How can I find the right inverse of a function and show that a left one doesn't exist

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Let $f:mathbbR rightarrow [0,infty)$ be a mapping with $f(x)=x^2$ Show that $f$ has a right inverse, $h$, but not a left inverse and find h(0) and h(1)..



So from looking at this function, I know it's not injective because suppose $f(a) = f(b)$



So $a^2 = b^2$, then we have $pm a = pm b$. It's surjective because for $x = pm y$, $f(x) = y$



My idea of an inverse function would be:



let $h: [0,infty) rightarrow mathbbR$ be a mapping with $h(x) = x^frac12$



With this I can see that $f circ h = f(x^frac12) = x^(frac12)^2 = x$ so there is a right inverse but I can also see that



$h circ f = h(x^2) = (x^2)^frac12 = x$ which would mean it is a left inverse as well.



So what is wrong with my inverse function and how can I show that a right inverse exists but not a left one?










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    Let $f:mathbbR rightarrow [0,infty)$ be a mapping with $f(x)=x^2$ Show that $f$ has a right inverse, $h$, but not a left inverse and find h(0) and h(1)..



    So from looking at this function, I know it's not injective because suppose $f(a) = f(b)$



    So $a^2 = b^2$, then we have $pm a = pm b$. It's surjective because for $x = pm y$, $f(x) = y$



    My idea of an inverse function would be:



    let $h: [0,infty) rightarrow mathbbR$ be a mapping with $h(x) = x^frac12$



    With this I can see that $f circ h = f(x^frac12) = x^(frac12)^2 = x$ so there is a right inverse but I can also see that



    $h circ f = h(x^2) = (x^2)^frac12 = x$ which would mean it is a left inverse as well.



    So what is wrong with my inverse function and how can I show that a right inverse exists but not a left one?










    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $f:mathbbR rightarrow [0,infty)$ be a mapping with $f(x)=x^2$ Show that $f$ has a right inverse, $h$, but not a left inverse and find h(0) and h(1)..



      So from looking at this function, I know it's not injective because suppose $f(a) = f(b)$



      So $a^2 = b^2$, then we have $pm a = pm b$. It's surjective because for $x = pm y$, $f(x) = y$



      My idea of an inverse function would be:



      let $h: [0,infty) rightarrow mathbbR$ be a mapping with $h(x) = x^frac12$



      With this I can see that $f circ h = f(x^frac12) = x^(frac12)^2 = x$ so there is a right inverse but I can also see that



      $h circ f = h(x^2) = (x^2)^frac12 = x$ which would mean it is a left inverse as well.



      So what is wrong with my inverse function and how can I show that a right inverse exists but not a left one?










      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $f:mathbbR rightarrow [0,infty)$ be a mapping with $f(x)=x^2$ Show that $f$ has a right inverse, $h$, but not a left inverse and find h(0) and h(1)..



      So from looking at this function, I know it's not injective because suppose $f(a) = f(b)$



      So $a^2 = b^2$, then we have $pm a = pm b$. It's surjective because for $x = pm y$, $f(x) = y$



      My idea of an inverse function would be:



      let $h: [0,infty) rightarrow mathbbR$ be a mapping with $h(x) = x^frac12$



      With this I can see that $f circ h = f(x^frac12) = x^(frac12)^2 = x$ so there is a right inverse but I can also see that



      $h circ f = h(x^2) = (x^2)^frac12 = x$ which would mean it is a left inverse as well.



      So what is wrong with my inverse function and how can I show that a right inverse exists but not a left one?







      inverse-function






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      asked Sep 4 at 5:41









      user8358234

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          $h(f(x))=(x^2)^frac 1 2=x$ if $xgeq 0$ and $-x$ if $x<0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • but my domain is from $[0,infty)$ so why would I need to define it for $x<0$
            – user8358234
            Sep 4 at 5:51










          • Domain of $f$ is $mathbb R$ so you have to prove that $hcirc f$ is the identity map on $mathbb R$ if you want to claim that $h$ is the inverse of $f$.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Sep 4 at 5:53











          • oh got it, thanks!
            – user8358234
            Sep 4 at 5:54










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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          $h(f(x))=(x^2)^frac 1 2=x$ if $xgeq 0$ and $-x$ if $x<0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • but my domain is from $[0,infty)$ so why would I need to define it for $x<0$
            – user8358234
            Sep 4 at 5:51










          • Domain of $f$ is $mathbb R$ so you have to prove that $hcirc f$ is the identity map on $mathbb R$ if you want to claim that $h$ is the inverse of $f$.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Sep 4 at 5:53











          • oh got it, thanks!
            – user8358234
            Sep 4 at 5:54














          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          $h(f(x))=(x^2)^frac 1 2=x$ if $xgeq 0$ and $-x$ if $x<0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • but my domain is from $[0,infty)$ so why would I need to define it for $x<0$
            – user8358234
            Sep 4 at 5:51










          • Domain of $f$ is $mathbb R$ so you have to prove that $hcirc f$ is the identity map on $mathbb R$ if you want to claim that $h$ is the inverse of $f$.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Sep 4 at 5:53











          • oh got it, thanks!
            – user8358234
            Sep 4 at 5:54












          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          $h(f(x))=(x^2)^frac 1 2=x$ if $xgeq 0$ and $-x$ if $x<0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          $h(f(x))=(x^2)^frac 1 2=x$ if $xgeq 0$ and $-x$ if $x<0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Sep 4 at 5:49









          Kavi Rama Murthy

          26k31437




          26k31437











          • but my domain is from $[0,infty)$ so why would I need to define it for $x<0$
            – user8358234
            Sep 4 at 5:51










          • Domain of $f$ is $mathbb R$ so you have to prove that $hcirc f$ is the identity map on $mathbb R$ if you want to claim that $h$ is the inverse of $f$.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Sep 4 at 5:53











          • oh got it, thanks!
            – user8358234
            Sep 4 at 5:54
















          • but my domain is from $[0,infty)$ so why would I need to define it for $x<0$
            – user8358234
            Sep 4 at 5:51










          • Domain of $f$ is $mathbb R$ so you have to prove that $hcirc f$ is the identity map on $mathbb R$ if you want to claim that $h$ is the inverse of $f$.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Sep 4 at 5:53











          • oh got it, thanks!
            – user8358234
            Sep 4 at 5:54















          but my domain is from $[0,infty)$ so why would I need to define it for $x<0$
          – user8358234
          Sep 4 at 5:51




          but my domain is from $[0,infty)$ so why would I need to define it for $x<0$
          – user8358234
          Sep 4 at 5:51












          Domain of $f$ is $mathbb R$ so you have to prove that $hcirc f$ is the identity map on $mathbb R$ if you want to claim that $h$ is the inverse of $f$.
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Sep 4 at 5:53





          Domain of $f$ is $mathbb R$ so you have to prove that $hcirc f$ is the identity map on $mathbb R$ if you want to claim that $h$ is the inverse of $f$.
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Sep 4 at 5:53













          oh got it, thanks!
          – user8358234
          Sep 4 at 5:54




          oh got it, thanks!
          – user8358234
          Sep 4 at 5:54

















           

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