Can two different branches of Puiseux expansion have the same tangent?

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Let $C$ be a curve in complex affine plane defined by an irreducible polynomial $f in mathbbC[x,y]$. If we create a Puiseux expansion of $C$ in the neighbourhhod of $(0,0)$, $C$ can be split into several branches (ie local parametrizations $(x,y)=(t^m,sum_1^infty a_r t^r)$).



My question is about tangents: is it possible for two different branches to have the same tangent at $(0,0)$? Can you give me an example of such irreducible $f$?










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    Let $C$ be a curve in complex affine plane defined by an irreducible polynomial $f in mathbbC[x,y]$. If we create a Puiseux expansion of $C$ in the neighbourhhod of $(0,0)$, $C$ can be split into several branches (ie local parametrizations $(x,y)=(t^m,sum_1^infty a_r t^r)$).



    My question is about tangents: is it possible for two different branches to have the same tangent at $(0,0)$? Can you give me an example of such irreducible $f$?










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      Let $C$ be a curve in complex affine plane defined by an irreducible polynomial $f in mathbbC[x,y]$. If we create a Puiseux expansion of $C$ in the neighbourhhod of $(0,0)$, $C$ can be split into several branches (ie local parametrizations $(x,y)=(t^m,sum_1^infty a_r t^r)$).



      My question is about tangents: is it possible for two different branches to have the same tangent at $(0,0)$? Can you give me an example of such irreducible $f$?










      share|cite|improve this question















      Let $C$ be a curve in complex affine plane defined by an irreducible polynomial $f in mathbbC[x,y]$. If we create a Puiseux expansion of $C$ in the neighbourhhod of $(0,0)$, $C$ can be split into several branches (ie local parametrizations $(x,y)=(t^m,sum_1^infty a_r t^r)$).



      My question is about tangents: is it possible for two different branches to have the same tangent at $(0,0)$? Can you give me an example of such irreducible $f$?







      geometry algebraic-geometry parametrization






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      edited Sep 4 at 8:37









      Bernard

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      112k635104










      asked Sep 4 at 7:15









      antizaba

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          $f(x,y) = (x-y^2)(x+y^2) + x^3$.



          More explanation : It's easy to check that it's irreducible. Now, for a polynomial $f = f_r + f_r+1 + dots $ where $f_d$ is the homogenous part of degree $d$, the branches of $f$ and $f_r$ are in bijection and have the same tangent direction as an easy calculation shows. In particular the branches of $f$ at $0$ are $x-y^2 = 0$ and $x+y^2 = 0$ which are indeed tangent.






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            1 Answer
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            active

            oldest

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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted










            $f(x,y) = (x-y^2)(x+y^2) + x^3$.



            More explanation : It's easy to check that it's irreducible. Now, for a polynomial $f = f_r + f_r+1 + dots $ where $f_d$ is the homogenous part of degree $d$, the branches of $f$ and $f_r$ are in bijection and have the same tangent direction as an easy calculation shows. In particular the branches of $f$ at $0$ are $x-y^2 = 0$ and $x+y^2 = 0$ which are indeed tangent.






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              up vote
              1
              down vote



              accepted










              $f(x,y) = (x-y^2)(x+y^2) + x^3$.



              More explanation : It's easy to check that it's irreducible. Now, for a polynomial $f = f_r + f_r+1 + dots $ where $f_d$ is the homogenous part of degree $d$, the branches of $f$ and $f_r$ are in bijection and have the same tangent direction as an easy calculation shows. In particular the branches of $f$ at $0$ are $x-y^2 = 0$ and $x+y^2 = 0$ which are indeed tangent.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted






                $f(x,y) = (x-y^2)(x+y^2) + x^3$.



                More explanation : It's easy to check that it's irreducible. Now, for a polynomial $f = f_r + f_r+1 + dots $ where $f_d$ is the homogenous part of degree $d$, the branches of $f$ and $f_r$ are in bijection and have the same tangent direction as an easy calculation shows. In particular the branches of $f$ at $0$ are $x-y^2 = 0$ and $x+y^2 = 0$ which are indeed tangent.






                share|cite|improve this answer














                $f(x,y) = (x-y^2)(x+y^2) + x^3$.



                More explanation : It's easy to check that it's irreducible. Now, for a polynomial $f = f_r + f_r+1 + dots $ where $f_d$ is the homogenous part of degree $d$, the branches of $f$ and $f_r$ are in bijection and have the same tangent direction as an easy calculation shows. In particular the branches of $f$ at $0$ are $x-y^2 = 0$ and $x+y^2 = 0$ which are indeed tangent.







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Sep 5 at 6:55

























                answered Sep 4 at 13:11









                Nicolas Hemelsoet

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