $f$, the number of $1$s is $geq$ the number of $2$s, which is $geq$ the number of $3$s and so on, which ensures the sequence is counting properly. I am nearly certain this definition is equivalent to those in comments.
Conjecture: If $f$ is any sequence then $phi f$ is regular, and if $f$ is regular then $phi^2 f = f$.
Prove $phi f$ is regular via induction on the size of truncations and using the following lemma:
Lemma 1: A sequence $f$ is regular iff for each $tinmathbbN$ the truncated sequence $f_leq t$ is regular.
Proposition: For any sequence $f$, $phi f$ is regular.
Proof: If $t=1$, $phi f_leq 1$ is the singleton sequence, $phi f_leq 1=(1)$, so it is trivially regular.
Inductive step: Assume for any $s<t$, the truncated sequence $phi f_leq s$ is regular. Now show $phi f_leq t$ is regular by showing that for any truncation the defining inequality holds. In fact, it is sufficient to demonstrate the inequality for truncation up to length $t$.
Yes, your definition 2 matches up to condition 2 in my second approach, see my last comment there.
â Berci
Aug 29 at 7:58
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Solution in progress
For a sequence $f$ define
the pre-image of $f$ denoted $f^-1(a):=ninmathbbNmid f(n)=a$.
a truncation of $f$ at $t$, denoted $f_leq t$, is the sequence with the domain restricted to $ninmathbbNmid nleq t$.
Then by $f_leq t^-1(n)$ denote $kinmathbbNmid kleq t,f(k)=f(n)$. Here is a new definition for $phi$:
Definition 1: For any sequence $f$, define $phi f(n) := textcard f_leq n^-1(n) $
The following definition and conjecture describes the sequences that $phi$ will produce:
Definition 2: A sequence $f$ with range $mathbbN$ is regular if for any truncation at $tinmathbbN$, $$textcard f_leq
t^-1(1)geqtextcard f_leq t^-1(2)geqtextcard f_leq
t^-1(3)geq...$$
That is, for any truncation of the sequence $f$, the number of $1$s is $geq$ the number of $2$s, which is $geq$ the number of $3$s and so on, which ensures the sequence is counting properly. I am nearly certain this definition is equivalent to those in comments.
Conjecture: If $f$ is any sequence then $phi f$ is regular, and if $f$ is regular then $phi^2 f = f$.
Prove $phi f$ is regular via induction on the size of truncations and using the following lemma:
Lemma 1: A sequence $f$ is regular iff for each $tinmathbbN$ the truncated sequence $f_leq t$ is regular.
Proposition: For any sequence $f$, $phi f$ is regular.
Proof: If $t=1$, $phi f_leq 1$ is the singleton sequence, $phi f_leq 1=(1)$, so it is trivially regular.
Inductive step: Assume for any $s<t$, the truncated sequence $phi f_leq s$ is regular. Now show $phi f_leq t$ is regular by showing that for any truncation the defining inequality holds. In fact, it is sufficient to demonstrate the inequality for truncation up to length $t$.
Yes, your definition 2 matches up to condition 2 in my second approach, see my last comment there.
â Berci
Aug 29 at 7:58
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Solution in progress
For a sequence $f$ define
the pre-image of $f$ denoted $f^-1(a):=ninmathbbNmid f(n)=a$.
a truncation of $f$ at $t$, denoted $f_leq t$, is the sequence with the domain restricted to $ninmathbbNmid nleq t$.
Then by $f_leq t^-1(n)$ denote $kinmathbbNmid kleq t,f(k)=f(n)$. Here is a new definition for $phi$:
Definition 1: For any sequence $f$, define $phi f(n) := textcard f_leq n^-1(n) $
The following definition and conjecture describes the sequences that $phi$ will produce:
Definition 2: A sequence $f$ with range $mathbbN$ is regular if for any truncation at $tinmathbbN$, $$textcard f_leq
t^-1(1)geqtextcard f_leq t^-1(2)geqtextcard f_leq
t^-1(3)geq...$$
That is, for any truncation of the sequence $f$, the number of $1$s is $geq$ the number of $2$s, which is $geq$ the number of $3$s and so on, which ensures the sequence is counting properly. I am nearly certain this definition is equivalent to those in comments.
Conjecture: If $f$ is any sequence then $phi f$ is regular, and if $f$ is regular then $phi^2 f = f$.
Prove $phi f$ is regular via induction on the size of truncations and using the following lemma:
Lemma 1: A sequence $f$ is regular iff for each $tinmathbbN$ the truncated sequence $f_leq t$ is regular.
Proposition: For any sequence $f$, $phi f$ is regular.
Proof: If $t=1$, $phi f_leq 1$ is the singleton sequence, $phi f_leq 1=(1)$, so it is trivially regular.
Inductive step: Assume for any $s<t$, the truncated sequence $phi f_leq s$ is regular. Now show $phi f_leq t$ is regular by showing that for any truncation the defining inequality holds. In fact, it is sufficient to demonstrate the inequality for truncation up to length $t$.
Solution in progress
For a sequence $f$ define
the pre-image of $f$ denoted $f^-1(a):=ninmathbbNmid f(n)=a$.
a truncation of $f$ at $t$, denoted $f_leq t$, is the sequence with the domain restricted to $ninmathbbNmid nleq t$.
Then by $f_leq t^-1(n)$ denote $kinmathbbNmid kleq t,f(k)=f(n)$. Here is a new definition for $phi$:
Definition 1: For any sequence $f$, define $phi f(n) := textcard f_leq n^-1(n) $
The following definition and conjecture describes the sequences that $phi$ will produce:
Definition 2: A sequence $f$ with range $mathbbN$ is regular if for any truncation at $tinmathbbN$, $$textcard f_leq
t^-1(1)geqtextcard f_leq t^-1(2)geqtextcard f_leq
t^-1(3)geq...$$
That is, for any truncation of the sequence $f$, the number of $1$s is $geq$ the number of $2$s, which is $geq$ the number of $3$s and so on, which ensures the sequence is counting properly. I am nearly certain this definition is equivalent to those in comments.
Conjecture: If $f$ is any sequence then $phi f$ is regular, and if $f$ is regular then $phi^2 f = f$.
Prove $phi f$ is regular via induction on the size of truncations and using the following lemma:
Lemma 1: A sequence $f$ is regular iff for each $tinmathbbN$ the truncated sequence $f_leq t$ is regular.
Proposition: For any sequence $f$, $phi f$ is regular.
Proof: If $t=1$, $phi f_leq 1$ is the singleton sequence, $phi f_leq 1=(1)$, so it is trivially regular.
Inductive step: Assume for any $s<t$, the truncated sequence $phi f_leq s$ is regular. Now show $phi f_leq t$ is regular by showing that for any truncation the defining inequality holds. In fact, it is sufficient to demonstrate the inequality for truncation up to length $t$.
edited Aug 28 at 18:16
answered Aug 28 at 18:01
M. Nestor
4519
4519
Yes, your definition 2 matches up to condition 2 in my second approach, see my last comment there.
â Berci
Aug 29 at 7:58
add a comment |Â
Yes, your definition 2 matches up to condition 2 in my second approach, see my last comment there.
â Berci
Aug 29 at 7:58
Yes, your definition 2 matches up to condition 2 in my second approach, see my last comment there.
â Berci
Aug 29 at 7:58
Yes, your definition 2 matches up to condition 2 in my second approach, see my last comment there.
â Berci
Aug 29 at 7:58
add a comment |Â
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