Proof by induction that you can order natural numbers where the average isn't between any pair of numbers

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1












Consider a list of natural numbers like



$$1, 2, 3, dots, n$$



Prove using strong induction that you can order the list for any Natural n, in a way where if you pick any pair of numbers, the average of the numbers you choosed isn't between the numbers you choosed, consider the example



$$1, 3, 2$$



Where $1, 2, 3$ is not an acceptable list since the average of $1$ and $3$ is $2$, who is between $1$ and $3$.



Until now I have found that first you may separate the odd numbers, let them in the beginning or the end of the list, then separate from the sublist of odd numbers, the numbers who has odd index, and then make that again recursively with the sublist you create, this because the average of an odd with odd index with an odd with pair index is pair, and pairs are in the list of pairs you separated at the beginng







share|cite|improve this question


























    up vote
    2
    down vote

    favorite
    1












    Consider a list of natural numbers like



    $$1, 2, 3, dots, n$$



    Prove using strong induction that you can order the list for any Natural n, in a way where if you pick any pair of numbers, the average of the numbers you choosed isn't between the numbers you choosed, consider the example



    $$1, 3, 2$$



    Where $1, 2, 3$ is not an acceptable list since the average of $1$ and $3$ is $2$, who is between $1$ and $3$.



    Until now I have found that first you may separate the odd numbers, let them in the beginning or the end of the list, then separate from the sublist of odd numbers, the numbers who has odd index, and then make that again recursively with the sublist you create, this because the average of an odd with odd index with an odd with pair index is pair, and pairs are in the list of pairs you separated at the beginng







    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      Consider a list of natural numbers like



      $$1, 2, 3, dots, n$$



      Prove using strong induction that you can order the list for any Natural n, in a way where if you pick any pair of numbers, the average of the numbers you choosed isn't between the numbers you choosed, consider the example



      $$1, 3, 2$$



      Where $1, 2, 3$ is not an acceptable list since the average of $1$ and $3$ is $2$, who is between $1$ and $3$.



      Until now I have found that first you may separate the odd numbers, let them in the beginning or the end of the list, then separate from the sublist of odd numbers, the numbers who has odd index, and then make that again recursively with the sublist you create, this because the average of an odd with odd index with an odd with pair index is pair, and pairs are in the list of pairs you separated at the beginng







      share|cite|improve this question














      Consider a list of natural numbers like



      $$1, 2, 3, dots, n$$



      Prove using strong induction that you can order the list for any Natural n, in a way where if you pick any pair of numbers, the average of the numbers you choosed isn't between the numbers you choosed, consider the example



      $$1, 3, 2$$



      Where $1, 2, 3$ is not an acceptable list since the average of $1$ and $3$ is $2$, who is between $1$ and $3$.



      Until now I have found that first you may separate the odd numbers, let them in the beginning or the end of the list, then separate from the sublist of odd numbers, the numbers who has odd index, and then make that again recursively with the sublist you create, this because the average of an odd with odd index with an odd with pair index is pair, and pairs are in the list of pairs you separated at the beginng









      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 17 at 0:03









      pointguard0

      1,238821




      1,238821










      asked Aug 16 at 23:33









      Pablo Valentin Cortes Castillo

      132




      132




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          The method you mentioned is for all intents and purposes a complete solution. Here is way to write it as a proof by strong induction.



          The base case $n=1$ is obvious.



          For any $n>1$, $d=lceil n/2rceil$ and let $e=lfloor n/2rfloor$. Note $d,e<n$. Also, $d$ is the number of odd numbers in $1,2,dots,n$, while $e$ is the number of even numbers.



          By induction, the sets $1,2,dots,d$ and $1,2,dots,e$ can be ordered so no two numbers surround their average. Let these orderings be $(a_i)_i=1^d$ and $(b_i)_i=1^e$. Now, consider the list
          $$
          (2a_1-1,2a_2-1,dots,2a_d-1,2b_1,2b_2,dots,2b_e)
          $$
          You can show that this contains every number in $1,2,dots,n$ exactly once, and the average property still holds.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















            Your Answer




            StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
            return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
            StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
            StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
            );
            );
            , "mathjax-editing");

            StackExchange.ready(function()
            var channelOptions =
            tags: "".split(" "),
            id: "69"
            ;
            initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

            StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
            // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
            if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
            StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
            createEditor();
            );

            else
            createEditor();

            );

            function createEditor()
            StackExchange.prepareEditor(
            heartbeatType: 'answer',
            convertImagesToLinks: true,
            noModals: false,
            showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
            reputationToPostImages: 10,
            bindNavPrevention: true,
            postfix: "",
            noCode: true, onDemand: true,
            discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
            ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
            );



            );








             

            draft saved


            draft discarded


















            StackExchange.ready(
            function ()
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2885266%2fproof-by-induction-that-you-can-order-natural-numbers-where-the-average-isnt-be%23new-answer', 'question_page');

            );

            Post as a guest






























            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted










            The method you mentioned is for all intents and purposes a complete solution. Here is way to write it as a proof by strong induction.



            The base case $n=1$ is obvious.



            For any $n>1$, $d=lceil n/2rceil$ and let $e=lfloor n/2rfloor$. Note $d,e<n$. Also, $d$ is the number of odd numbers in $1,2,dots,n$, while $e$ is the number of even numbers.



            By induction, the sets $1,2,dots,d$ and $1,2,dots,e$ can be ordered so no two numbers surround their average. Let these orderings be $(a_i)_i=1^d$ and $(b_i)_i=1^e$. Now, consider the list
            $$
            (2a_1-1,2a_2-1,dots,2a_d-1,2b_1,2b_2,dots,2b_e)
            $$
            You can show that this contains every number in $1,2,dots,n$ exactly once, and the average property still holds.






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              up vote
              1
              down vote



              accepted










              The method you mentioned is for all intents and purposes a complete solution. Here is way to write it as a proof by strong induction.



              The base case $n=1$ is obvious.



              For any $n>1$, $d=lceil n/2rceil$ and let $e=lfloor n/2rfloor$. Note $d,e<n$. Also, $d$ is the number of odd numbers in $1,2,dots,n$, while $e$ is the number of even numbers.



              By induction, the sets $1,2,dots,d$ and $1,2,dots,e$ can be ordered so no two numbers surround their average. Let these orderings be $(a_i)_i=1^d$ and $(b_i)_i=1^e$. Now, consider the list
              $$
              (2a_1-1,2a_2-1,dots,2a_d-1,2b_1,2b_2,dots,2b_e)
              $$
              You can show that this contains every number in $1,2,dots,n$ exactly once, and the average property still holds.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted






                The method you mentioned is for all intents and purposes a complete solution. Here is way to write it as a proof by strong induction.



                The base case $n=1$ is obvious.



                For any $n>1$, $d=lceil n/2rceil$ and let $e=lfloor n/2rfloor$. Note $d,e<n$. Also, $d$ is the number of odd numbers in $1,2,dots,n$, while $e$ is the number of even numbers.



                By induction, the sets $1,2,dots,d$ and $1,2,dots,e$ can be ordered so no two numbers surround their average. Let these orderings be $(a_i)_i=1^d$ and $(b_i)_i=1^e$. Now, consider the list
                $$
                (2a_1-1,2a_2-1,dots,2a_d-1,2b_1,2b_2,dots,2b_e)
                $$
                You can show that this contains every number in $1,2,dots,n$ exactly once, and the average property still holds.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                The method you mentioned is for all intents and purposes a complete solution. Here is way to write it as a proof by strong induction.



                The base case $n=1$ is obvious.



                For any $n>1$, $d=lceil n/2rceil$ and let $e=lfloor n/2rfloor$. Note $d,e<n$. Also, $d$ is the number of odd numbers in $1,2,dots,n$, while $e$ is the number of even numbers.



                By induction, the sets $1,2,dots,d$ and $1,2,dots,e$ can be ordered so no two numbers surround their average. Let these orderings be $(a_i)_i=1^d$ and $(b_i)_i=1^e$. Now, consider the list
                $$
                (2a_1-1,2a_2-1,dots,2a_d-1,2b_1,2b_2,dots,2b_e)
                $$
                You can show that this contains every number in $1,2,dots,n$ exactly once, and the average property still holds.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Aug 16 at 23:59









                Mike Earnest

                16.6k11748




                16.6k11748






















                     

                    draft saved


                    draft discarded


























                     


                    draft saved


                    draft discarded














                    StackExchange.ready(
                    function ()
                    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2885266%2fproof-by-induction-that-you-can-order-natural-numbers-where-the-average-isnt-be%23new-answer', 'question_page');

                    );

                    Post as a guest













































































                    這個網誌中的熱門文章

                    tkz-euclide: tkzDrawCircle[R] not working

                    How to combine Bézier curves to a surface?

                    1st Magritte Awards