Proof of the open interval $(-1,1)$ with respect to $*$ is a group [duplicate]

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  • Proving a set is an abelian group.

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Hi,so I just can't get my head through the solution for 4th problem.I successfully proved associative law and when I wrote an equation for finding identity element I did get the same thing,but then I don't understand how they get $e(1 - x^2) = 0$. I always get $x + e = x^2e + x$.



I'd appreciate if someone could explain. I understand that logically speaking, it should be $0$.










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Sep 11 at 13:39


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    up vote
    3
    down vote

    favorite













    This question already has an answer here:



    • Proving a set is an abelian group.

      4 answers



    The problem



    The solution



    Hi,so I just can't get my head through the solution for 4th problem.I successfully proved associative law and when I wrote an equation for finding identity element I did get the same thing,but then I don't understand how they get $e(1 - x^2) = 0$. I always get $x + e = x^2e + x$.



    I'd appreciate if someone could explain. I understand that logically speaking, it should be $0$.










    share|cite|improve this question















    marked as duplicate by Arnaud D., Lord Shark the Unknown abstract-algebra
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      up vote
      3
      down vote

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      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite












      This question already has an answer here:



      • Proving a set is an abelian group.

        4 answers



      The problem



      The solution



      Hi,so I just can't get my head through the solution for 4th problem.I successfully proved associative law and when I wrote an equation for finding identity element I did get the same thing,but then I don't understand how they get $e(1 - x^2) = 0$. I always get $x + e = x^2e + x$.



      I'd appreciate if someone could explain. I understand that logically speaking, it should be $0$.










      share|cite|improve this question
















      This question already has an answer here:



      • Proving a set is an abelian group.

        4 answers



      The problem



      The solution



      Hi,so I just can't get my head through the solution for 4th problem.I successfully proved associative law and when I wrote an equation for finding identity element I did get the same thing,but then I don't understand how they get $e(1 - x^2) = 0$. I always get $x + e = x^2e + x$.



      I'd appreciate if someone could explain. I understand that logically speaking, it should be $0$.





      This question already has an answer here:



      • Proving a set is an abelian group.

        4 answers







      abstract-algebra algebra-precalculus






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      edited Sep 11 at 12:45

























      asked Sep 11 at 3:32









      Cat

      184




      184




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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          6
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $e$ be the identity element. Then



          $$x*e=x=e*x=fracx+exe+1$$ so, $x(xe+1)=x+e$ and so $x^2e+x=x+e$ which implies $$e-x^2e=0$$ that is, $$e(1-x^2)=0$$ and so $e=0$



          Verification: $$x*0=fracx+0x.0+1=x=0*x$$



          Added: To find the inverse of an arbitrary $x$, assume $y$ is the inverse of $x$. That is, $$x*y=0=fracx+yxy+1$$



          Therefore, numerator must be zero and so $y=-x$






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • thank you soo much!
            – Cat
            Sep 11 at 13:03










          • You are welcome!
            – Chinnapparaj R
            Sep 12 at 4:36

















          up vote
          7
          down vote













          Here is an alternative solution. I'm sure not everyone will like it.



          Observe that
          $$tanh(a+b)=fractanh a+tanh b1+tanh atanh b.$$
          Therefore
          $$x*y=tanhleft(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1yright).tag*$$



          From (*) one can read off associativity easily:
          beginalign
          x*(y*z)&=tanh(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1(y*z))\
          &=tanh(tanh^-1x+(tanh^-1y+tanh^-1z))\
          &=cdots=(x*y)*z.
          endalign
          Since $0$ is the additive identity and $tanh 0=0$ then $0$
          is the identity for $*$. Also
          $$x*(-x)=tanh(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1(-x))
          =tanh(tanh^-1x-tanh^-1x)=tanh0=0$$
          etc.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Lol I didn't expected a trigonometric approach. Very creative!! :)
            – manooooh
            Sep 11 at 4:48










          • ike it! Shark it! :+)
            – mrs
            Sep 11 at 5:53










          • couldn't understood this now, but i hope i will someday thanks !
            – Cat
            Sep 11 at 13:04

















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          6
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $e$ be the identity element. Then



          $$x*e=x=e*x=fracx+exe+1$$ so, $x(xe+1)=x+e$ and so $x^2e+x=x+e$ which implies $$e-x^2e=0$$ that is, $$e(1-x^2)=0$$ and so $e=0$



          Verification: $$x*0=fracx+0x.0+1=x=0*x$$



          Added: To find the inverse of an arbitrary $x$, assume $y$ is the inverse of $x$. That is, $$x*y=0=fracx+yxy+1$$



          Therefore, numerator must be zero and so $y=-x$






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • thank you soo much!
            – Cat
            Sep 11 at 13:03










          • You are welcome!
            – Chinnapparaj R
            Sep 12 at 4:36














          up vote
          6
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $e$ be the identity element. Then



          $$x*e=x=e*x=fracx+exe+1$$ so, $x(xe+1)=x+e$ and so $x^2e+x=x+e$ which implies $$e-x^2e=0$$ that is, $$e(1-x^2)=0$$ and so $e=0$



          Verification: $$x*0=fracx+0x.0+1=x=0*x$$



          Added: To find the inverse of an arbitrary $x$, assume $y$ is the inverse of $x$. That is, $$x*y=0=fracx+yxy+1$$



          Therefore, numerator must be zero and so $y=-x$






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • thank you soo much!
            – Cat
            Sep 11 at 13:03










          • You are welcome!
            – Chinnapparaj R
            Sep 12 at 4:36












          up vote
          6
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          6
          down vote



          accepted






          Let $e$ be the identity element. Then



          $$x*e=x=e*x=fracx+exe+1$$ so, $x(xe+1)=x+e$ and so $x^2e+x=x+e$ which implies $$e-x^2e=0$$ that is, $$e(1-x^2)=0$$ and so $e=0$



          Verification: $$x*0=fracx+0x.0+1=x=0*x$$



          Added: To find the inverse of an arbitrary $x$, assume $y$ is the inverse of $x$. That is, $$x*y=0=fracx+yxy+1$$



          Therefore, numerator must be zero and so $y=-x$






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Let $e$ be the identity element. Then



          $$x*e=x=e*x=fracx+exe+1$$ so, $x(xe+1)=x+e$ and so $x^2e+x=x+e$ which implies $$e-x^2e=0$$ that is, $$e(1-x^2)=0$$ and so $e=0$



          Verification: $$x*0=fracx+0x.0+1=x=0*x$$



          Added: To find the inverse of an arbitrary $x$, assume $y$ is the inverse of $x$. That is, $$x*y=0=fracx+yxy+1$$



          Therefore, numerator must be zero and so $y=-x$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Sep 11 at 4:14

























          answered Sep 11 at 4:08









          Chinnapparaj R

          4,338725




          4,338725











          • thank you soo much!
            – Cat
            Sep 11 at 13:03










          • You are welcome!
            – Chinnapparaj R
            Sep 12 at 4:36
















          • thank you soo much!
            – Cat
            Sep 11 at 13:03










          • You are welcome!
            – Chinnapparaj R
            Sep 12 at 4:36















          thank you soo much!
          – Cat
          Sep 11 at 13:03




          thank you soo much!
          – Cat
          Sep 11 at 13:03












          You are welcome!
          – Chinnapparaj R
          Sep 12 at 4:36




          You are welcome!
          – Chinnapparaj R
          Sep 12 at 4:36










          up vote
          7
          down vote













          Here is an alternative solution. I'm sure not everyone will like it.



          Observe that
          $$tanh(a+b)=fractanh a+tanh b1+tanh atanh b.$$
          Therefore
          $$x*y=tanhleft(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1yright).tag*$$



          From (*) one can read off associativity easily:
          beginalign
          x*(y*z)&=tanh(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1(y*z))\
          &=tanh(tanh^-1x+(tanh^-1y+tanh^-1z))\
          &=cdots=(x*y)*z.
          endalign
          Since $0$ is the additive identity and $tanh 0=0$ then $0$
          is the identity for $*$. Also
          $$x*(-x)=tanh(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1(-x))
          =tanh(tanh^-1x-tanh^-1x)=tanh0=0$$
          etc.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Lol I didn't expected a trigonometric approach. Very creative!! :)
            – manooooh
            Sep 11 at 4:48










          • ike it! Shark it! :+)
            – mrs
            Sep 11 at 5:53










          • couldn't understood this now, but i hope i will someday thanks !
            – Cat
            Sep 11 at 13:04














          up vote
          7
          down vote













          Here is an alternative solution. I'm sure not everyone will like it.



          Observe that
          $$tanh(a+b)=fractanh a+tanh b1+tanh atanh b.$$
          Therefore
          $$x*y=tanhleft(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1yright).tag*$$



          From (*) one can read off associativity easily:
          beginalign
          x*(y*z)&=tanh(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1(y*z))\
          &=tanh(tanh^-1x+(tanh^-1y+tanh^-1z))\
          &=cdots=(x*y)*z.
          endalign
          Since $0$ is the additive identity and $tanh 0=0$ then $0$
          is the identity for $*$. Also
          $$x*(-x)=tanh(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1(-x))
          =tanh(tanh^-1x-tanh^-1x)=tanh0=0$$
          etc.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Lol I didn't expected a trigonometric approach. Very creative!! :)
            – manooooh
            Sep 11 at 4:48










          • ike it! Shark it! :+)
            – mrs
            Sep 11 at 5:53










          • couldn't understood this now, but i hope i will someday thanks !
            – Cat
            Sep 11 at 13:04












          up vote
          7
          down vote










          up vote
          7
          down vote









          Here is an alternative solution. I'm sure not everyone will like it.



          Observe that
          $$tanh(a+b)=fractanh a+tanh b1+tanh atanh b.$$
          Therefore
          $$x*y=tanhleft(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1yright).tag*$$



          From (*) one can read off associativity easily:
          beginalign
          x*(y*z)&=tanh(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1(y*z))\
          &=tanh(tanh^-1x+(tanh^-1y+tanh^-1z))\
          &=cdots=(x*y)*z.
          endalign
          Since $0$ is the additive identity and $tanh 0=0$ then $0$
          is the identity for $*$. Also
          $$x*(-x)=tanh(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1(-x))
          =tanh(tanh^-1x-tanh^-1x)=tanh0=0$$
          etc.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Here is an alternative solution. I'm sure not everyone will like it.



          Observe that
          $$tanh(a+b)=fractanh a+tanh b1+tanh atanh b.$$
          Therefore
          $$x*y=tanhleft(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1yright).tag*$$



          From (*) one can read off associativity easily:
          beginalign
          x*(y*z)&=tanh(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1(y*z))\
          &=tanh(tanh^-1x+(tanh^-1y+tanh^-1z))\
          &=cdots=(x*y)*z.
          endalign
          Since $0$ is the additive identity and $tanh 0=0$ then $0$
          is the identity for $*$. Also
          $$x*(-x)=tanh(tanh^-1x+tanh^-1(-x))
          =tanh(tanh^-1x-tanh^-1x)=tanh0=0$$
          etc.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Sep 11 at 4:36









          Lord Shark the Unknown

          95.7k957125




          95.7k957125











          • Lol I didn't expected a trigonometric approach. Very creative!! :)
            – manooooh
            Sep 11 at 4:48










          • ike it! Shark it! :+)
            – mrs
            Sep 11 at 5:53










          • couldn't understood this now, but i hope i will someday thanks !
            – Cat
            Sep 11 at 13:04
















          • Lol I didn't expected a trigonometric approach. Very creative!! :)
            – manooooh
            Sep 11 at 4:48










          • ike it! Shark it! :+)
            – mrs
            Sep 11 at 5:53










          • couldn't understood this now, but i hope i will someday thanks !
            – Cat
            Sep 11 at 13:04















          Lol I didn't expected a trigonometric approach. Very creative!! :)
          – manooooh
          Sep 11 at 4:48




          Lol I didn't expected a trigonometric approach. Very creative!! :)
          – manooooh
          Sep 11 at 4:48












          ike it! Shark it! :+)
          – mrs
          Sep 11 at 5:53




          ike it! Shark it! :+)
          – mrs
          Sep 11 at 5:53












          couldn't understood this now, but i hope i will someday thanks !
          – Cat
          Sep 11 at 13:04




          couldn't understood this now, but i hope i will someday thanks !
          – Cat
          Sep 11 at 13:04


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