If a nonempty set of real numbers is open and closed, is it $mathbbR$? Why/Why not?

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In other words, are $emptyset$ and $mathbbR$ the only open and closed sets in $mathbbR$? Why/Why not?



I tried by assuming a set is equal to its interior points and contains its limit points.



A bounded set will not do since stuff like $[1,4]$ and $5$ will not work, though that is not really proof. Help please?



Anyway, it must then be unbounded.



If $a$ is a real number then $(a,infty)$, $(-infty,a)$, $[a,infty)$ and $(-infty,a]$ don't seem to cut it so it must be $mathbbR$.







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  • 2




    A closed set contains all of its border. An open set contains none of its border. What do you conclude about the border of a set that is both open and closed?
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 14:49






  • 3




    There was a hint that somehow vanished that suggested to think about connectedness.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Apr 13 '14 at 14:53






  • 1




    The border obviously cannot contain elements outside of $mathbb R$ because we are talking about the topology of $mathbb R$.
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 14:57






  • 2




    More exactly, its border is the empty set (the border as set of all border points is always defined, but the clopen set has no border points, and thus the border is empty).
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 15:13






  • 2




    Well, showing that is showing that $mathbb R$ is connected.
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 15:47














up vote
12
down vote

favorite
7












In other words, are $emptyset$ and $mathbbR$ the only open and closed sets in $mathbbR$? Why/Why not?



I tried by assuming a set is equal to its interior points and contains its limit points.



A bounded set will not do since stuff like $[1,4]$ and $5$ will not work, though that is not really proof. Help please?



Anyway, it must then be unbounded.



If $a$ is a real number then $(a,infty)$, $(-infty,a)$, $[a,infty)$ and $(-infty,a]$ don't seem to cut it so it must be $mathbbR$.







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    A closed set contains all of its border. An open set contains none of its border. What do you conclude about the border of a set that is both open and closed?
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 14:49






  • 3




    There was a hint that somehow vanished that suggested to think about connectedness.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Apr 13 '14 at 14:53






  • 1




    The border obviously cannot contain elements outside of $mathbb R$ because we are talking about the topology of $mathbb R$.
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 14:57






  • 2




    More exactly, its border is the empty set (the border as set of all border points is always defined, but the clopen set has no border points, and thus the border is empty).
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 15:13






  • 2




    Well, showing that is showing that $mathbb R$ is connected.
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 15:47












up vote
12
down vote

favorite
7









up vote
12
down vote

favorite
7






7





In other words, are $emptyset$ and $mathbbR$ the only open and closed sets in $mathbbR$? Why/Why not?



I tried by assuming a set is equal to its interior points and contains its limit points.



A bounded set will not do since stuff like $[1,4]$ and $5$ will not work, though that is not really proof. Help please?



Anyway, it must then be unbounded.



If $a$ is a real number then $(a,infty)$, $(-infty,a)$, $[a,infty)$ and $(-infty,a]$ don't seem to cut it so it must be $mathbbR$.







share|cite|improve this question














In other words, are $emptyset$ and $mathbbR$ the only open and closed sets in $mathbbR$? Why/Why not?



I tried by assuming a set is equal to its interior points and contains its limit points.



A bounded set will not do since stuff like $[1,4]$ and $5$ will not work, though that is not really proof. Help please?



Anyway, it must then be unbounded.



If $a$ is a real number then $(a,infty)$, $(-infty,a)$, $[a,infty)$ and $(-infty,a]$ don't seem to cut it so it must be $mathbbR$.









share|cite|improve this question













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edited Aug 17 at 5:41

























asked Apr 13 '14 at 14:47









BCLC

6,61322073




6,61322073







  • 2




    A closed set contains all of its border. An open set contains none of its border. What do you conclude about the border of a set that is both open and closed?
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 14:49






  • 3




    There was a hint that somehow vanished that suggested to think about connectedness.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Apr 13 '14 at 14:53






  • 1




    The border obviously cannot contain elements outside of $mathbb R$ because we are talking about the topology of $mathbb R$.
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 14:57






  • 2




    More exactly, its border is the empty set (the border as set of all border points is always defined, but the clopen set has no border points, and thus the border is empty).
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 15:13






  • 2




    Well, showing that is showing that $mathbb R$ is connected.
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 15:47












  • 2




    A closed set contains all of its border. An open set contains none of its border. What do you conclude about the border of a set that is both open and closed?
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 14:49






  • 3




    There was a hint that somehow vanished that suggested to think about connectedness.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Apr 13 '14 at 14:53






  • 1




    The border obviously cannot contain elements outside of $mathbb R$ because we are talking about the topology of $mathbb R$.
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 14:57






  • 2




    More exactly, its border is the empty set (the border as set of all border points is always defined, but the clopen set has no border points, and thus the border is empty).
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 15:13






  • 2




    Well, showing that is showing that $mathbb R$ is connected.
    – celtschk
    Apr 13 '14 at 15:47







2




2




A closed set contains all of its border. An open set contains none of its border. What do you conclude about the border of a set that is both open and closed?
– celtschk
Apr 13 '14 at 14:49




A closed set contains all of its border. An open set contains none of its border. What do you conclude about the border of a set that is both open and closed?
– celtschk
Apr 13 '14 at 14:49




3




3




There was a hint that somehow vanished that suggested to think about connectedness.
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Apr 13 '14 at 14:53




There was a hint that somehow vanished that suggested to think about connectedness.
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Apr 13 '14 at 14:53




1




1




The border obviously cannot contain elements outside of $mathbb R$ because we are talking about the topology of $mathbb R$.
– celtschk
Apr 13 '14 at 14:57




The border obviously cannot contain elements outside of $mathbb R$ because we are talking about the topology of $mathbb R$.
– celtschk
Apr 13 '14 at 14:57




2




2




More exactly, its border is the empty set (the border as set of all border points is always defined, but the clopen set has no border points, and thus the border is empty).
– celtschk
Apr 13 '14 at 15:13




More exactly, its border is the empty set (the border as set of all border points is always defined, but the clopen set has no border points, and thus the border is empty).
– celtschk
Apr 13 '14 at 15:13




2




2




Well, showing that is showing that $mathbb R$ is connected.
– celtschk
Apr 13 '14 at 15:47




Well, showing that is showing that $mathbb R$ is connected.
– celtschk
Apr 13 '14 at 15:47










6 Answers
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Suppose $X subset mathbbR$ is nonempty, open and closed. Let $x_0 in X$. Finally suppose that $X neq mathbbR$; then there is some $y notin X$; WLOG we can assume that $y > x_0$.



Then the set $Z = x in mathbbR : x > x_0, x notin X $ is bounded below (by $x_0$) and nonempty ($y in Z$). Therefore $inf Z = z$ exists.



  • Suppose $z in X$. Then since $X$ is open, it contains an open neighborhood $(z - epsilon, z + epsilon)$. This contradicts the definition of $z = inf Z$, because there would be a sequence $z_n > z$, $|z - z_n| < frac1n$, $z_n in Z Rightarrow z_n not in X$. This is not possible, because $[z, z + epsilon) subset X$.


  • Suppose $z not in X$. Then since $X$ is closed, its complement is open, therefore there is an open neighborhood $(z - epsilon, z + epsilon)$ contained in $mathbbR setminus X$. Then $z - fracepsilon2$ contradicts the $inf$ definition of $z$.


It follows that $X = mathbbR$.






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  • why would $z-fracepsilon2$ immediately yield a contradiction?
    – user162089
    Jun 7 '17 at 11:43










  • @user162089 Because $z - epsilon/2$ is in $mathbbR setminus X$. Furthermore so is all of $[z-epsilon/2, z]$, thus $x_0 not in [z-epsilon/2,z]$. However by definition $z$ is the inf of $mathbbR setminus X cap (x_0,+infty]$, therefore $z le z - epsilon/2$, a contradiction.
    – Najib Idrissi
    Jun 7 '17 at 11:47










  • How do you obtain $zleq z-epsilon/2$ from $z$ being the infimum of the set $Z$? I can't see why the jump holds.
    – user162089
    Jun 7 '17 at 12:01










  • @user162089 An infimum of a set is a lower bound for the set. $z$ is the infimum of the set $Z = (mathbbR setminus X) cap (x_0,+infty)$. $z - epsilon/2$ belongs to that set. A lower bound is smaller than all the elements of the set. I'm not sure what more you expect me to explain?
    – Najib Idrissi
    Jun 7 '17 at 12:36


















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You're trying to prove that $mathbbR$ is connected. You can do as follow : if a set $mathbfA$ is both open and closed, then you can check that $mathbb1_mathbfA$ (the characteristic function of $mathbfA$) is continuous, because $mathbb1_mathbfA^-1(O)$ where O is open is either $A$, its complement, the empty set or $R$ depending on $1$ and/or $0$ being in $O$, and all these set are open.



But $mathbb1_mathbfA$ only takes values $1$ or $0$, so it's easy to see that if it's continuous, then it's constant (if it is not, by the Intermediate Value Theorem, then it should also take all values between $0$ and $1$). Hence it's either always $1$ or $0$. And so $mathbfA$ is either $mathbbR$ or the empty set.






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  • Quite an elegant approach !
    – Robin
    Apr 21 '14 at 18:11










  • All you have proven is that a space $X$ is connected iff all functions $X to 0,1$ are constant. What you haven't proven (you just said "it's easy") is that all functions $mathbbR to 0,1$ are constant.
    – Najib Idrissi
    Jul 12 '16 at 9:56






  • 1




    No, I claimed that all continuous functions $mathbbR to 0, 1 $ are constant (of course it is false in general, e.g. $mathbb1_mathbbQ$ is not). I just added a short justification, but it's just a trivial application of the (well-known !) Intermediate Value Theorem.
    – yago
    Jul 13 '16 at 11:10










  • Nice approach! If $Bbb R$ were disconnected then there would exist a continuous $f:Bbb Rto Bbb R$ that does not have the IVP.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Aug 17 at 9:24

















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Because $mathbb R$ is connected. Asume $U$ is a nonempty proper open and closed subset of $mathbb R$, that is $V:=mathbb Rsetminus U$ is also nonempty and open.
Let $uin U$, $vin V$. Wlog. $u<v$.
Let $a=sup([u,v]cap U)$. As $[u,v]cap U$ is a nonempty bounded closed set, $ain([u,v]cap U)$. Hence $ule a<v$ (as $vnotin U$) and $U$ contains some $epsilon$ neighbourhood of $a$. But then $mina+frac12epsilon, vin Ucap[u,v]$, contradiction to $a$ being the supremum.






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    Let $S$ be a nonempty subset of $mathbbR$ that is both open and closed. Let's say that $S$ contains the element $s$. We want to show that no element of $mathbbR - S$ can be bigger than or less than $s$, immediately implying that it is empty.



    Suppose that there are elements of $mathbbR - S$ bigger than $s$. We can construct the set $X$ of all such elements, and consider its infimum. Use the fact that $S$ is open and closed to derive a contradiction. A similar argument works to show there are no elements of $mathbbR - S$ smaller than $s$.



    Note: This argument crucially uses the structure of $mathbbR$ in asserting the existence of infimums and supremums.






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    • Same as what Najib Idrissi did?
      – BCLC
      Aug 19 '15 at 6:58

















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    A space $X$ is connected if the only subsets of $X$ with empty boundary are $X$ and the empty set. Alternatively, $X$ is connected if the only subsets of $X$ which are both open and closed are $X$ and the empty set. Therefore, your first question asks if there exists any subset of $mathbb R$ that is connected. Indeed, yes, there is. An interval is connected. Your second question seems to ask if $mathbb R$ is connected. Yes, it is. For a proof, see here.






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      Here's yet another proof, which works by constructing a border point if $A$ is clopen nonempty proper subset of $mathbbR$:



      Be $Asubsetmathbb R$ both open and closed, but neither empty nor $mathbb R$. Then there exist points $ain A$ and $binmathbb Rsetminus A$.



      Now construct two sequences $(a_n)$ and $(b_n)$ as follows:



      $a_0=a$, $b_0=b$. For any $n$, be $c_n=(a_n+b_n)/2$. If $c_nin A$, then $a_n+1=c_n$, $b_n+1=b_n$, else $a_n+1=a_n$, $b_n+1=c_n$.



      Quite obviously for all $n$, $a_nin A$ and $b_nnotin A$. Also $lim_ntoinftyleft|a_n-b_nright| = lim_ntoinfty2^-nleft|a-bright| = 0$. Therefore there exists exactly one point $x$ so that $min(a_n,b_n)le xlemax(a_n,b_n)$ for all $n$ (nested intervals).



      Since $lim_ntoinftya_n=x$ and $lim_ntoinfty b_n=x$, we have in every open neighbourhood of $x$ both points in $A$ (namely $a_n$ for sufficiently large $n$) and in the complement of $A$ (namely $b_n$ for sufficiently large $n$). Thus $x$ is a border point of $A$, in contradiction that $A$ is both open and closed, and thus cannot have any border points.






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        6 Answers
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        6 Answers
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        up vote
        17
        down vote



        accepted










        Suppose $X subset mathbbR$ is nonempty, open and closed. Let $x_0 in X$. Finally suppose that $X neq mathbbR$; then there is some $y notin X$; WLOG we can assume that $y > x_0$.



        Then the set $Z = x in mathbbR : x > x_0, x notin X $ is bounded below (by $x_0$) and nonempty ($y in Z$). Therefore $inf Z = z$ exists.



        • Suppose $z in X$. Then since $X$ is open, it contains an open neighborhood $(z - epsilon, z + epsilon)$. This contradicts the definition of $z = inf Z$, because there would be a sequence $z_n > z$, $|z - z_n| < frac1n$, $z_n in Z Rightarrow z_n not in X$. This is not possible, because $[z, z + epsilon) subset X$.


        • Suppose $z not in X$. Then since $X$ is closed, its complement is open, therefore there is an open neighborhood $(z - epsilon, z + epsilon)$ contained in $mathbbR setminus X$. Then $z - fracepsilon2$ contradicts the $inf$ definition of $z$.


        It follows that $X = mathbbR$.






        share|cite|improve this answer




















        • why would $z-fracepsilon2$ immediately yield a contradiction?
          – user162089
          Jun 7 '17 at 11:43










        • @user162089 Because $z - epsilon/2$ is in $mathbbR setminus X$. Furthermore so is all of $[z-epsilon/2, z]$, thus $x_0 not in [z-epsilon/2,z]$. However by definition $z$ is the inf of $mathbbR setminus X cap (x_0,+infty]$, therefore $z le z - epsilon/2$, a contradiction.
          – Najib Idrissi
          Jun 7 '17 at 11:47










        • How do you obtain $zleq z-epsilon/2$ from $z$ being the infimum of the set $Z$? I can't see why the jump holds.
          – user162089
          Jun 7 '17 at 12:01










        • @user162089 An infimum of a set is a lower bound for the set. $z$ is the infimum of the set $Z = (mathbbR setminus X) cap (x_0,+infty)$. $z - epsilon/2$ belongs to that set. A lower bound is smaller than all the elements of the set. I'm not sure what more you expect me to explain?
          – Najib Idrissi
          Jun 7 '17 at 12:36















        up vote
        17
        down vote



        accepted










        Suppose $X subset mathbbR$ is nonempty, open and closed. Let $x_0 in X$. Finally suppose that $X neq mathbbR$; then there is some $y notin X$; WLOG we can assume that $y > x_0$.



        Then the set $Z = x in mathbbR : x > x_0, x notin X $ is bounded below (by $x_0$) and nonempty ($y in Z$). Therefore $inf Z = z$ exists.



        • Suppose $z in X$. Then since $X$ is open, it contains an open neighborhood $(z - epsilon, z + epsilon)$. This contradicts the definition of $z = inf Z$, because there would be a sequence $z_n > z$, $|z - z_n| < frac1n$, $z_n in Z Rightarrow z_n not in X$. This is not possible, because $[z, z + epsilon) subset X$.


        • Suppose $z not in X$. Then since $X$ is closed, its complement is open, therefore there is an open neighborhood $(z - epsilon, z + epsilon)$ contained in $mathbbR setminus X$. Then $z - fracepsilon2$ contradicts the $inf$ definition of $z$.


        It follows that $X = mathbbR$.






        share|cite|improve this answer




















        • why would $z-fracepsilon2$ immediately yield a contradiction?
          – user162089
          Jun 7 '17 at 11:43










        • @user162089 Because $z - epsilon/2$ is in $mathbbR setminus X$. Furthermore so is all of $[z-epsilon/2, z]$, thus $x_0 not in [z-epsilon/2,z]$. However by definition $z$ is the inf of $mathbbR setminus X cap (x_0,+infty]$, therefore $z le z - epsilon/2$, a contradiction.
          – Najib Idrissi
          Jun 7 '17 at 11:47










        • How do you obtain $zleq z-epsilon/2$ from $z$ being the infimum of the set $Z$? I can't see why the jump holds.
          – user162089
          Jun 7 '17 at 12:01










        • @user162089 An infimum of a set is a lower bound for the set. $z$ is the infimum of the set $Z = (mathbbR setminus X) cap (x_0,+infty)$. $z - epsilon/2$ belongs to that set. A lower bound is smaller than all the elements of the set. I'm not sure what more you expect me to explain?
          – Najib Idrissi
          Jun 7 '17 at 12:36













        up vote
        17
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        17
        down vote



        accepted






        Suppose $X subset mathbbR$ is nonempty, open and closed. Let $x_0 in X$. Finally suppose that $X neq mathbbR$; then there is some $y notin X$; WLOG we can assume that $y > x_0$.



        Then the set $Z = x in mathbbR : x > x_0, x notin X $ is bounded below (by $x_0$) and nonempty ($y in Z$). Therefore $inf Z = z$ exists.



        • Suppose $z in X$. Then since $X$ is open, it contains an open neighborhood $(z - epsilon, z + epsilon)$. This contradicts the definition of $z = inf Z$, because there would be a sequence $z_n > z$, $|z - z_n| < frac1n$, $z_n in Z Rightarrow z_n not in X$. This is not possible, because $[z, z + epsilon) subset X$.


        • Suppose $z not in X$. Then since $X$ is closed, its complement is open, therefore there is an open neighborhood $(z - epsilon, z + epsilon)$ contained in $mathbbR setminus X$. Then $z - fracepsilon2$ contradicts the $inf$ definition of $z$.


        It follows that $X = mathbbR$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Suppose $X subset mathbbR$ is nonempty, open and closed. Let $x_0 in X$. Finally suppose that $X neq mathbbR$; then there is some $y notin X$; WLOG we can assume that $y > x_0$.



        Then the set $Z = x in mathbbR : x > x_0, x notin X $ is bounded below (by $x_0$) and nonempty ($y in Z$). Therefore $inf Z = z$ exists.



        • Suppose $z in X$. Then since $X$ is open, it contains an open neighborhood $(z - epsilon, z + epsilon)$. This contradicts the definition of $z = inf Z$, because there would be a sequence $z_n > z$, $|z - z_n| < frac1n$, $z_n in Z Rightarrow z_n not in X$. This is not possible, because $[z, z + epsilon) subset X$.


        • Suppose $z not in X$. Then since $X$ is closed, its complement is open, therefore there is an open neighborhood $(z - epsilon, z + epsilon)$ contained in $mathbbR setminus X$. Then $z - fracepsilon2$ contradicts the $inf$ definition of $z$.


        It follows that $X = mathbbR$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Apr 13 '14 at 14:57









        Najib Idrissi

        39.3k469135




        39.3k469135











        • why would $z-fracepsilon2$ immediately yield a contradiction?
          – user162089
          Jun 7 '17 at 11:43










        • @user162089 Because $z - epsilon/2$ is in $mathbbR setminus X$. Furthermore so is all of $[z-epsilon/2, z]$, thus $x_0 not in [z-epsilon/2,z]$. However by definition $z$ is the inf of $mathbbR setminus X cap (x_0,+infty]$, therefore $z le z - epsilon/2$, a contradiction.
          – Najib Idrissi
          Jun 7 '17 at 11:47










        • How do you obtain $zleq z-epsilon/2$ from $z$ being the infimum of the set $Z$? I can't see why the jump holds.
          – user162089
          Jun 7 '17 at 12:01










        • @user162089 An infimum of a set is a lower bound for the set. $z$ is the infimum of the set $Z = (mathbbR setminus X) cap (x_0,+infty)$. $z - epsilon/2$ belongs to that set. A lower bound is smaller than all the elements of the set. I'm not sure what more you expect me to explain?
          – Najib Idrissi
          Jun 7 '17 at 12:36

















        • why would $z-fracepsilon2$ immediately yield a contradiction?
          – user162089
          Jun 7 '17 at 11:43










        • @user162089 Because $z - epsilon/2$ is in $mathbbR setminus X$. Furthermore so is all of $[z-epsilon/2, z]$, thus $x_0 not in [z-epsilon/2,z]$. However by definition $z$ is the inf of $mathbbR setminus X cap (x_0,+infty]$, therefore $z le z - epsilon/2$, a contradiction.
          – Najib Idrissi
          Jun 7 '17 at 11:47










        • How do you obtain $zleq z-epsilon/2$ from $z$ being the infimum of the set $Z$? I can't see why the jump holds.
          – user162089
          Jun 7 '17 at 12:01










        • @user162089 An infimum of a set is a lower bound for the set. $z$ is the infimum of the set $Z = (mathbbR setminus X) cap (x_0,+infty)$. $z - epsilon/2$ belongs to that set. A lower bound is smaller than all the elements of the set. I'm not sure what more you expect me to explain?
          – Najib Idrissi
          Jun 7 '17 at 12:36
















        why would $z-fracepsilon2$ immediately yield a contradiction?
        – user162089
        Jun 7 '17 at 11:43




        why would $z-fracepsilon2$ immediately yield a contradiction?
        – user162089
        Jun 7 '17 at 11:43












        @user162089 Because $z - epsilon/2$ is in $mathbbR setminus X$. Furthermore so is all of $[z-epsilon/2, z]$, thus $x_0 not in [z-epsilon/2,z]$. However by definition $z$ is the inf of $mathbbR setminus X cap (x_0,+infty]$, therefore $z le z - epsilon/2$, a contradiction.
        – Najib Idrissi
        Jun 7 '17 at 11:47




        @user162089 Because $z - epsilon/2$ is in $mathbbR setminus X$. Furthermore so is all of $[z-epsilon/2, z]$, thus $x_0 not in [z-epsilon/2,z]$. However by definition $z$ is the inf of $mathbbR setminus X cap (x_0,+infty]$, therefore $z le z - epsilon/2$, a contradiction.
        – Najib Idrissi
        Jun 7 '17 at 11:47












        How do you obtain $zleq z-epsilon/2$ from $z$ being the infimum of the set $Z$? I can't see why the jump holds.
        – user162089
        Jun 7 '17 at 12:01




        How do you obtain $zleq z-epsilon/2$ from $z$ being the infimum of the set $Z$? I can't see why the jump holds.
        – user162089
        Jun 7 '17 at 12:01












        @user162089 An infimum of a set is a lower bound for the set. $z$ is the infimum of the set $Z = (mathbbR setminus X) cap (x_0,+infty)$. $z - epsilon/2$ belongs to that set. A lower bound is smaller than all the elements of the set. I'm not sure what more you expect me to explain?
        – Najib Idrissi
        Jun 7 '17 at 12:36





        @user162089 An infimum of a set is a lower bound for the set. $z$ is the infimum of the set $Z = (mathbbR setminus X) cap (x_0,+infty)$. $z - epsilon/2$ belongs to that set. A lower bound is smaller than all the elements of the set. I'm not sure what more you expect me to explain?
        – Najib Idrissi
        Jun 7 '17 at 12:36











        up vote
        10
        down vote













        You're trying to prove that $mathbbR$ is connected. You can do as follow : if a set $mathbfA$ is both open and closed, then you can check that $mathbb1_mathbfA$ (the characteristic function of $mathbfA$) is continuous, because $mathbb1_mathbfA^-1(O)$ where O is open is either $A$, its complement, the empty set or $R$ depending on $1$ and/or $0$ being in $O$, and all these set are open.



        But $mathbb1_mathbfA$ only takes values $1$ or $0$, so it's easy to see that if it's continuous, then it's constant (if it is not, by the Intermediate Value Theorem, then it should also take all values between $0$ and $1$). Hence it's either always $1$ or $0$. And so $mathbfA$ is either $mathbbR$ or the empty set.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















        • Quite an elegant approach !
          – Robin
          Apr 21 '14 at 18:11










        • All you have proven is that a space $X$ is connected iff all functions $X to 0,1$ are constant. What you haven't proven (you just said "it's easy") is that all functions $mathbbR to 0,1$ are constant.
          – Najib Idrissi
          Jul 12 '16 at 9:56






        • 1




          No, I claimed that all continuous functions $mathbbR to 0, 1 $ are constant (of course it is false in general, e.g. $mathbb1_mathbbQ$ is not). I just added a short justification, but it's just a trivial application of the (well-known !) Intermediate Value Theorem.
          – yago
          Jul 13 '16 at 11:10










        • Nice approach! If $Bbb R$ were disconnected then there would exist a continuous $f:Bbb Rto Bbb R$ that does not have the IVP.
          – DanielWainfleet
          Aug 17 at 9:24














        up vote
        10
        down vote













        You're trying to prove that $mathbbR$ is connected. You can do as follow : if a set $mathbfA$ is both open and closed, then you can check that $mathbb1_mathbfA$ (the characteristic function of $mathbfA$) is continuous, because $mathbb1_mathbfA^-1(O)$ where O is open is either $A$, its complement, the empty set or $R$ depending on $1$ and/or $0$ being in $O$, and all these set are open.



        But $mathbb1_mathbfA$ only takes values $1$ or $0$, so it's easy to see that if it's continuous, then it's constant (if it is not, by the Intermediate Value Theorem, then it should also take all values between $0$ and $1$). Hence it's either always $1$ or $0$. And so $mathbfA$ is either $mathbbR$ or the empty set.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















        • Quite an elegant approach !
          – Robin
          Apr 21 '14 at 18:11










        • All you have proven is that a space $X$ is connected iff all functions $X to 0,1$ are constant. What you haven't proven (you just said "it's easy") is that all functions $mathbbR to 0,1$ are constant.
          – Najib Idrissi
          Jul 12 '16 at 9:56






        • 1




          No, I claimed that all continuous functions $mathbbR to 0, 1 $ are constant (of course it is false in general, e.g. $mathbb1_mathbbQ$ is not). I just added a short justification, but it's just a trivial application of the (well-known !) Intermediate Value Theorem.
          – yago
          Jul 13 '16 at 11:10










        • Nice approach! If $Bbb R$ were disconnected then there would exist a continuous $f:Bbb Rto Bbb R$ that does not have the IVP.
          – DanielWainfleet
          Aug 17 at 9:24












        up vote
        10
        down vote










        up vote
        10
        down vote









        You're trying to prove that $mathbbR$ is connected. You can do as follow : if a set $mathbfA$ is both open and closed, then you can check that $mathbb1_mathbfA$ (the characteristic function of $mathbfA$) is continuous, because $mathbb1_mathbfA^-1(O)$ where O is open is either $A$, its complement, the empty set or $R$ depending on $1$ and/or $0$ being in $O$, and all these set are open.



        But $mathbb1_mathbfA$ only takes values $1$ or $0$, so it's easy to see that if it's continuous, then it's constant (if it is not, by the Intermediate Value Theorem, then it should also take all values between $0$ and $1$). Hence it's either always $1$ or $0$. And so $mathbfA$ is either $mathbbR$ or the empty set.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        You're trying to prove that $mathbbR$ is connected. You can do as follow : if a set $mathbfA$ is both open and closed, then you can check that $mathbb1_mathbfA$ (the characteristic function of $mathbfA$) is continuous, because $mathbb1_mathbfA^-1(O)$ where O is open is either $A$, its complement, the empty set or $R$ depending on $1$ and/or $0$ being in $O$, and all these set are open.



        But $mathbb1_mathbfA$ only takes values $1$ or $0$, so it's easy to see that if it's continuous, then it's constant (if it is not, by the Intermediate Value Theorem, then it should also take all values between $0$ and $1$). Hence it's either always $1$ or $0$. And so $mathbfA$ is either $mathbbR$ or the empty set.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jul 13 '16 at 10:57

























        answered Apr 13 '14 at 14:57









        yago

        1,730510




        1,730510











        • Quite an elegant approach !
          – Robin
          Apr 21 '14 at 18:11










        • All you have proven is that a space $X$ is connected iff all functions $X to 0,1$ are constant. What you haven't proven (you just said "it's easy") is that all functions $mathbbR to 0,1$ are constant.
          – Najib Idrissi
          Jul 12 '16 at 9:56






        • 1




          No, I claimed that all continuous functions $mathbbR to 0, 1 $ are constant (of course it is false in general, e.g. $mathbb1_mathbbQ$ is not). I just added a short justification, but it's just a trivial application of the (well-known !) Intermediate Value Theorem.
          – yago
          Jul 13 '16 at 11:10










        • Nice approach! If $Bbb R$ were disconnected then there would exist a continuous $f:Bbb Rto Bbb R$ that does not have the IVP.
          – DanielWainfleet
          Aug 17 at 9:24
















        • Quite an elegant approach !
          – Robin
          Apr 21 '14 at 18:11










        • All you have proven is that a space $X$ is connected iff all functions $X to 0,1$ are constant. What you haven't proven (you just said "it's easy") is that all functions $mathbbR to 0,1$ are constant.
          – Najib Idrissi
          Jul 12 '16 at 9:56






        • 1




          No, I claimed that all continuous functions $mathbbR to 0, 1 $ are constant (of course it is false in general, e.g. $mathbb1_mathbbQ$ is not). I just added a short justification, but it's just a trivial application of the (well-known !) Intermediate Value Theorem.
          – yago
          Jul 13 '16 at 11:10










        • Nice approach! If $Bbb R$ were disconnected then there would exist a continuous $f:Bbb Rto Bbb R$ that does not have the IVP.
          – DanielWainfleet
          Aug 17 at 9:24















        Quite an elegant approach !
        – Robin
        Apr 21 '14 at 18:11




        Quite an elegant approach !
        – Robin
        Apr 21 '14 at 18:11












        All you have proven is that a space $X$ is connected iff all functions $X to 0,1$ are constant. What you haven't proven (you just said "it's easy") is that all functions $mathbbR to 0,1$ are constant.
        – Najib Idrissi
        Jul 12 '16 at 9:56




        All you have proven is that a space $X$ is connected iff all functions $X to 0,1$ are constant. What you haven't proven (you just said "it's easy") is that all functions $mathbbR to 0,1$ are constant.
        – Najib Idrissi
        Jul 12 '16 at 9:56




        1




        1




        No, I claimed that all continuous functions $mathbbR to 0, 1 $ are constant (of course it is false in general, e.g. $mathbb1_mathbbQ$ is not). I just added a short justification, but it's just a trivial application of the (well-known !) Intermediate Value Theorem.
        – yago
        Jul 13 '16 at 11:10




        No, I claimed that all continuous functions $mathbbR to 0, 1 $ are constant (of course it is false in general, e.g. $mathbb1_mathbbQ$ is not). I just added a short justification, but it's just a trivial application of the (well-known !) Intermediate Value Theorem.
        – yago
        Jul 13 '16 at 11:10












        Nice approach! If $Bbb R$ were disconnected then there would exist a continuous $f:Bbb Rto Bbb R$ that does not have the IVP.
        – DanielWainfleet
        Aug 17 at 9:24




        Nice approach! If $Bbb R$ were disconnected then there would exist a continuous $f:Bbb Rto Bbb R$ that does not have the IVP.
        – DanielWainfleet
        Aug 17 at 9:24










        up vote
        3
        down vote













        Because $mathbb R$ is connected. Asume $U$ is a nonempty proper open and closed subset of $mathbb R$, that is $V:=mathbb Rsetminus U$ is also nonempty and open.
        Let $uin U$, $vin V$. Wlog. $u<v$.
        Let $a=sup([u,v]cap U)$. As $[u,v]cap U$ is a nonempty bounded closed set, $ain([u,v]cap U)$. Hence $ule a<v$ (as $vnotin U$) and $U$ contains some $epsilon$ neighbourhood of $a$. But then $mina+frac12epsilon, vin Ucap[u,v]$, contradiction to $a$ being the supremum.






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          up vote
          3
          down vote













          Because $mathbb R$ is connected. Asume $U$ is a nonempty proper open and closed subset of $mathbb R$, that is $V:=mathbb Rsetminus U$ is also nonempty and open.
          Let $uin U$, $vin V$. Wlog. $u<v$.
          Let $a=sup([u,v]cap U)$. As $[u,v]cap U$ is a nonempty bounded closed set, $ain([u,v]cap U)$. Hence $ule a<v$ (as $vnotin U$) and $U$ contains some $epsilon$ neighbourhood of $a$. But then $mina+frac12epsilon, vin Ucap[u,v]$, contradiction to $a$ being the supremum.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















            up vote
            3
            down vote










            up vote
            3
            down vote









            Because $mathbb R$ is connected. Asume $U$ is a nonempty proper open and closed subset of $mathbb R$, that is $V:=mathbb Rsetminus U$ is also nonempty and open.
            Let $uin U$, $vin V$. Wlog. $u<v$.
            Let $a=sup([u,v]cap U)$. As $[u,v]cap U$ is a nonempty bounded closed set, $ain([u,v]cap U)$. Hence $ule a<v$ (as $vnotin U$) and $U$ contains some $epsilon$ neighbourhood of $a$. But then $mina+frac12epsilon, vin Ucap[u,v]$, contradiction to $a$ being the supremum.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Because $mathbb R$ is connected. Asume $U$ is a nonempty proper open and closed subset of $mathbb R$, that is $V:=mathbb Rsetminus U$ is also nonempty and open.
            Let $uin U$, $vin V$. Wlog. $u<v$.
            Let $a=sup([u,v]cap U)$. As $[u,v]cap U$ is a nonempty bounded closed set, $ain([u,v]cap U)$. Hence $ule a<v$ (as $vnotin U$) and $U$ contains some $epsilon$ neighbourhood of $a$. But then $mina+frac12epsilon, vin Ucap[u,v]$, contradiction to $a$ being the supremum.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Apr 13 '14 at 14:57









            Hagen von Eitzen

            266k21258477




            266k21258477




















                up vote
                3
                down vote













                Let $S$ be a nonempty subset of $mathbbR$ that is both open and closed. Let's say that $S$ contains the element $s$. We want to show that no element of $mathbbR - S$ can be bigger than or less than $s$, immediately implying that it is empty.



                Suppose that there are elements of $mathbbR - S$ bigger than $s$. We can construct the set $X$ of all such elements, and consider its infimum. Use the fact that $S$ is open and closed to derive a contradiction. A similar argument works to show there are no elements of $mathbbR - S$ smaller than $s$.



                Note: This argument crucially uses the structure of $mathbbR$ in asserting the existence of infimums and supremums.






                share|cite|improve this answer




















                • Same as what Najib Idrissi did?
                  – BCLC
                  Aug 19 '15 at 6:58














                up vote
                3
                down vote













                Let $S$ be a nonempty subset of $mathbbR$ that is both open and closed. Let's say that $S$ contains the element $s$. We want to show that no element of $mathbbR - S$ can be bigger than or less than $s$, immediately implying that it is empty.



                Suppose that there are elements of $mathbbR - S$ bigger than $s$. We can construct the set $X$ of all such elements, and consider its infimum. Use the fact that $S$ is open and closed to derive a contradiction. A similar argument works to show there are no elements of $mathbbR - S$ smaller than $s$.



                Note: This argument crucially uses the structure of $mathbbR$ in asserting the existence of infimums and supremums.






                share|cite|improve this answer




















                • Same as what Najib Idrissi did?
                  – BCLC
                  Aug 19 '15 at 6:58












                up vote
                3
                down vote










                up vote
                3
                down vote









                Let $S$ be a nonempty subset of $mathbbR$ that is both open and closed. Let's say that $S$ contains the element $s$. We want to show that no element of $mathbbR - S$ can be bigger than or less than $s$, immediately implying that it is empty.



                Suppose that there are elements of $mathbbR - S$ bigger than $s$. We can construct the set $X$ of all such elements, and consider its infimum. Use the fact that $S$ is open and closed to derive a contradiction. A similar argument works to show there are no elements of $mathbbR - S$ smaller than $s$.



                Note: This argument crucially uses the structure of $mathbbR$ in asserting the existence of infimums and supremums.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Let $S$ be a nonempty subset of $mathbbR$ that is both open and closed. Let's say that $S$ contains the element $s$. We want to show that no element of $mathbbR - S$ can be bigger than or less than $s$, immediately implying that it is empty.



                Suppose that there are elements of $mathbbR - S$ bigger than $s$. We can construct the set $X$ of all such elements, and consider its infimum. Use the fact that $S$ is open and closed to derive a contradiction. A similar argument works to show there are no elements of $mathbbR - S$ smaller than $s$.



                Note: This argument crucially uses the structure of $mathbbR$ in asserting the existence of infimums and supremums.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Apr 13 '14 at 14:57









                Elchanan Solomon

                21.3k44174




                21.3k44174











                • Same as what Najib Idrissi did?
                  – BCLC
                  Aug 19 '15 at 6:58
















                • Same as what Najib Idrissi did?
                  – BCLC
                  Aug 19 '15 at 6:58















                Same as what Najib Idrissi did?
                – BCLC
                Aug 19 '15 at 6:58




                Same as what Najib Idrissi did?
                – BCLC
                Aug 19 '15 at 6:58










                up vote
                1
                down vote













                A space $X$ is connected if the only subsets of $X$ with empty boundary are $X$ and the empty set. Alternatively, $X$ is connected if the only subsets of $X$ which are both open and closed are $X$ and the empty set. Therefore, your first question asks if there exists any subset of $mathbb R$ that is connected. Indeed, yes, there is. An interval is connected. Your second question seems to ask if $mathbb R$ is connected. Yes, it is. For a proof, see here.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote













                  A space $X$ is connected if the only subsets of $X$ with empty boundary are $X$ and the empty set. Alternatively, $X$ is connected if the only subsets of $X$ which are both open and closed are $X$ and the empty set. Therefore, your first question asks if there exists any subset of $mathbb R$ that is connected. Indeed, yes, there is. An interval is connected. Your second question seems to ask if $mathbb R$ is connected. Yes, it is. For a proof, see here.






                  share|cite|improve this answer






















                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote









                    A space $X$ is connected if the only subsets of $X$ with empty boundary are $X$ and the empty set. Alternatively, $X$ is connected if the only subsets of $X$ which are both open and closed are $X$ and the empty set. Therefore, your first question asks if there exists any subset of $mathbb R$ that is connected. Indeed, yes, there is. An interval is connected. Your second question seems to ask if $mathbb R$ is connected. Yes, it is. For a proof, see here.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    A space $X$ is connected if the only subsets of $X$ with empty boundary are $X$ and the empty set. Alternatively, $X$ is connected if the only subsets of $X$ which are both open and closed are $X$ and the empty set. Therefore, your first question asks if there exists any subset of $mathbb R$ that is connected. Indeed, yes, there is. An interval is connected. Your second question seems to ask if $mathbb R$ is connected. Yes, it is. For a proof, see here.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Apr 13 '14 at 14:57







                    user122283



























                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        Here's yet another proof, which works by constructing a border point if $A$ is clopen nonempty proper subset of $mathbbR$:



                        Be $Asubsetmathbb R$ both open and closed, but neither empty nor $mathbb R$. Then there exist points $ain A$ and $binmathbb Rsetminus A$.



                        Now construct two sequences $(a_n)$ and $(b_n)$ as follows:



                        $a_0=a$, $b_0=b$. For any $n$, be $c_n=(a_n+b_n)/2$. If $c_nin A$, then $a_n+1=c_n$, $b_n+1=b_n$, else $a_n+1=a_n$, $b_n+1=c_n$.



                        Quite obviously for all $n$, $a_nin A$ and $b_nnotin A$. Also $lim_ntoinftyleft|a_n-b_nright| = lim_ntoinfty2^-nleft|a-bright| = 0$. Therefore there exists exactly one point $x$ so that $min(a_n,b_n)le xlemax(a_n,b_n)$ for all $n$ (nested intervals).



                        Since $lim_ntoinftya_n=x$ and $lim_ntoinfty b_n=x$, we have in every open neighbourhood of $x$ both points in $A$ (namely $a_n$ for sufficiently large $n$) and in the complement of $A$ (namely $b_n$ for sufficiently large $n$). Thus $x$ is a border point of $A$, in contradiction that $A$ is both open and closed, and thus cannot have any border points.






                        share|cite|improve this answer


























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote













                          Here's yet another proof, which works by constructing a border point if $A$ is clopen nonempty proper subset of $mathbbR$:



                          Be $Asubsetmathbb R$ both open and closed, but neither empty nor $mathbb R$. Then there exist points $ain A$ and $binmathbb Rsetminus A$.



                          Now construct two sequences $(a_n)$ and $(b_n)$ as follows:



                          $a_0=a$, $b_0=b$. For any $n$, be $c_n=(a_n+b_n)/2$. If $c_nin A$, then $a_n+1=c_n$, $b_n+1=b_n$, else $a_n+1=a_n$, $b_n+1=c_n$.



                          Quite obviously for all $n$, $a_nin A$ and $b_nnotin A$. Also $lim_ntoinftyleft|a_n-b_nright| = lim_ntoinfty2^-nleft|a-bright| = 0$. Therefore there exists exactly one point $x$ so that $min(a_n,b_n)le xlemax(a_n,b_n)$ for all $n$ (nested intervals).



                          Since $lim_ntoinftya_n=x$ and $lim_ntoinfty b_n=x$, we have in every open neighbourhood of $x$ both points in $A$ (namely $a_n$ for sufficiently large $n$) and in the complement of $A$ (namely $b_n$ for sufficiently large $n$). Thus $x$ is a border point of $A$, in contradiction that $A$ is both open and closed, and thus cannot have any border points.






                          share|cite|improve this answer
























                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote









                            Here's yet another proof, which works by constructing a border point if $A$ is clopen nonempty proper subset of $mathbbR$:



                            Be $Asubsetmathbb R$ both open and closed, but neither empty nor $mathbb R$. Then there exist points $ain A$ and $binmathbb Rsetminus A$.



                            Now construct two sequences $(a_n)$ and $(b_n)$ as follows:



                            $a_0=a$, $b_0=b$. For any $n$, be $c_n=(a_n+b_n)/2$. If $c_nin A$, then $a_n+1=c_n$, $b_n+1=b_n$, else $a_n+1=a_n$, $b_n+1=c_n$.



                            Quite obviously for all $n$, $a_nin A$ and $b_nnotin A$. Also $lim_ntoinftyleft|a_n-b_nright| = lim_ntoinfty2^-nleft|a-bright| = 0$. Therefore there exists exactly one point $x$ so that $min(a_n,b_n)le xlemax(a_n,b_n)$ for all $n$ (nested intervals).



                            Since $lim_ntoinftya_n=x$ and $lim_ntoinfty b_n=x$, we have in every open neighbourhood of $x$ both points in $A$ (namely $a_n$ for sufficiently large $n$) and in the complement of $A$ (namely $b_n$ for sufficiently large $n$). Thus $x$ is a border point of $A$, in contradiction that $A$ is both open and closed, and thus cannot have any border points.






                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            Here's yet another proof, which works by constructing a border point if $A$ is clopen nonempty proper subset of $mathbbR$:



                            Be $Asubsetmathbb R$ both open and closed, but neither empty nor $mathbb R$. Then there exist points $ain A$ and $binmathbb Rsetminus A$.



                            Now construct two sequences $(a_n)$ and $(b_n)$ as follows:



                            $a_0=a$, $b_0=b$. For any $n$, be $c_n=(a_n+b_n)/2$. If $c_nin A$, then $a_n+1=c_n$, $b_n+1=b_n$, else $a_n+1=a_n$, $b_n+1=c_n$.



                            Quite obviously for all $n$, $a_nin A$ and $b_nnotin A$. Also $lim_ntoinftyleft|a_n-b_nright| = lim_ntoinfty2^-nleft|a-bright| = 0$. Therefore there exists exactly one point $x$ so that $min(a_n,b_n)le xlemax(a_n,b_n)$ for all $n$ (nested intervals).



                            Since $lim_ntoinftya_n=x$ and $lim_ntoinfty b_n=x$, we have in every open neighbourhood of $x$ both points in $A$ (namely $a_n$ for sufficiently large $n$) and in the complement of $A$ (namely $b_n$ for sufficiently large $n$). Thus $x$ is a border point of $A$, in contradiction that $A$ is both open and closed, and thus cannot have any border points.







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Apr 13 '14 at 16:31

























                            answered Apr 13 '14 at 16:09









                            celtschk

                            28.2k75495




                            28.2k75495






















                                 

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