Prove that $|mathbfx+mathbfy|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$

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Let $l_infty$ be the vector space of bounded sequences of real numbers. Let $|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|$. Prove that $|mathbfx+mathbfy|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$.



My attempt:



Let $mathbfx, mathbfyin l_infty$. Then $mathbfx=(x_1, x_2, ldots)$ and $mathbfy=(y_1, y_2, ldots)$. $mathbfx+mathbfy=(x_1+y_1, x_2+y_2, ldots)$



$|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|implies |x_n|le|mathbfx| forall nge 1$



$|mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|y_n|implies |y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$



$|mathbfx+mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|implies |x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx+mathbfy| forall nge 1$



$|x_n+y_n|le|x_n|+|y_n| forall nge 1$ (Triangle inequality)



But $|x_n|le|mathbfx|$ and $|y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$



So, $|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy| forall nge 1$



So, $|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$ is an upper bound for $|x_n+y_n|$. --------------- (1)



So, $sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$



$Leftrightarrow|mathbfx+mathbfy|le |mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$



QED










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  • 1




    Is this even true? What if $mathbfx = (1,0,1,0,1,0,dots)$ and $mathbfy = (0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$?
    – Matthew Leingang
    Sep 11 at 2:42






  • 1




    Am I missing something? Take any not-constantly-zero sequence $(x_n)$ and put $y_n = -x_n$; doesn't this provide an immediate counter-example to equality? Where did you see this claim?
    – mathguy
    Sep 11 at 2:43











  • What if $mathbfy=-mathbfx$ and $mathbfx$ is nonzero?
    – edm
    Sep 11 at 2:46







  • 2




    @Callus you're talking about $limsup$. I think. In any case, the OP's definition of $sup$ is correct.
    – Theoretical Economist
    Sep 11 at 3:17






  • 1




    It looks right, or simply: $$sup_n |x_n + y_n| leq sup_n (|x_n| + |y_n|) leq sup_n |x_n| + sup_n |y_n|$$
    – user3669039
    Sep 11 at 14:07














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let $l_infty$ be the vector space of bounded sequences of real numbers. Let $|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|$. Prove that $|mathbfx+mathbfy|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$.



My attempt:



Let $mathbfx, mathbfyin l_infty$. Then $mathbfx=(x_1, x_2, ldots)$ and $mathbfy=(y_1, y_2, ldots)$. $mathbfx+mathbfy=(x_1+y_1, x_2+y_2, ldots)$



$|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|implies |x_n|le|mathbfx| forall nge 1$



$|mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|y_n|implies |y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$



$|mathbfx+mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|implies |x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx+mathbfy| forall nge 1$



$|x_n+y_n|le|x_n|+|y_n| forall nge 1$ (Triangle inequality)



But $|x_n|le|mathbfx|$ and $|y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$



So, $|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy| forall nge 1$



So, $|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$ is an upper bound for $|x_n+y_n|$. --------------- (1)



So, $sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$



$Leftrightarrow|mathbfx+mathbfy|le |mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$



QED










share|cite|improve this question



















  • 1




    Is this even true? What if $mathbfx = (1,0,1,0,1,0,dots)$ and $mathbfy = (0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$?
    – Matthew Leingang
    Sep 11 at 2:42






  • 1




    Am I missing something? Take any not-constantly-zero sequence $(x_n)$ and put $y_n = -x_n$; doesn't this provide an immediate counter-example to equality? Where did you see this claim?
    – mathguy
    Sep 11 at 2:43











  • What if $mathbfy=-mathbfx$ and $mathbfx$ is nonzero?
    – edm
    Sep 11 at 2:46







  • 2




    @Callus you're talking about $limsup$. I think. In any case, the OP's definition of $sup$ is correct.
    – Theoretical Economist
    Sep 11 at 3:17






  • 1




    It looks right, or simply: $$sup_n |x_n + y_n| leq sup_n (|x_n| + |y_n|) leq sup_n |x_n| + sup_n |y_n|$$
    – user3669039
    Sep 11 at 14:07












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Let $l_infty$ be the vector space of bounded sequences of real numbers. Let $|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|$. Prove that $|mathbfx+mathbfy|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$.



My attempt:



Let $mathbfx, mathbfyin l_infty$. Then $mathbfx=(x_1, x_2, ldots)$ and $mathbfy=(y_1, y_2, ldots)$. $mathbfx+mathbfy=(x_1+y_1, x_2+y_2, ldots)$



$|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|implies |x_n|le|mathbfx| forall nge 1$



$|mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|y_n|implies |y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$



$|mathbfx+mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|implies |x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx+mathbfy| forall nge 1$



$|x_n+y_n|le|x_n|+|y_n| forall nge 1$ (Triangle inequality)



But $|x_n|le|mathbfx|$ and $|y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$



So, $|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy| forall nge 1$



So, $|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$ is an upper bound for $|x_n+y_n|$. --------------- (1)



So, $sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$



$Leftrightarrow|mathbfx+mathbfy|le |mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$



QED










share|cite|improve this question















Let $l_infty$ be the vector space of bounded sequences of real numbers. Let $|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|$. Prove that $|mathbfx+mathbfy|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$.



My attempt:



Let $mathbfx, mathbfyin l_infty$. Then $mathbfx=(x_1, x_2, ldots)$ and $mathbfy=(y_1, y_2, ldots)$. $mathbfx+mathbfy=(x_1+y_1, x_2+y_2, ldots)$



$|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|implies |x_n|le|mathbfx| forall nge 1$



$|mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|y_n|implies |y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$



$|mathbfx+mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|implies |x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx+mathbfy| forall nge 1$



$|x_n+y_n|le|x_n|+|y_n| forall nge 1$ (Triangle inequality)



But $|x_n|le|mathbfx|$ and $|y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$



So, $|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy| forall nge 1$



So, $|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$ is an upper bound for $|x_n+y_n|$. --------------- (1)



So, $sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$



$Leftrightarrow|mathbfx+mathbfy|le |mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$



QED







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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Sep 11 at 13:11

























asked Sep 11 at 2:39









Thomas

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672415







  • 1




    Is this even true? What if $mathbfx = (1,0,1,0,1,0,dots)$ and $mathbfy = (0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$?
    – Matthew Leingang
    Sep 11 at 2:42






  • 1




    Am I missing something? Take any not-constantly-zero sequence $(x_n)$ and put $y_n = -x_n$; doesn't this provide an immediate counter-example to equality? Where did you see this claim?
    – mathguy
    Sep 11 at 2:43











  • What if $mathbfy=-mathbfx$ and $mathbfx$ is nonzero?
    – edm
    Sep 11 at 2:46







  • 2




    @Callus you're talking about $limsup$. I think. In any case, the OP's definition of $sup$ is correct.
    – Theoretical Economist
    Sep 11 at 3:17






  • 1




    It looks right, or simply: $$sup_n |x_n + y_n| leq sup_n (|x_n| + |y_n|) leq sup_n |x_n| + sup_n |y_n|$$
    – user3669039
    Sep 11 at 14:07












  • 1




    Is this even true? What if $mathbfx = (1,0,1,0,1,0,dots)$ and $mathbfy = (0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$?
    – Matthew Leingang
    Sep 11 at 2:42






  • 1




    Am I missing something? Take any not-constantly-zero sequence $(x_n)$ and put $y_n = -x_n$; doesn't this provide an immediate counter-example to equality? Where did you see this claim?
    – mathguy
    Sep 11 at 2:43











  • What if $mathbfy=-mathbfx$ and $mathbfx$ is nonzero?
    – edm
    Sep 11 at 2:46







  • 2




    @Callus you're talking about $limsup$. I think. In any case, the OP's definition of $sup$ is correct.
    – Theoretical Economist
    Sep 11 at 3:17






  • 1




    It looks right, or simply: $$sup_n |x_n + y_n| leq sup_n (|x_n| + |y_n|) leq sup_n |x_n| + sup_n |y_n|$$
    – user3669039
    Sep 11 at 14:07







1




1




Is this even true? What if $mathbfx = (1,0,1,0,1,0,dots)$ and $mathbfy = (0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$?
– Matthew Leingang
Sep 11 at 2:42




Is this even true? What if $mathbfx = (1,0,1,0,1,0,dots)$ and $mathbfy = (0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$?
– Matthew Leingang
Sep 11 at 2:42




1




1




Am I missing something? Take any not-constantly-zero sequence $(x_n)$ and put $y_n = -x_n$; doesn't this provide an immediate counter-example to equality? Where did you see this claim?
– mathguy
Sep 11 at 2:43





Am I missing something? Take any not-constantly-zero sequence $(x_n)$ and put $y_n = -x_n$; doesn't this provide an immediate counter-example to equality? Where did you see this claim?
– mathguy
Sep 11 at 2:43













What if $mathbfy=-mathbfx$ and $mathbfx$ is nonzero?
– edm
Sep 11 at 2:46





What if $mathbfy=-mathbfx$ and $mathbfx$ is nonzero?
– edm
Sep 11 at 2:46





2




2




@Callus you're talking about $limsup$. I think. In any case, the OP's definition of $sup$ is correct.
– Theoretical Economist
Sep 11 at 3:17




@Callus you're talking about $limsup$. I think. In any case, the OP's definition of $sup$ is correct.
– Theoretical Economist
Sep 11 at 3:17




1




1




It looks right, or simply: $$sup_n |x_n + y_n| leq sup_n (|x_n| + |y_n|) leq sup_n |x_n| + sup_n |y_n|$$
– user3669039
Sep 11 at 14:07




It looks right, or simply: $$sup_n |x_n + y_n| leq sup_n (|x_n| + |y_n|) leq sup_n |x_n| + sup_n |y_n|$$
– user3669039
Sep 11 at 14:07















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