Prove formally that a sequence $a_n = 1/n$ converges to $0$. [closed]

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Prove formally that a sequence $a_n = 1/n$ converges to $0$ using formal definition of continuity.










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closed as off-topic by amWhy, Adrian Keister, José Carlos Santos, Delta-u, Theoretical Economist Sep 5 at 1:43


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


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    Have you heard of Archimedean property?
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Prove formally that a sequence $a_n = 1/n$ converges to $0$ using formal definition of continuity.










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closed as off-topic by amWhy, Adrian Keister, José Carlos Santos, Delta-u, Theoretical Economist Sep 5 at 1:43


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, Adrian Keister, José Carlos Santos, Delta-u, Theoretical Economist
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 2




    Have you heard of Archimedean property?
    – Devendra Singh Rana
    Sep 4 at 11:12












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Prove formally that a sequence $a_n = 1/n$ converges to $0$ using formal definition of continuity.










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Prove formally that a sequence $a_n = 1/n$ converges to $0$ using formal definition of continuity.







probability-theory






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edited Sep 4 at 11:12

























asked Sep 4 at 11:08









Chintu

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closed as off-topic by amWhy, Adrian Keister, José Carlos Santos, Delta-u, Theoretical Economist Sep 5 at 1:43


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, Adrian Keister, José Carlos Santos, Delta-u, Theoretical Economist
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by amWhy, Adrian Keister, José Carlos Santos, Delta-u, Theoretical Economist Sep 5 at 1:43


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, Adrian Keister, José Carlos Santos, Delta-u, Theoretical Economist
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







  • 2




    Have you heard of Archimedean property?
    – Devendra Singh Rana
    Sep 4 at 11:12












  • 2




    Have you heard of Archimedean property?
    – Devendra Singh Rana
    Sep 4 at 11:12







2




2




Have you heard of Archimedean property?
– Devendra Singh Rana
Sep 4 at 11:12




Have you heard of Archimedean property?
– Devendra Singh Rana
Sep 4 at 11:12










3 Answers
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To say that $1/n$ converges to $0$ is to say that you can make the difference



$$vert frac1n -0 vert = vert frac1n vert = frac1n$$



less than any $epsilon$, no matter how small, just by taking a big enough $n$, going far enough in the sequence.



Now if $epsilon$ is arbitrary, what $n$ do you have to choose to make sure that
$$frac1n < epsilon quad text?$$






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    The sequence $a_n_n=1^infty$, where $a_n$ is defined as $a_n=frac1n$, is a convergent sequence. You can prove the fact that it is convergent with a limit of $L$ by showing that




    For every $epsilon > 0$, there exists some $Ninmathbb N$ such that for every $n>N$, the inequality $|a_n-L|<epsilon$





    On the other hand, the series



    $$sum_i=1^infty frac 1n$$ is divergent. This is because the sequence $S_n_n=1^infty$, defined as $$S_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1i$$ is divergent.






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      Proof



      For any $varepsilon>0$, there exists a $N=[1/varepsilon]+1$ (where $[cdots]$ denotes the floor integer function) such that $$big|frac1n-0big|=frac1n<frac1N=frac1[1/varepsilon]+1<frac11/varepsilon=varepsilon$$ when $n>N.$ Thus, by the definition of the sequence limit, we are done.






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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes








        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes








        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted










        To say that $1/n$ converges to $0$ is to say that you can make the difference



        $$vert frac1n -0 vert = vert frac1n vert = frac1n$$



        less than any $epsilon$, no matter how small, just by taking a big enough $n$, going far enough in the sequence.



        Now if $epsilon$ is arbitrary, what $n$ do you have to choose to make sure that
        $$frac1n < epsilon quad text?$$






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          To say that $1/n$ converges to $0$ is to say that you can make the difference



          $$vert frac1n -0 vert = vert frac1n vert = frac1n$$



          less than any $epsilon$, no matter how small, just by taking a big enough $n$, going far enough in the sequence.



          Now if $epsilon$ is arbitrary, what $n$ do you have to choose to make sure that
          $$frac1n < epsilon quad text?$$






          share|cite|improve this answer






















            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted






            To say that $1/n$ converges to $0$ is to say that you can make the difference



            $$vert frac1n -0 vert = vert frac1n vert = frac1n$$



            less than any $epsilon$, no matter how small, just by taking a big enough $n$, going far enough in the sequence.



            Now if $epsilon$ is arbitrary, what $n$ do you have to choose to make sure that
            $$frac1n < epsilon quad text?$$






            share|cite|improve this answer












            To say that $1/n$ converges to $0$ is to say that you can make the difference



            $$vert frac1n -0 vert = vert frac1n vert = frac1n$$



            less than any $epsilon$, no matter how small, just by taking a big enough $n$, going far enough in the sequence.



            Now if $epsilon$ is arbitrary, what $n$ do you have to choose to make sure that
            $$frac1n < epsilon quad text?$$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Sep 4 at 11:22









            JuliusL33t

            1,260817




            1,260817




















                up vote
                3
                down vote













                The sequence $a_n_n=1^infty$, where $a_n$ is defined as $a_n=frac1n$, is a convergent sequence. You can prove the fact that it is convergent with a limit of $L$ by showing that




                For every $epsilon > 0$, there exists some $Ninmathbb N$ such that for every $n>N$, the inequality $|a_n-L|<epsilon$





                On the other hand, the series



                $$sum_i=1^infty frac 1n$$ is divergent. This is because the sequence $S_n_n=1^infty$, defined as $$S_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1i$$ is divergent.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote













                  The sequence $a_n_n=1^infty$, where $a_n$ is defined as $a_n=frac1n$, is a convergent sequence. You can prove the fact that it is convergent with a limit of $L$ by showing that




                  For every $epsilon > 0$, there exists some $Ninmathbb N$ such that for every $n>N$, the inequality $|a_n-L|<epsilon$





                  On the other hand, the series



                  $$sum_i=1^infty frac 1n$$ is divergent. This is because the sequence $S_n_n=1^infty$, defined as $$S_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1i$$ is divergent.






                  share|cite|improve this answer






















                    up vote
                    3
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    3
                    down vote









                    The sequence $a_n_n=1^infty$, where $a_n$ is defined as $a_n=frac1n$, is a convergent sequence. You can prove the fact that it is convergent with a limit of $L$ by showing that




                    For every $epsilon > 0$, there exists some $Ninmathbb N$ such that for every $n>N$, the inequality $|a_n-L|<epsilon$





                    On the other hand, the series



                    $$sum_i=1^infty frac 1n$$ is divergent. This is because the sequence $S_n_n=1^infty$, defined as $$S_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1i$$ is divergent.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    The sequence $a_n_n=1^infty$, where $a_n$ is defined as $a_n=frac1n$, is a convergent sequence. You can prove the fact that it is convergent with a limit of $L$ by showing that




                    For every $epsilon > 0$, there exists some $Ninmathbb N$ such that for every $n>N$, the inequality $|a_n-L|<epsilon$





                    On the other hand, the series



                    $$sum_i=1^infty frac 1n$$ is divergent. This is because the sequence $S_n_n=1^infty$, defined as $$S_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1i$$ is divergent.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Sep 4 at 11:13









                    5xum

                    83.1k384148




                    83.1k384148




















                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        Proof



                        For any $varepsilon>0$, there exists a $N=[1/varepsilon]+1$ (where $[cdots]$ denotes the floor integer function) such that $$big|frac1n-0big|=frac1n<frac1N=frac1[1/varepsilon]+1<frac11/varepsilon=varepsilon$$ when $n>N.$ Thus, by the definition of the sequence limit, we are done.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote













                          Proof



                          For any $varepsilon>0$, there exists a $N=[1/varepsilon]+1$ (where $[cdots]$ denotes the floor integer function) such that $$big|frac1n-0big|=frac1n<frac1N=frac1[1/varepsilon]+1<frac11/varepsilon=varepsilon$$ when $n>N.$ Thus, by the definition of the sequence limit, we are done.






                          share|cite|improve this answer






















                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote









                            Proof



                            For any $varepsilon>0$, there exists a $N=[1/varepsilon]+1$ (where $[cdots]$ denotes the floor integer function) such that $$big|frac1n-0big|=frac1n<frac1N=frac1[1/varepsilon]+1<frac11/varepsilon=varepsilon$$ when $n>N.$ Thus, by the definition of the sequence limit, we are done.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            Proof



                            For any $varepsilon>0$, there exists a $N=[1/varepsilon]+1$ (where $[cdots]$ denotes the floor integer function) such that $$big|frac1n-0big|=frac1n<frac1N=frac1[1/varepsilon]+1<frac11/varepsilon=varepsilon$$ when $n>N.$ Thus, by the definition of the sequence limit, we are done.







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                            share|cite|improve this answer



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                            answered Sep 4 at 14:10









                            mengdie1982

                            3,824216




                            3,824216












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