Analytic and bounded implies uniform continuity

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Let $f$ be analytic and bounded in $zinmathbbCmid Re(z)>0$. Prove that $f$ is uniformly continuous in $zinmathbbCmid Re(z)>C=:D$ for every $C>0.$



For uniform continuity, I have to show that for every $varepsilon>0$ there exists $delta>0$ such that for all $x,yin D$ with $|x-y|<delta$ we have $|f(x)-f(y)|<varepsilon$. How can I find such a $delta$? I don't know how to use the assumptions that $f$ is analytic (i.e. can be written as a power series) and bounded.







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    up vote
    3
    down vote

    favorite
    2












    Let $f$ be analytic and bounded in $zinmathbbCmid Re(z)>0$. Prove that $f$ is uniformly continuous in $zinmathbbCmid Re(z)>C=:D$ for every $C>0.$



    For uniform continuity, I have to show that for every $varepsilon>0$ there exists $delta>0$ such that for all $x,yin D$ with $|x-y|<delta$ we have $|f(x)-f(y)|<varepsilon$. How can I find such a $delta$? I don't know how to use the assumptions that $f$ is analytic (i.e. can be written as a power series) and bounded.







    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite
      2









      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite
      2






      2





      Let $f$ be analytic and bounded in $zinmathbbCmid Re(z)>0$. Prove that $f$ is uniformly continuous in $zinmathbbCmid Re(z)>C=:D$ for every $C>0.$



      For uniform continuity, I have to show that for every $varepsilon>0$ there exists $delta>0$ such that for all $x,yin D$ with $|x-y|<delta$ we have $|f(x)-f(y)|<varepsilon$. How can I find such a $delta$? I don't know how to use the assumptions that $f$ is analytic (i.e. can be written as a power series) and bounded.







      share|cite|improve this question














      Let $f$ be analytic and bounded in $zinmathbbCmid Re(z)>0$. Prove that $f$ is uniformly continuous in $zinmathbbCmid Re(z)>C=:D$ for every $C>0.$



      For uniform continuity, I have to show that for every $varepsilon>0$ there exists $delta>0$ such that for all $x,yin D$ with $|x-y|<delta$ we have $|f(x)-f(y)|<varepsilon$. How can I find such a $delta$? I don't know how to use the assumptions that $f$ is analytic (i.e. can be written as a power series) and bounded.









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      edited Aug 16 at 23:35









      zhw.

      66.6k42871




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      asked Aug 16 at 22:59









      mathstackuser

      64911




      64911




















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          Hint: Suppose $|f|le M$ in the right half plane. Cauchy's estimates give $|f'(x+iy)|le M/x$ everywhere in the right half plane.






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          • Thanks! But how can I use the derivative to show uniform continuity?
            – mathstackuser
            Aug 17 at 11:29










          • @mathstackuser What would you do if you had a function on the real line whose derivative was $le 1$ in absolute value everywhere?
            – zhw.
            Aug 17 at 17:44











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          2
          down vote













          Hint: Suppose $|f|le M$ in the right half plane. Cauchy's estimates give $|f'(x+iy)|le M/x$ everywhere in the right half plane.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Thanks! But how can I use the derivative to show uniform continuity?
            – mathstackuser
            Aug 17 at 11:29










          • @mathstackuser What would you do if you had a function on the real line whose derivative was $le 1$ in absolute value everywhere?
            – zhw.
            Aug 17 at 17:44















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          Hint: Suppose $|f|le M$ in the right half plane. Cauchy's estimates give $|f'(x+iy)|le M/x$ everywhere in the right half plane.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Thanks! But how can I use the derivative to show uniform continuity?
            – mathstackuser
            Aug 17 at 11:29










          • @mathstackuser What would you do if you had a function on the real line whose derivative was $le 1$ in absolute value everywhere?
            – zhw.
            Aug 17 at 17:44













          up vote
          2
          down vote










          up vote
          2
          down vote









          Hint: Suppose $|f|le M$ in the right half plane. Cauchy's estimates give $|f'(x+iy)|le M/x$ everywhere in the right half plane.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Hint: Suppose $|f|le M$ in the right half plane. Cauchy's estimates give $|f'(x+iy)|le M/x$ everywhere in the right half plane.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Aug 16 at 23:36









          zhw.

          66.6k42871




          66.6k42871











          • Thanks! But how can I use the derivative to show uniform continuity?
            – mathstackuser
            Aug 17 at 11:29










          • @mathstackuser What would you do if you had a function on the real line whose derivative was $le 1$ in absolute value everywhere?
            – zhw.
            Aug 17 at 17:44

















          • Thanks! But how can I use the derivative to show uniform continuity?
            – mathstackuser
            Aug 17 at 11:29










          • @mathstackuser What would you do if you had a function on the real line whose derivative was $le 1$ in absolute value everywhere?
            – zhw.
            Aug 17 at 17:44
















          Thanks! But how can I use the derivative to show uniform continuity?
          – mathstackuser
          Aug 17 at 11:29




          Thanks! But how can I use the derivative to show uniform continuity?
          – mathstackuser
          Aug 17 at 11:29












          @mathstackuser What would you do if you had a function on the real line whose derivative was $le 1$ in absolute value everywhere?
          – zhw.
          Aug 17 at 17:44





          @mathstackuser What would you do if you had a function on the real line whose derivative was $le 1$ in absolute value everywhere?
          – zhw.
          Aug 17 at 17:44













           

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