Prove that $|mathbfx+mathbfy|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$
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Let $l_infty$ be the vector space of bounded sequences of real numbers. Let $|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|$. Prove that $|mathbfx+mathbfy|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$.
My attempt:
Let $mathbfx, mathbfyin l_infty$. Then $mathbfx=(x_1, x_2, ldots)$ and $mathbfy=(y_1, y_2, ldots)$. $mathbfx+mathbfy=(x_1+y_1, x_2+y_2, ldots)$
$|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|implies |x_n|le|mathbfx| forall nge 1$
$|mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|y_n|implies |y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$
$|mathbfx+mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|implies |x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx+mathbfy| forall nge 1$
$|x_n+y_n|le|x_n|+|y_n| forall nge 1$ (Triangle inequality)
But $|x_n|le|mathbfx|$ and $|y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$
So, $|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy| forall nge 1$
So, $|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$ is an upper bound for $|x_n+y_n|$. --------------- (1)
So, $sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$
$Leftrightarrow|mathbfx+mathbfy|le |mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$
QED
real-analysis norm
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up vote
2
down vote
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Let $l_infty$ be the vector space of bounded sequences of real numbers. Let $|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|$. Prove that $|mathbfx+mathbfy|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$.
My attempt:
Let $mathbfx, mathbfyin l_infty$. Then $mathbfx=(x_1, x_2, ldots)$ and $mathbfy=(y_1, y_2, ldots)$. $mathbfx+mathbfy=(x_1+y_1, x_2+y_2, ldots)$
$|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|implies |x_n|le|mathbfx| forall nge 1$
$|mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|y_n|implies |y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$
$|mathbfx+mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|implies |x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx+mathbfy| forall nge 1$
$|x_n+y_n|le|x_n|+|y_n| forall nge 1$ (Triangle inequality)
But $|x_n|le|mathbfx|$ and $|y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$
So, $|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy| forall nge 1$
So, $|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$ is an upper bound for $|x_n+y_n|$. --------------- (1)
So, $sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$
$Leftrightarrow|mathbfx+mathbfy|le |mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$
QED
real-analysis norm
1
Is this even true? What if $mathbfx = (1,0,1,0,1,0,dots)$ and $mathbfy = (0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$?
– Matthew Leingang
Sep 11 at 2:42
1
Am I missing something? Take any not-constantly-zero sequence $(x_n)$ and put $y_n = -x_n$; doesn't this provide an immediate counter-example to equality? Where did you see this claim?
– mathguy
Sep 11 at 2:43
What if $mathbfy=-mathbfx$ and $mathbfx$ is nonzero?
– edm
Sep 11 at 2:46
2
@Callus you're talking about $limsup$. I think. In any case, the OP's definition of $sup$ is correct.
– Theoretical Economist
Sep 11 at 3:17
1
It looks right, or simply: $$sup_n |x_n + y_n| leq sup_n (|x_n| + |y_n|) leq sup_n |x_n| + sup_n |y_n|$$
– user3669039
Sep 11 at 14:07
|
show 2 more comments
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Let $l_infty$ be the vector space of bounded sequences of real numbers. Let $|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|$. Prove that $|mathbfx+mathbfy|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$.
My attempt:
Let $mathbfx, mathbfyin l_infty$. Then $mathbfx=(x_1, x_2, ldots)$ and $mathbfy=(y_1, y_2, ldots)$. $mathbfx+mathbfy=(x_1+y_1, x_2+y_2, ldots)$
$|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|implies |x_n|le|mathbfx| forall nge 1$
$|mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|y_n|implies |y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$
$|mathbfx+mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|implies |x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx+mathbfy| forall nge 1$
$|x_n+y_n|le|x_n|+|y_n| forall nge 1$ (Triangle inequality)
But $|x_n|le|mathbfx|$ and $|y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$
So, $|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy| forall nge 1$
So, $|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$ is an upper bound for $|x_n+y_n|$. --------------- (1)
So, $sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$
$Leftrightarrow|mathbfx+mathbfy|le |mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$
QED
real-analysis norm
Let $l_infty$ be the vector space of bounded sequences of real numbers. Let $|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|$. Prove that $|mathbfx+mathbfy|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$.
My attempt:
Let $mathbfx, mathbfyin l_infty$. Then $mathbfx=(x_1, x_2, ldots)$ and $mathbfy=(y_1, y_2, ldots)$. $mathbfx+mathbfy=(x_1+y_1, x_2+y_2, ldots)$
$|mathbfx|=sup_nge 1|x_n|implies |x_n|le|mathbfx| forall nge 1$
$|mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|y_n|implies |y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$
$|mathbfx+mathbfy|=sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|implies |x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx+mathbfy| forall nge 1$
$|x_n+y_n|le|x_n|+|y_n| forall nge 1$ (Triangle inequality)
But $|x_n|le|mathbfx|$ and $|y_n|le|mathbfy| forall nge 1$
So, $|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy| forall nge 1$
So, $|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$ is an upper bound for $|x_n+y_n|$. --------------- (1)
So, $sup_nge 1|x_n+y_n|le|mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$
$Leftrightarrow|mathbfx+mathbfy|le |mathbfx|+|mathbfy|$
QED
real-analysis norm
real-analysis norm
edited Sep 11 at 13:11
asked Sep 11 at 2:39
Thomas
672415
672415
1
Is this even true? What if $mathbfx = (1,0,1,0,1,0,dots)$ and $mathbfy = (0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$?
– Matthew Leingang
Sep 11 at 2:42
1
Am I missing something? Take any not-constantly-zero sequence $(x_n)$ and put $y_n = -x_n$; doesn't this provide an immediate counter-example to equality? Where did you see this claim?
– mathguy
Sep 11 at 2:43
What if $mathbfy=-mathbfx$ and $mathbfx$ is nonzero?
– edm
Sep 11 at 2:46
2
@Callus you're talking about $limsup$. I think. In any case, the OP's definition of $sup$ is correct.
– Theoretical Economist
Sep 11 at 3:17
1
It looks right, or simply: $$sup_n |x_n + y_n| leq sup_n (|x_n| + |y_n|) leq sup_n |x_n| + sup_n |y_n|$$
– user3669039
Sep 11 at 14:07
|
show 2 more comments
1
Is this even true? What if $mathbfx = (1,0,1,0,1,0,dots)$ and $mathbfy = (0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$?
– Matthew Leingang
Sep 11 at 2:42
1
Am I missing something? Take any not-constantly-zero sequence $(x_n)$ and put $y_n = -x_n$; doesn't this provide an immediate counter-example to equality? Where did you see this claim?
– mathguy
Sep 11 at 2:43
What if $mathbfy=-mathbfx$ and $mathbfx$ is nonzero?
– edm
Sep 11 at 2:46
2
@Callus you're talking about $limsup$. I think. In any case, the OP's definition of $sup$ is correct.
– Theoretical Economist
Sep 11 at 3:17
1
It looks right, or simply: $$sup_n |x_n + y_n| leq sup_n (|x_n| + |y_n|) leq sup_n |x_n| + sup_n |y_n|$$
– user3669039
Sep 11 at 14:07
1
1
Is this even true? What if $mathbfx = (1,0,1,0,1,0,dots)$ and $mathbfy = (0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$?
– Matthew Leingang
Sep 11 at 2:42
Is this even true? What if $mathbfx = (1,0,1,0,1,0,dots)$ and $mathbfy = (0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$?
– Matthew Leingang
Sep 11 at 2:42
1
1
Am I missing something? Take any not-constantly-zero sequence $(x_n)$ and put $y_n = -x_n$; doesn't this provide an immediate counter-example to equality? Where did you see this claim?
– mathguy
Sep 11 at 2:43
Am I missing something? Take any not-constantly-zero sequence $(x_n)$ and put $y_n = -x_n$; doesn't this provide an immediate counter-example to equality? Where did you see this claim?
– mathguy
Sep 11 at 2:43
What if $mathbfy=-mathbfx$ and $mathbfx$ is nonzero?
– edm
Sep 11 at 2:46
What if $mathbfy=-mathbfx$ and $mathbfx$ is nonzero?
– edm
Sep 11 at 2:46
2
2
@Callus you're talking about $limsup$. I think. In any case, the OP's definition of $sup$ is correct.
– Theoretical Economist
Sep 11 at 3:17
@Callus you're talking about $limsup$. I think. In any case, the OP's definition of $sup$ is correct.
– Theoretical Economist
Sep 11 at 3:17
1
1
It looks right, or simply: $$sup_n |x_n + y_n| leq sup_n (|x_n| + |y_n|) leq sup_n |x_n| + sup_n |y_n|$$
– user3669039
Sep 11 at 14:07
It looks right, or simply: $$sup_n |x_n + y_n| leq sup_n (|x_n| + |y_n|) leq sup_n |x_n| + sup_n |y_n|$$
– user3669039
Sep 11 at 14:07
|
show 2 more comments
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1
Is this even true? What if $mathbfx = (1,0,1,0,1,0,dots)$ and $mathbfy = (0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$?
– Matthew Leingang
Sep 11 at 2:42
1
Am I missing something? Take any not-constantly-zero sequence $(x_n)$ and put $y_n = -x_n$; doesn't this provide an immediate counter-example to equality? Where did you see this claim?
– mathguy
Sep 11 at 2:43
What if $mathbfy=-mathbfx$ and $mathbfx$ is nonzero?
– edm
Sep 11 at 2:46
2
@Callus you're talking about $limsup$. I think. In any case, the OP's definition of $sup$ is correct.
– Theoretical Economist
Sep 11 at 3:17
1
It looks right, or simply: $$sup_n |x_n + y_n| leq sup_n (|x_n| + |y_n|) leq sup_n |x_n| + sup_n |y_n|$$
– user3669039
Sep 11 at 14:07