Evaluating improper double integral with Lebesgue
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Consider the improper double integral
$$ I_textRiemann = int_0^1 int_0^sqrt x frac2xy1-y^4 ; dy ; dx = lim_B to 1^- int_0^B int_0^sqrt x frac2xy1-y^4 ; dy ; dx
.$$
The standard "freshman calculus" solution goes by swapping the order of integration to get $int_0^1 int_y^2^1 frac2xy1-y^4 ; dx ; dy$;
then the inner integral is $fracy1-y^4 int_y^2^1 2x ; dx = fracy1-y^4 left[ x^2 right]^1_y^2 = y$ and the answer is $int_0^1 y ; dy = frac12$. I'm trying to make sense of this rigorously, particularly the bit about swapping the order of integration (which seems to require some sort of Tonelli/Fubini result).
My idea is something like the following: define the double Lebesgue integral
$$I_textLebesgue = int_x in [0,1) int_y in [0,1) mathbf 1(x ge y^2) cdot frac2xy(1-y^4) ; dy ; dx.$$ Then Tonelli's theorem lets us swap the order of summation to get
$$I_textLebesgue = int_y in [0,1) fracy1-y^4 int_x in [0,1) mathbf 1(x ge y^2) cdot 2x ; dx ; dy.$$ Thus the inner integral is the same as the Riemann one $int_y^2^1 2x ; dx = 1 - y^4$, hence $$I_textLebesgue = int_y in [0,1) y ; dy = frac12.$$ However, since the original Riemann integral was improper, I don't really know how to justify the first step (cue $x^-1 sin x$ example).
So I have the following three questions:
Is there some result/theorem that lets me quickly see that $I_textRiemann = I_textLebesgue$? Bonus points for not using nonnegativity of $frac2xy1-y^4$.
Is the calculation of $I_textLebesgue$ correct as written?
Are there other ways to justify the interchange of improper integrals? I'm fine appealing to Lebesgue since Lebesgue integrals are "better-behaved" anyways, but I'm wondering if I've missed something easier.
real-analysis measure-theory improper-integrals lebesgue-integral
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Consider the improper double integral
$$ I_textRiemann = int_0^1 int_0^sqrt x frac2xy1-y^4 ; dy ; dx = lim_B to 1^- int_0^B int_0^sqrt x frac2xy1-y^4 ; dy ; dx
.$$
The standard "freshman calculus" solution goes by swapping the order of integration to get $int_0^1 int_y^2^1 frac2xy1-y^4 ; dx ; dy$;
then the inner integral is $fracy1-y^4 int_y^2^1 2x ; dx = fracy1-y^4 left[ x^2 right]^1_y^2 = y$ and the answer is $int_0^1 y ; dy = frac12$. I'm trying to make sense of this rigorously, particularly the bit about swapping the order of integration (which seems to require some sort of Tonelli/Fubini result).
My idea is something like the following: define the double Lebesgue integral
$$I_textLebesgue = int_x in [0,1) int_y in [0,1) mathbf 1(x ge y^2) cdot frac2xy(1-y^4) ; dy ; dx.$$ Then Tonelli's theorem lets us swap the order of summation to get
$$I_textLebesgue = int_y in [0,1) fracy1-y^4 int_x in [0,1) mathbf 1(x ge y^2) cdot 2x ; dx ; dy.$$ Thus the inner integral is the same as the Riemann one $int_y^2^1 2x ; dx = 1 - y^4$, hence $$I_textLebesgue = int_y in [0,1) y ; dy = frac12.$$ However, since the original Riemann integral was improper, I don't really know how to justify the first step (cue $x^-1 sin x$ example).
So I have the following three questions:
Is there some result/theorem that lets me quickly see that $I_textRiemann = I_textLebesgue$? Bonus points for not using nonnegativity of $frac2xy1-y^4$.
Is the calculation of $I_textLebesgue$ correct as written?
Are there other ways to justify the interchange of improper integrals? I'm fine appealing to Lebesgue since Lebesgue integrals are "better-behaved" anyways, but I'm wondering if I've missed something easier.
real-analysis measure-theory improper-integrals lebesgue-integral
$u=y^2$ substitution simplifies it. Make it immediately.
â herb steinberg
Aug 26 at 22:02
IsnâÂÂt nonnegativity the fastest way? Simply apply TonelliâÂÂs theorem.
â Szeto
Aug 26 at 22:42
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Consider the improper double integral
$$ I_textRiemann = int_0^1 int_0^sqrt x frac2xy1-y^4 ; dy ; dx = lim_B to 1^- int_0^B int_0^sqrt x frac2xy1-y^4 ; dy ; dx
.$$
The standard "freshman calculus" solution goes by swapping the order of integration to get $int_0^1 int_y^2^1 frac2xy1-y^4 ; dx ; dy$;
then the inner integral is $fracy1-y^4 int_y^2^1 2x ; dx = fracy1-y^4 left[ x^2 right]^1_y^2 = y$ and the answer is $int_0^1 y ; dy = frac12$. I'm trying to make sense of this rigorously, particularly the bit about swapping the order of integration (which seems to require some sort of Tonelli/Fubini result).
My idea is something like the following: define the double Lebesgue integral
$$I_textLebesgue = int_x in [0,1) int_y in [0,1) mathbf 1(x ge y^2) cdot frac2xy(1-y^4) ; dy ; dx.$$ Then Tonelli's theorem lets us swap the order of summation to get
$$I_textLebesgue = int_y in [0,1) fracy1-y^4 int_x in [0,1) mathbf 1(x ge y^2) cdot 2x ; dx ; dy.$$ Thus the inner integral is the same as the Riemann one $int_y^2^1 2x ; dx = 1 - y^4$, hence $$I_textLebesgue = int_y in [0,1) y ; dy = frac12.$$ However, since the original Riemann integral was improper, I don't really know how to justify the first step (cue $x^-1 sin x$ example).
So I have the following three questions:
Is there some result/theorem that lets me quickly see that $I_textRiemann = I_textLebesgue$? Bonus points for not using nonnegativity of $frac2xy1-y^4$.
Is the calculation of $I_textLebesgue$ correct as written?
Are there other ways to justify the interchange of improper integrals? I'm fine appealing to Lebesgue since Lebesgue integrals are "better-behaved" anyways, but I'm wondering if I've missed something easier.
real-analysis measure-theory improper-integrals lebesgue-integral
Consider the improper double integral
$$ I_textRiemann = int_0^1 int_0^sqrt x frac2xy1-y^4 ; dy ; dx = lim_B to 1^- int_0^B int_0^sqrt x frac2xy1-y^4 ; dy ; dx
.$$
The standard "freshman calculus" solution goes by swapping the order of integration to get $int_0^1 int_y^2^1 frac2xy1-y^4 ; dx ; dy$;
then the inner integral is $fracy1-y^4 int_y^2^1 2x ; dx = fracy1-y^4 left[ x^2 right]^1_y^2 = y$ and the answer is $int_0^1 y ; dy = frac12$. I'm trying to make sense of this rigorously, particularly the bit about swapping the order of integration (which seems to require some sort of Tonelli/Fubini result).
My idea is something like the following: define the double Lebesgue integral
$$I_textLebesgue = int_x in [0,1) int_y in [0,1) mathbf 1(x ge y^2) cdot frac2xy(1-y^4) ; dy ; dx.$$ Then Tonelli's theorem lets us swap the order of summation to get
$$I_textLebesgue = int_y in [0,1) fracy1-y^4 int_x in [0,1) mathbf 1(x ge y^2) cdot 2x ; dx ; dy.$$ Thus the inner integral is the same as the Riemann one $int_y^2^1 2x ; dx = 1 - y^4$, hence $$I_textLebesgue = int_y in [0,1) y ; dy = frac12.$$ However, since the original Riemann integral was improper, I don't really know how to justify the first step (cue $x^-1 sin x$ example).
So I have the following three questions:
Is there some result/theorem that lets me quickly see that $I_textRiemann = I_textLebesgue$? Bonus points for not using nonnegativity of $frac2xy1-y^4$.
Is the calculation of $I_textLebesgue$ correct as written?
Are there other ways to justify the interchange of improper integrals? I'm fine appealing to Lebesgue since Lebesgue integrals are "better-behaved" anyways, but I'm wondering if I've missed something easier.
real-analysis measure-theory improper-integrals lebesgue-integral
asked Aug 26 at 21:20
Evan Chen
1,101513
1,101513
$u=y^2$ substitution simplifies it. Make it immediately.
â herb steinberg
Aug 26 at 22:02
IsnâÂÂt nonnegativity the fastest way? Simply apply TonelliâÂÂs theorem.
â Szeto
Aug 26 at 22:42
add a comment |Â
$u=y^2$ substitution simplifies it. Make it immediately.
â herb steinberg
Aug 26 at 22:02
IsnâÂÂt nonnegativity the fastest way? Simply apply TonelliâÂÂs theorem.
â Szeto
Aug 26 at 22:42
$u=y^2$ substitution simplifies it. Make it immediately.
â herb steinberg
Aug 26 at 22:02
$u=y^2$ substitution simplifies it. Make it immediately.
â herb steinberg
Aug 26 at 22:02
IsnâÂÂt nonnegativity the fastest way? Simply apply TonelliâÂÂs theorem.
â Szeto
Aug 26 at 22:42
IsnâÂÂt nonnegativity the fastest way? Simply apply TonelliâÂÂs theorem.
â Szeto
Aug 26 at 22:42
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
You don't need to turn to Lebesgue integration to add rigor. The result can be obtained rigorously within the framework of the multi-dimensional Riemann integral.
The Riemann integral is naturally defined over bounded rectangles and extended to more general (rectifiable) regions with an indicator function. Before we even begin to consider Fubini's theorem to manipulate iterated integrals, we first need to define what the inproper integral means. In this case, the restriction of $f(x,y) = 2xy/(1-y^4)$ is continuous and Riemann integrable over $S_b = {(x,y): 0 leqslant y leqslant sqrtx leqslant b$ for any $b < 1$ with the integral given by
$$I_b = int_S_bf = int_[0,b]^2f , chi_S_b$$
There are some technicalities regarding how to precisely define the improper (or extended) Riemann integral for arbitrary regions, but it boils down in this case to $I = lim_b to 1- I_b$ when the limit exists.
At this point we apply Fubini's theorem specifically for Riemann integrals, as discussed for example in Analysis on Manifolds by Munkres or Calculus on Manifolds by Spivak. This states simply if $f$ is integrable and the iterated Riemann integrals exist --both of which are satisfied here -- we have
$$beginalignI_b = int_0^b left(int_0^b frac2xy1 - y^4, chi_S_b , dyright) , dx &= int_0^b left(int_0^b frac2xy1 - y^4, chi_S_b , dxright) , dy \ &= int_0^b left(int_y^2^b frac2xy1 - y^4, , dxright) , dy \ &= int_0^b frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4, dy \ &= int_0^1 frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b , dy endalign$$
Since, for all $y in [0,1]$ we have
$$left| frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b right| leqslant y leqslant 1$$
it follows by the bounded convergence theorem that
$$I = lim_b to 1-I_b = int_0^1 lim_b to 1- frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b , dy = int_0^1 y , dy = frac12$$
Lebesgue and Riemann integrals coincide on bounded rectangles, so the demonstration could also be made in the context of Lebesgue integrals in an analogous fashion with the dominated convergence theorem.
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
You don't need to turn to Lebesgue integration to add rigor. The result can be obtained rigorously within the framework of the multi-dimensional Riemann integral.
The Riemann integral is naturally defined over bounded rectangles and extended to more general (rectifiable) regions with an indicator function. Before we even begin to consider Fubini's theorem to manipulate iterated integrals, we first need to define what the inproper integral means. In this case, the restriction of $f(x,y) = 2xy/(1-y^4)$ is continuous and Riemann integrable over $S_b = {(x,y): 0 leqslant y leqslant sqrtx leqslant b$ for any $b < 1$ with the integral given by
$$I_b = int_S_bf = int_[0,b]^2f , chi_S_b$$
There are some technicalities regarding how to precisely define the improper (or extended) Riemann integral for arbitrary regions, but it boils down in this case to $I = lim_b to 1- I_b$ when the limit exists.
At this point we apply Fubini's theorem specifically for Riemann integrals, as discussed for example in Analysis on Manifolds by Munkres or Calculus on Manifolds by Spivak. This states simply if $f$ is integrable and the iterated Riemann integrals exist --both of which are satisfied here -- we have
$$beginalignI_b = int_0^b left(int_0^b frac2xy1 - y^4, chi_S_b , dyright) , dx &= int_0^b left(int_0^b frac2xy1 - y^4, chi_S_b , dxright) , dy \ &= int_0^b left(int_y^2^b frac2xy1 - y^4, , dxright) , dy \ &= int_0^b frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4, dy \ &= int_0^1 frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b , dy endalign$$
Since, for all $y in [0,1]$ we have
$$left| frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b right| leqslant y leqslant 1$$
it follows by the bounded convergence theorem that
$$I = lim_b to 1-I_b = int_0^1 lim_b to 1- frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b , dy = int_0^1 y , dy = frac12$$
Lebesgue and Riemann integrals coincide on bounded rectangles, so the demonstration could also be made in the context of Lebesgue integrals in an analogous fashion with the dominated convergence theorem.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
You don't need to turn to Lebesgue integration to add rigor. The result can be obtained rigorously within the framework of the multi-dimensional Riemann integral.
The Riemann integral is naturally defined over bounded rectangles and extended to more general (rectifiable) regions with an indicator function. Before we even begin to consider Fubini's theorem to manipulate iterated integrals, we first need to define what the inproper integral means. In this case, the restriction of $f(x,y) = 2xy/(1-y^4)$ is continuous and Riemann integrable over $S_b = {(x,y): 0 leqslant y leqslant sqrtx leqslant b$ for any $b < 1$ with the integral given by
$$I_b = int_S_bf = int_[0,b]^2f , chi_S_b$$
There are some technicalities regarding how to precisely define the improper (or extended) Riemann integral for arbitrary regions, but it boils down in this case to $I = lim_b to 1- I_b$ when the limit exists.
At this point we apply Fubini's theorem specifically for Riemann integrals, as discussed for example in Analysis on Manifolds by Munkres or Calculus on Manifolds by Spivak. This states simply if $f$ is integrable and the iterated Riemann integrals exist --both of which are satisfied here -- we have
$$beginalignI_b = int_0^b left(int_0^b frac2xy1 - y^4, chi_S_b , dyright) , dx &= int_0^b left(int_0^b frac2xy1 - y^4, chi_S_b , dxright) , dy \ &= int_0^b left(int_y^2^b frac2xy1 - y^4, , dxright) , dy \ &= int_0^b frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4, dy \ &= int_0^1 frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b , dy endalign$$
Since, for all $y in [0,1]$ we have
$$left| frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b right| leqslant y leqslant 1$$
it follows by the bounded convergence theorem that
$$I = lim_b to 1-I_b = int_0^1 lim_b to 1- frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b , dy = int_0^1 y , dy = frac12$$
Lebesgue and Riemann integrals coincide on bounded rectangles, so the demonstration could also be made in the context of Lebesgue integrals in an analogous fashion with the dominated convergence theorem.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
You don't need to turn to Lebesgue integration to add rigor. The result can be obtained rigorously within the framework of the multi-dimensional Riemann integral.
The Riemann integral is naturally defined over bounded rectangles and extended to more general (rectifiable) regions with an indicator function. Before we even begin to consider Fubini's theorem to manipulate iterated integrals, we first need to define what the inproper integral means. In this case, the restriction of $f(x,y) = 2xy/(1-y^4)$ is continuous and Riemann integrable over $S_b = {(x,y): 0 leqslant y leqslant sqrtx leqslant b$ for any $b < 1$ with the integral given by
$$I_b = int_S_bf = int_[0,b]^2f , chi_S_b$$
There are some technicalities regarding how to precisely define the improper (or extended) Riemann integral for arbitrary regions, but it boils down in this case to $I = lim_b to 1- I_b$ when the limit exists.
At this point we apply Fubini's theorem specifically for Riemann integrals, as discussed for example in Analysis on Manifolds by Munkres or Calculus on Manifolds by Spivak. This states simply if $f$ is integrable and the iterated Riemann integrals exist --both of which are satisfied here -- we have
$$beginalignI_b = int_0^b left(int_0^b frac2xy1 - y^4, chi_S_b , dyright) , dx &= int_0^b left(int_0^b frac2xy1 - y^4, chi_S_b , dxright) , dy \ &= int_0^b left(int_y^2^b frac2xy1 - y^4, , dxright) , dy \ &= int_0^b frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4, dy \ &= int_0^1 frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b , dy endalign$$
Since, for all $y in [0,1]$ we have
$$left| frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b right| leqslant y leqslant 1$$
it follows by the bounded convergence theorem that
$$I = lim_b to 1-I_b = int_0^1 lim_b to 1- frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b , dy = int_0^1 y , dy = frac12$$
Lebesgue and Riemann integrals coincide on bounded rectangles, so the demonstration could also be made in the context of Lebesgue integrals in an analogous fashion with the dominated convergence theorem.
You don't need to turn to Lebesgue integration to add rigor. The result can be obtained rigorously within the framework of the multi-dimensional Riemann integral.
The Riemann integral is naturally defined over bounded rectangles and extended to more general (rectifiable) regions with an indicator function. Before we even begin to consider Fubini's theorem to manipulate iterated integrals, we first need to define what the inproper integral means. In this case, the restriction of $f(x,y) = 2xy/(1-y^4)$ is continuous and Riemann integrable over $S_b = {(x,y): 0 leqslant y leqslant sqrtx leqslant b$ for any $b < 1$ with the integral given by
$$I_b = int_S_bf = int_[0,b]^2f , chi_S_b$$
There are some technicalities regarding how to precisely define the improper (or extended) Riemann integral for arbitrary regions, but it boils down in this case to $I = lim_b to 1- I_b$ when the limit exists.
At this point we apply Fubini's theorem specifically for Riemann integrals, as discussed for example in Analysis on Manifolds by Munkres or Calculus on Manifolds by Spivak. This states simply if $f$ is integrable and the iterated Riemann integrals exist --both of which are satisfied here -- we have
$$beginalignI_b = int_0^b left(int_0^b frac2xy1 - y^4, chi_S_b , dyright) , dx &= int_0^b left(int_0^b frac2xy1 - y^4, chi_S_b , dxright) , dy \ &= int_0^b left(int_y^2^b frac2xy1 - y^4, , dxright) , dy \ &= int_0^b frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4, dy \ &= int_0^1 frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b , dy endalign$$
Since, for all $y in [0,1]$ we have
$$left| frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b right| leqslant y leqslant 1$$
it follows by the bounded convergence theorem that
$$I = lim_b to 1-I_b = int_0^1 lim_b to 1- frac(b^2-y^4)y1 - y^4 chi_y leqslant b , dy = int_0^1 y , dy = frac12$$
Lebesgue and Riemann integrals coincide on bounded rectangles, so the demonstration could also be made in the context of Lebesgue integrals in an analogous fashion with the dominated convergence theorem.
edited Aug 27 at 4:32
answered Aug 27 at 4:08
RRL
44.2k42362
44.2k42362
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2895527%2fevaluating-improper-double-integral-with-lebesgue%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
$u=y^2$ substitution simplifies it. Make it immediately.
â herb steinberg
Aug 26 at 22:02
IsnâÂÂt nonnegativity the fastest way? Simply apply TonelliâÂÂs theorem.
â Szeto
Aug 26 at 22:42