$H leq mathbbZ_q^n$ and $H cong mathbbZ_q^m$ implies that $mathbbZ_q^n / H cong mathbbZ_q^n-m$

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Given a pair of positive integers $n,q$ and a subgroup $H leq mathbbZ_q^n$ such that $H cong mathbbZ_q^m$ for a positive
integer $m < n$ then show that
$$ mathbbZ_q^n / H cong mathbbZ_q^n-m.$$




This is a problem I came up with trying to generalize the trivial case when $q$ is a prime number (It is trivial because in this case a $mathbbZ_q$- module is a vector space).



I actually found a proof but I believe it's way too long for such a statement so I'm not asking for hints or suggestions: my question is if somebody is able to find a better proof (even a sketch would be fine).







share|cite|improve this question


























    up vote
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    Given a pair of positive integers $n,q$ and a subgroup $H leq mathbbZ_q^n$ such that $H cong mathbbZ_q^m$ for a positive
    integer $m < n$ then show that
    $$ mathbbZ_q^n / H cong mathbbZ_q^n-m.$$




    This is a problem I came up with trying to generalize the trivial case when $q$ is a prime number (It is trivial because in this case a $mathbbZ_q$- module is a vector space).



    I actually found a proof but I believe it's way too long for such a statement so I'm not asking for hints or suggestions: my question is if somebody is able to find a better proof (even a sketch would be fine).







    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite
      2









      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite
      2






      2






      Given a pair of positive integers $n,q$ and a subgroup $H leq mathbbZ_q^n$ such that $H cong mathbbZ_q^m$ for a positive
      integer $m < n$ then show that
      $$ mathbbZ_q^n / H cong mathbbZ_q^n-m.$$




      This is a problem I came up with trying to generalize the trivial case when $q$ is a prime number (It is trivial because in this case a $mathbbZ_q$- module is a vector space).



      I actually found a proof but I believe it's way too long for such a statement so I'm not asking for hints or suggestions: my question is if somebody is able to find a better proof (even a sketch would be fine).







      share|cite|improve this question















      Given a pair of positive integers $n,q$ and a subgroup $H leq mathbbZ_q^n$ such that $H cong mathbbZ_q^m$ for a positive
      integer $m < n$ then show that
      $$ mathbbZ_q^n / H cong mathbbZ_q^n-m.$$




      This is a problem I came up with trying to generalize the trivial case when $q$ is a prime number (It is trivial because in this case a $mathbbZ_q$- module is a vector space).



      I actually found a proof but I believe it's way too long for such a statement so I'm not asking for hints or suggestions: my question is if somebody is able to find a better proof (even a sketch would be fine).









      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 17 at 11:27

























      asked Aug 17 at 8:58









      JayTuma

      1,333118




      1,333118




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $e_i$ be the component vectors of $G=mathbbZ_q^n$, which have $1$ in the $i$th place, and zero elsewhere. Consider the generators of $H$; let's write one as
          $$ h_1 = (a_1, ldots, a_n) $$



          This element has order $q$, so one of the components has order $q$: say $a_i$. Then
          $$ h_1bigcup e_jmid jneq i$$
          is a generating set for $G$ of $n$ order-$q$ elements; there is thus an automorphism of $G$ sending $h_1$ to $e_i$. We can thus quotient out $e_1$, and induction on $m$ then shows $G/Hcong mathbbZ_q^n-m$.



          Edit: The above only works for $q$ a prime power, but that ends up being enough. Because $G$ can be written as a direct product of its Sylow subgroups
          $$ G = P_1times P_2timescdotstimes P_r $$
          where each Sylow subgroup is the unique one in $G$. Order considerations show
          $$ H = (Hcap P_1)(Hcap P_2)cdots(Hcap P_r) $$
          and this product is direct since the factors have trivial intersection.



          Thus
          $$ G/Hcong P_1/(Hcap P_1)times P_2/(Hcap P_2)cdots $$
          and these groups have the desired form by the first part of this answer.






          share|cite|improve this answer


















          • 2




            Sadly, it's not true that one of the component of $h_1$ need to have order $q$. This only happens in the case when $q = p^k$. A basic counterexample is in $mathbbZ^2_6$ the group $H = langle (2,3) rangle$. In particular there is no element in $H$ that satisfy your property (but still $H cong mathbbZ_q^1$)
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 16:59










          • Never the less i would please ask you to leave your answer here - just to point out how tricky this problem might be
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 17:02










          • Ah, sorry, I was thinking of $q$ as a prime power; I let the notation get the best of me!
            – Steve D
            Aug 17 at 18:06










          • should i edit it? cause in this special case your proof is correct
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 18:07










          • No I think it is OK to leave it. I actually think my approach can be salvaged. I just don't know how yet :)
            – Steve D
            Aug 17 at 19:44

















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          $requireAMScd$
          Here is a slightly different viewpoint, which might clear up what's happening.



          Let $A=mathbbZ^n$ with basis $e_1,ldots,e_n$. Also let $K=qA$, which is a characteristic subgroup of $A$, since for $phiintextrmAut(A)$, $phi(qa)=qphi(a)in K$.



          So $Gcong A/K$; let $H$ be generated by $h_1,ldots,h_m$, all of order $q$. Let $b_i$ be a preimage of $h_i$ in $A$ [it can just have the same coordinates of $h_i$]. Then $B=langle b_1,ldots,b_mrangle$ maps to $H$.



          Now there exists an automorphism $phiintextrmAut(A)$ sending $e_i$ to $f_i$, such that $b_i$ gets sent to $n_if_i$ for some integers $n_i$. We thus have the commutative diagram



          beginCD
          A @>phi>> A\
          @VVV @VVV \
          G @>>widetildephi> G
          endCD



          with $widetildephiintextrmAut(G)$. Note that we must have $gcd(n_i,q)=1$ in order for $widetildephi(h_i)$ to have order $q$. Thus we have
          beginalign*
          G &=langle widetildef_1,ldots,widetildef_nrangle\
          widetildephi(H) & =langle n_1widetildef_1,ldots,n_mwidetildef_mrangle\
          &= langlewidetildef_1,ldots,widetildef_mrangle
          endalign*
          The problem is then trivial.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • That is a bit more abstract approach and resemble somehow the fact that my question is equivalent to find a automorphism of $mathbbZ_q^n$ that send $H$ to the subgroup $mathbbZ_q^m times e ^m-n$ and this job is perfectly done by your function $overlinephi$. Still i had no idea how to show the existance of such a function
            – JayTuma
            Aug 20 at 19:14











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          2 Answers
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          active

          oldest

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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $e_i$ be the component vectors of $G=mathbbZ_q^n$, which have $1$ in the $i$th place, and zero elsewhere. Consider the generators of $H$; let's write one as
          $$ h_1 = (a_1, ldots, a_n) $$



          This element has order $q$, so one of the components has order $q$: say $a_i$. Then
          $$ h_1bigcup e_jmid jneq i$$
          is a generating set for $G$ of $n$ order-$q$ elements; there is thus an automorphism of $G$ sending $h_1$ to $e_i$. We can thus quotient out $e_1$, and induction on $m$ then shows $G/Hcong mathbbZ_q^n-m$.



          Edit: The above only works for $q$ a prime power, but that ends up being enough. Because $G$ can be written as a direct product of its Sylow subgroups
          $$ G = P_1times P_2timescdotstimes P_r $$
          where each Sylow subgroup is the unique one in $G$. Order considerations show
          $$ H = (Hcap P_1)(Hcap P_2)cdots(Hcap P_r) $$
          and this product is direct since the factors have trivial intersection.



          Thus
          $$ G/Hcong P_1/(Hcap P_1)times P_2/(Hcap P_2)cdots $$
          and these groups have the desired form by the first part of this answer.






          share|cite|improve this answer


















          • 2




            Sadly, it's not true that one of the component of $h_1$ need to have order $q$. This only happens in the case when $q = p^k$. A basic counterexample is in $mathbbZ^2_6$ the group $H = langle (2,3) rangle$. In particular there is no element in $H$ that satisfy your property (but still $H cong mathbbZ_q^1$)
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 16:59










          • Never the less i would please ask you to leave your answer here - just to point out how tricky this problem might be
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 17:02










          • Ah, sorry, I was thinking of $q$ as a prime power; I let the notation get the best of me!
            – Steve D
            Aug 17 at 18:06










          • should i edit it? cause in this special case your proof is correct
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 18:07










          • No I think it is OK to leave it. I actually think my approach can be salvaged. I just don't know how yet :)
            – Steve D
            Aug 17 at 19:44














          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $e_i$ be the component vectors of $G=mathbbZ_q^n$, which have $1$ in the $i$th place, and zero elsewhere. Consider the generators of $H$; let's write one as
          $$ h_1 = (a_1, ldots, a_n) $$



          This element has order $q$, so one of the components has order $q$: say $a_i$. Then
          $$ h_1bigcup e_jmid jneq i$$
          is a generating set for $G$ of $n$ order-$q$ elements; there is thus an automorphism of $G$ sending $h_1$ to $e_i$. We can thus quotient out $e_1$, and induction on $m$ then shows $G/Hcong mathbbZ_q^n-m$.



          Edit: The above only works for $q$ a prime power, but that ends up being enough. Because $G$ can be written as a direct product of its Sylow subgroups
          $$ G = P_1times P_2timescdotstimes P_r $$
          where each Sylow subgroup is the unique one in $G$. Order considerations show
          $$ H = (Hcap P_1)(Hcap P_2)cdots(Hcap P_r) $$
          and this product is direct since the factors have trivial intersection.



          Thus
          $$ G/Hcong P_1/(Hcap P_1)times P_2/(Hcap P_2)cdots $$
          and these groups have the desired form by the first part of this answer.






          share|cite|improve this answer


















          • 2




            Sadly, it's not true that one of the component of $h_1$ need to have order $q$. This only happens in the case when $q = p^k$. A basic counterexample is in $mathbbZ^2_6$ the group $H = langle (2,3) rangle$. In particular there is no element in $H$ that satisfy your property (but still $H cong mathbbZ_q^1$)
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 16:59










          • Never the less i would please ask you to leave your answer here - just to point out how tricky this problem might be
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 17:02










          • Ah, sorry, I was thinking of $q$ as a prime power; I let the notation get the best of me!
            – Steve D
            Aug 17 at 18:06










          • should i edit it? cause in this special case your proof is correct
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 18:07










          • No I think it is OK to leave it. I actually think my approach can be salvaged. I just don't know how yet :)
            – Steve D
            Aug 17 at 19:44












          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          Let $e_i$ be the component vectors of $G=mathbbZ_q^n$, which have $1$ in the $i$th place, and zero elsewhere. Consider the generators of $H$; let's write one as
          $$ h_1 = (a_1, ldots, a_n) $$



          This element has order $q$, so one of the components has order $q$: say $a_i$. Then
          $$ h_1bigcup e_jmid jneq i$$
          is a generating set for $G$ of $n$ order-$q$ elements; there is thus an automorphism of $G$ sending $h_1$ to $e_i$. We can thus quotient out $e_1$, and induction on $m$ then shows $G/Hcong mathbbZ_q^n-m$.



          Edit: The above only works for $q$ a prime power, but that ends up being enough. Because $G$ can be written as a direct product of its Sylow subgroups
          $$ G = P_1times P_2timescdotstimes P_r $$
          where each Sylow subgroup is the unique one in $G$. Order considerations show
          $$ H = (Hcap P_1)(Hcap P_2)cdots(Hcap P_r) $$
          and this product is direct since the factors have trivial intersection.



          Thus
          $$ G/Hcong P_1/(Hcap P_1)times P_2/(Hcap P_2)cdots $$
          and these groups have the desired form by the first part of this answer.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Let $e_i$ be the component vectors of $G=mathbbZ_q^n$, which have $1$ in the $i$th place, and zero elsewhere. Consider the generators of $H$; let's write one as
          $$ h_1 = (a_1, ldots, a_n) $$



          This element has order $q$, so one of the components has order $q$: say $a_i$. Then
          $$ h_1bigcup e_jmid jneq i$$
          is a generating set for $G$ of $n$ order-$q$ elements; there is thus an automorphism of $G$ sending $h_1$ to $e_i$. We can thus quotient out $e_1$, and induction on $m$ then shows $G/Hcong mathbbZ_q^n-m$.



          Edit: The above only works for $q$ a prime power, but that ends up being enough. Because $G$ can be written as a direct product of its Sylow subgroups
          $$ G = P_1times P_2timescdotstimes P_r $$
          where each Sylow subgroup is the unique one in $G$. Order considerations show
          $$ H = (Hcap P_1)(Hcap P_2)cdots(Hcap P_r) $$
          and this product is direct since the factors have trivial intersection.



          Thus
          $$ G/Hcong P_1/(Hcap P_1)times P_2/(Hcap P_2)cdots $$
          and these groups have the desired form by the first part of this answer.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 17 at 22:06

























          answered Aug 17 at 14:42









          Steve D

          2,417620




          2,417620







          • 2




            Sadly, it's not true that one of the component of $h_1$ need to have order $q$. This only happens in the case when $q = p^k$. A basic counterexample is in $mathbbZ^2_6$ the group $H = langle (2,3) rangle$. In particular there is no element in $H$ that satisfy your property (but still $H cong mathbbZ_q^1$)
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 16:59










          • Never the less i would please ask you to leave your answer here - just to point out how tricky this problem might be
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 17:02










          • Ah, sorry, I was thinking of $q$ as a prime power; I let the notation get the best of me!
            – Steve D
            Aug 17 at 18:06










          • should i edit it? cause in this special case your proof is correct
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 18:07










          • No I think it is OK to leave it. I actually think my approach can be salvaged. I just don't know how yet :)
            – Steve D
            Aug 17 at 19:44












          • 2




            Sadly, it's not true that one of the component of $h_1$ need to have order $q$. This only happens in the case when $q = p^k$. A basic counterexample is in $mathbbZ^2_6$ the group $H = langle (2,3) rangle$. In particular there is no element in $H$ that satisfy your property (but still $H cong mathbbZ_q^1$)
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 16:59










          • Never the less i would please ask you to leave your answer here - just to point out how tricky this problem might be
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 17:02










          • Ah, sorry, I was thinking of $q$ as a prime power; I let the notation get the best of me!
            – Steve D
            Aug 17 at 18:06










          • should i edit it? cause in this special case your proof is correct
            – JayTuma
            Aug 17 at 18:07










          • No I think it is OK to leave it. I actually think my approach can be salvaged. I just don't know how yet :)
            – Steve D
            Aug 17 at 19:44







          2




          2




          Sadly, it's not true that one of the component of $h_1$ need to have order $q$. This only happens in the case when $q = p^k$. A basic counterexample is in $mathbbZ^2_6$ the group $H = langle (2,3) rangle$. In particular there is no element in $H$ that satisfy your property (but still $H cong mathbbZ_q^1$)
          – JayTuma
          Aug 17 at 16:59




          Sadly, it's not true that one of the component of $h_1$ need to have order $q$. This only happens in the case when $q = p^k$. A basic counterexample is in $mathbbZ^2_6$ the group $H = langle (2,3) rangle$. In particular there is no element in $H$ that satisfy your property (but still $H cong mathbbZ_q^1$)
          – JayTuma
          Aug 17 at 16:59












          Never the less i would please ask you to leave your answer here - just to point out how tricky this problem might be
          – JayTuma
          Aug 17 at 17:02




          Never the less i would please ask you to leave your answer here - just to point out how tricky this problem might be
          – JayTuma
          Aug 17 at 17:02












          Ah, sorry, I was thinking of $q$ as a prime power; I let the notation get the best of me!
          – Steve D
          Aug 17 at 18:06




          Ah, sorry, I was thinking of $q$ as a prime power; I let the notation get the best of me!
          – Steve D
          Aug 17 at 18:06












          should i edit it? cause in this special case your proof is correct
          – JayTuma
          Aug 17 at 18:07




          should i edit it? cause in this special case your proof is correct
          – JayTuma
          Aug 17 at 18:07












          No I think it is OK to leave it. I actually think my approach can be salvaged. I just don't know how yet :)
          – Steve D
          Aug 17 at 19:44




          No I think it is OK to leave it. I actually think my approach can be salvaged. I just don't know how yet :)
          – Steve D
          Aug 17 at 19:44










          up vote
          1
          down vote













          $requireAMScd$
          Here is a slightly different viewpoint, which might clear up what's happening.



          Let $A=mathbbZ^n$ with basis $e_1,ldots,e_n$. Also let $K=qA$, which is a characteristic subgroup of $A$, since for $phiintextrmAut(A)$, $phi(qa)=qphi(a)in K$.



          So $Gcong A/K$; let $H$ be generated by $h_1,ldots,h_m$, all of order $q$. Let $b_i$ be a preimage of $h_i$ in $A$ [it can just have the same coordinates of $h_i$]. Then $B=langle b_1,ldots,b_mrangle$ maps to $H$.



          Now there exists an automorphism $phiintextrmAut(A)$ sending $e_i$ to $f_i$, such that $b_i$ gets sent to $n_if_i$ for some integers $n_i$. We thus have the commutative diagram



          beginCD
          A @>phi>> A\
          @VVV @VVV \
          G @>>widetildephi> G
          endCD



          with $widetildephiintextrmAut(G)$. Note that we must have $gcd(n_i,q)=1$ in order for $widetildephi(h_i)$ to have order $q$. Thus we have
          beginalign*
          G &=langle widetildef_1,ldots,widetildef_nrangle\
          widetildephi(H) & =langle n_1widetildef_1,ldots,n_mwidetildef_mrangle\
          &= langlewidetildef_1,ldots,widetildef_mrangle
          endalign*
          The problem is then trivial.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • That is a bit more abstract approach and resemble somehow the fact that my question is equivalent to find a automorphism of $mathbbZ_q^n$ that send $H$ to the subgroup $mathbbZ_q^m times e ^m-n$ and this job is perfectly done by your function $overlinephi$. Still i had no idea how to show the existance of such a function
            – JayTuma
            Aug 20 at 19:14















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          $requireAMScd$
          Here is a slightly different viewpoint, which might clear up what's happening.



          Let $A=mathbbZ^n$ with basis $e_1,ldots,e_n$. Also let $K=qA$, which is a characteristic subgroup of $A$, since for $phiintextrmAut(A)$, $phi(qa)=qphi(a)in K$.



          So $Gcong A/K$; let $H$ be generated by $h_1,ldots,h_m$, all of order $q$. Let $b_i$ be a preimage of $h_i$ in $A$ [it can just have the same coordinates of $h_i$]. Then $B=langle b_1,ldots,b_mrangle$ maps to $H$.



          Now there exists an automorphism $phiintextrmAut(A)$ sending $e_i$ to $f_i$, such that $b_i$ gets sent to $n_if_i$ for some integers $n_i$. We thus have the commutative diagram



          beginCD
          A @>phi>> A\
          @VVV @VVV \
          G @>>widetildephi> G
          endCD



          with $widetildephiintextrmAut(G)$. Note that we must have $gcd(n_i,q)=1$ in order for $widetildephi(h_i)$ to have order $q$. Thus we have
          beginalign*
          G &=langle widetildef_1,ldots,widetildef_nrangle\
          widetildephi(H) & =langle n_1widetildef_1,ldots,n_mwidetildef_mrangle\
          &= langlewidetildef_1,ldots,widetildef_mrangle
          endalign*
          The problem is then trivial.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • That is a bit more abstract approach and resemble somehow the fact that my question is equivalent to find a automorphism of $mathbbZ_q^n$ that send $H$ to the subgroup $mathbbZ_q^m times e ^m-n$ and this job is perfectly done by your function $overlinephi$. Still i had no idea how to show the existance of such a function
            – JayTuma
            Aug 20 at 19:14













          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          $requireAMScd$
          Here is a slightly different viewpoint, which might clear up what's happening.



          Let $A=mathbbZ^n$ with basis $e_1,ldots,e_n$. Also let $K=qA$, which is a characteristic subgroup of $A$, since for $phiintextrmAut(A)$, $phi(qa)=qphi(a)in K$.



          So $Gcong A/K$; let $H$ be generated by $h_1,ldots,h_m$, all of order $q$. Let $b_i$ be a preimage of $h_i$ in $A$ [it can just have the same coordinates of $h_i$]. Then $B=langle b_1,ldots,b_mrangle$ maps to $H$.



          Now there exists an automorphism $phiintextrmAut(A)$ sending $e_i$ to $f_i$, such that $b_i$ gets sent to $n_if_i$ for some integers $n_i$. We thus have the commutative diagram



          beginCD
          A @>phi>> A\
          @VVV @VVV \
          G @>>widetildephi> G
          endCD



          with $widetildephiintextrmAut(G)$. Note that we must have $gcd(n_i,q)=1$ in order for $widetildephi(h_i)$ to have order $q$. Thus we have
          beginalign*
          G &=langle widetildef_1,ldots,widetildef_nrangle\
          widetildephi(H) & =langle n_1widetildef_1,ldots,n_mwidetildef_mrangle\
          &= langlewidetildef_1,ldots,widetildef_mrangle
          endalign*
          The problem is then trivial.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          $requireAMScd$
          Here is a slightly different viewpoint, which might clear up what's happening.



          Let $A=mathbbZ^n$ with basis $e_1,ldots,e_n$. Also let $K=qA$, which is a characteristic subgroup of $A$, since for $phiintextrmAut(A)$, $phi(qa)=qphi(a)in K$.



          So $Gcong A/K$; let $H$ be generated by $h_1,ldots,h_m$, all of order $q$. Let $b_i$ be a preimage of $h_i$ in $A$ [it can just have the same coordinates of $h_i$]. Then $B=langle b_1,ldots,b_mrangle$ maps to $H$.



          Now there exists an automorphism $phiintextrmAut(A)$ sending $e_i$ to $f_i$, such that $b_i$ gets sent to $n_if_i$ for some integers $n_i$. We thus have the commutative diagram



          beginCD
          A @>phi>> A\
          @VVV @VVV \
          G @>>widetildephi> G
          endCD



          with $widetildephiintextrmAut(G)$. Note that we must have $gcd(n_i,q)=1$ in order for $widetildephi(h_i)$ to have order $q$. Thus we have
          beginalign*
          G &=langle widetildef_1,ldots,widetildef_nrangle\
          widetildephi(H) & =langle n_1widetildef_1,ldots,n_mwidetildef_mrangle\
          &= langlewidetildef_1,ldots,widetildef_mrangle
          endalign*
          The problem is then trivial.







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          answered Aug 20 at 18:22









          Steve D

          2,417620




          2,417620











          • That is a bit more abstract approach and resemble somehow the fact that my question is equivalent to find a automorphism of $mathbbZ_q^n$ that send $H$ to the subgroup $mathbbZ_q^m times e ^m-n$ and this job is perfectly done by your function $overlinephi$. Still i had no idea how to show the existance of such a function
            – JayTuma
            Aug 20 at 19:14

















          • That is a bit more abstract approach and resemble somehow the fact that my question is equivalent to find a automorphism of $mathbbZ_q^n$ that send $H$ to the subgroup $mathbbZ_q^m times e ^m-n$ and this job is perfectly done by your function $overlinephi$. Still i had no idea how to show the existance of such a function
            – JayTuma
            Aug 20 at 19:14
















          That is a bit more abstract approach and resemble somehow the fact that my question is equivalent to find a automorphism of $mathbbZ_q^n$ that send $H$ to the subgroup $mathbbZ_q^m times e ^m-n$ and this job is perfectly done by your function $overlinephi$. Still i had no idea how to show the existance of such a function
          – JayTuma
          Aug 20 at 19:14





          That is a bit more abstract approach and resemble somehow the fact that my question is equivalent to find a automorphism of $mathbbZ_q^n$ that send $H$ to the subgroup $mathbbZ_q^m times e ^m-n$ and this job is perfectly done by your function $overlinephi$. Still i had no idea how to show the existance of such a function
          – JayTuma
          Aug 20 at 19:14













           

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