A binary operation, closed over the reals, that is associative, but not commutative

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I am aware that matrix multiplication as well as function composition is associative, but not commutative, but are there any other binary operations, specifically that are closed over the reals, that holds this property? And can you give a specific example?







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  • Matrix multiplication is function composition (of linear functions), so you really only have one example.
    – rschwieb
    Jun 19 '16 at 18:44














up vote
10
down vote

favorite
2












I am aware that matrix multiplication as well as function composition is associative, but not commutative, but are there any other binary operations, specifically that are closed over the reals, that holds this property? And can you give a specific example?







share|cite|improve this question






















  • Matrix multiplication is function composition (of linear functions), so you really only have one example.
    – rschwieb
    Jun 19 '16 at 18:44












up vote
10
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
10
down vote

favorite
2






2





I am aware that matrix multiplication as well as function composition is associative, but not commutative, but are there any other binary operations, specifically that are closed over the reals, that holds this property? And can you give a specific example?







share|cite|improve this question














I am aware that matrix multiplication as well as function composition is associative, but not commutative, but are there any other binary operations, specifically that are closed over the reals, that holds this property? And can you give a specific example?









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jun 19 '16 at 16:07

























asked Jun 19 '16 at 15:51









Paul

797317




797317











  • Matrix multiplication is function composition (of linear functions), so you really only have one example.
    – rschwieb
    Jun 19 '16 at 18:44
















  • Matrix multiplication is function composition (of linear functions), so you really only have one example.
    – rschwieb
    Jun 19 '16 at 18:44















Matrix multiplication is function composition (of linear functions), so you really only have one example.
– rschwieb
Jun 19 '16 at 18:44




Matrix multiplication is function composition (of linear functions), so you really only have one example.
– rschwieb
Jun 19 '16 at 18:44










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
46
down vote



accepted










We can define $x oplus y=y$. Then $(x oplus y) oplus z =z= x oplus (y oplus z)$ but $y=x oplus y neq y oplus x=x$






share|cite|improve this answer
















  • 3




    A rare example of the good one-line answer. I was going for the left-handed version, but then, I'm left-handed.
    – hardmath
    Jun 20 '16 at 13:31






  • 1




    @hardmath: I am left handed, too. I started with $max$, but the symmetry made it commutative. Maybe because large numbers are on the right I was prompted by the right hand version.
    – Ross Millikan
    Jun 20 '16 at 15:49

















up vote
12
down vote













If you already know that matrix multiplication is associative, but not commutative, then you can just choose your favorite bijection $f:mathbb Rrightarrow M_2(mathbb R)$, since the two sets are equinumerous. Then, define $aoplus b = f^-1(f(a)f(b))$ to get an operation on $mathbb R$ which is associative, but not commutative. If you want to have inverses as well, then you can replace $f$ with your favorite map from $mathbb R$ to the invertible $2times 2$ matrices.



In general, without more structure, you are equivalently asking, "Is there any associative, but not commutative operation defined on a domain of cardinality $|mathbb R|$?" since the role of $mathbb R$ in the question is nothing more than a set.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • FTR, that operation would not only be noncommutative, but also extremely discontinuous and strongly dependent on the choice of bijection. This makes it no less of a valid example, but it's certainly a bit on the pathological side.
    – leftaroundabout
    Jun 19 '16 at 21:39







  • 4




    If a question has a valid pathological answer, and if you find that disturbing, then the question was wrong.
    – Ryan Reich
    Jun 19 '16 at 22:23






  • 1




    To partially answer my own question: according to @PseudoNeo, any $C_1$ topological group operation on $Bbb R$ is of the form $phi^-1(phi(x)+phi(y))$ for a $C_1$ diffeomorphism $phi$, and hence is abelian.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 8:15






  • 1




    @NajibIdrissi I was hoping some "overachiever" would answer the extended question here, since it subsumes the OP's assuming the answer is yes, but barring that I agree it is worth separate focus. Asked.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 15:25






  • 1




    @Paul No, it is possible to have a nonabelian group operation on $Bbb R$ - the easiest way is to map a known nonabelian group with the same cardinality as the reals across a bijection (which is exactly Milo's example). It becomes impossible if you also require that the group operation be continuous (i.e. "simple / non-pathological"), that is, a topological group. The question I asked reveals that $(Bbb R,+)$ is the only topological group structure on $Bbb R$ up to homeomorphism.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 18:34


















up vote
1
down vote













Yes, there are many other bilinear products on a given vector space which are associative but not commutative. For example, real associative algebras (not necessarily commutative), see also this MO-question.



Furthermore the quaternion algebra is a real division algebra which is associative but not commutative.



Edit: You added that the algebra must be part of the real numbers. Then also your example with the matrix algebra does no longer work.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • I edited my question. I don't think I stated it correctly.
    – Paul
    Jun 19 '16 at 16:05











  • Are quaternions part of the Real numbers? Or am I completely missing what you're trying to say? I only just started learning abstract algebra.
    – Paul
    Jun 19 '16 at 16:18










  • Isn't that what "closed under the reals" mean?
    – Paul
    Jun 19 '16 at 16:21






  • 1




    @DietrichBurde "closed under the reals" means that the operation has the form $circ:Bbb RtimesBbb RtoBbb R$, that is, it is a binary operation on the real numbers. The quaternions are not real numbers, unless you mean to map them to reals by some bijection as in Milo Brandt's answer.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 7:57






  • 1




    @DietrichBurde According to the edit history it used to say "binary operation over the reals" which if anything is more clear. It is true that OP's examples do not match his own criteria, but I assume that's why he's asking the question.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 8:18

















up vote
1
down vote













Batominovski has another answer in the comments to this question. I will type up the checking:



Our candidate is $xcirc y=|x|y$. Then:



  1. Associative? We have $(xcirc y)circ z=(|x|y)circ z=||x|y|z=|xy|z.$ On the other hand, $xcirc(ycirc z)=xcirc(|y|z)=|x||y|z=|xy|z.$

  2. Non-commutative? $xcirc y=|x|ynot=|y|x=ycirc x$.

So this solution of Batominovski's fits the bill.






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    4 Answers
    4






    active

    oldest

    votes








    4 Answers
    4






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    46
    down vote



    accepted










    We can define $x oplus y=y$. Then $(x oplus y) oplus z =z= x oplus (y oplus z)$ but $y=x oplus y neq y oplus x=x$






    share|cite|improve this answer
















    • 3




      A rare example of the good one-line answer. I was going for the left-handed version, but then, I'm left-handed.
      – hardmath
      Jun 20 '16 at 13:31






    • 1




      @hardmath: I am left handed, too. I started with $max$, but the symmetry made it commutative. Maybe because large numbers are on the right I was prompted by the right hand version.
      – Ross Millikan
      Jun 20 '16 at 15:49














    up vote
    46
    down vote



    accepted










    We can define $x oplus y=y$. Then $(x oplus y) oplus z =z= x oplus (y oplus z)$ but $y=x oplus y neq y oplus x=x$






    share|cite|improve this answer
















    • 3




      A rare example of the good one-line answer. I was going for the left-handed version, but then, I'm left-handed.
      – hardmath
      Jun 20 '16 at 13:31






    • 1




      @hardmath: I am left handed, too. I started with $max$, but the symmetry made it commutative. Maybe because large numbers are on the right I was prompted by the right hand version.
      – Ross Millikan
      Jun 20 '16 at 15:49












    up vote
    46
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    46
    down vote



    accepted






    We can define $x oplus y=y$. Then $(x oplus y) oplus z =z= x oplus (y oplus z)$ but $y=x oplus y neq y oplus x=x$






    share|cite|improve this answer












    We can define $x oplus y=y$. Then $(x oplus y) oplus z =z= x oplus (y oplus z)$ but $y=x oplus y neq y oplus x=x$







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jun 19 '16 at 16:12









    Ross Millikan

    279k22188355




    279k22188355







    • 3




      A rare example of the good one-line answer. I was going for the left-handed version, but then, I'm left-handed.
      – hardmath
      Jun 20 '16 at 13:31






    • 1




      @hardmath: I am left handed, too. I started with $max$, but the symmetry made it commutative. Maybe because large numbers are on the right I was prompted by the right hand version.
      – Ross Millikan
      Jun 20 '16 at 15:49












    • 3




      A rare example of the good one-line answer. I was going for the left-handed version, but then, I'm left-handed.
      – hardmath
      Jun 20 '16 at 13:31






    • 1




      @hardmath: I am left handed, too. I started with $max$, but the symmetry made it commutative. Maybe because large numbers are on the right I was prompted by the right hand version.
      – Ross Millikan
      Jun 20 '16 at 15:49







    3




    3




    A rare example of the good one-line answer. I was going for the left-handed version, but then, I'm left-handed.
    – hardmath
    Jun 20 '16 at 13:31




    A rare example of the good one-line answer. I was going for the left-handed version, but then, I'm left-handed.
    – hardmath
    Jun 20 '16 at 13:31




    1




    1




    @hardmath: I am left handed, too. I started with $max$, but the symmetry made it commutative. Maybe because large numbers are on the right I was prompted by the right hand version.
    – Ross Millikan
    Jun 20 '16 at 15:49




    @hardmath: I am left handed, too. I started with $max$, but the symmetry made it commutative. Maybe because large numbers are on the right I was prompted by the right hand version.
    – Ross Millikan
    Jun 20 '16 at 15:49










    up vote
    12
    down vote













    If you already know that matrix multiplication is associative, but not commutative, then you can just choose your favorite bijection $f:mathbb Rrightarrow M_2(mathbb R)$, since the two sets are equinumerous. Then, define $aoplus b = f^-1(f(a)f(b))$ to get an operation on $mathbb R$ which is associative, but not commutative. If you want to have inverses as well, then you can replace $f$ with your favorite map from $mathbb R$ to the invertible $2times 2$ matrices.



    In general, without more structure, you are equivalently asking, "Is there any associative, but not commutative operation defined on a domain of cardinality $|mathbb R|$?" since the role of $mathbb R$ in the question is nothing more than a set.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • FTR, that operation would not only be noncommutative, but also extremely discontinuous and strongly dependent on the choice of bijection. This makes it no less of a valid example, but it's certainly a bit on the pathological side.
      – leftaroundabout
      Jun 19 '16 at 21:39







    • 4




      If a question has a valid pathological answer, and if you find that disturbing, then the question was wrong.
      – Ryan Reich
      Jun 19 '16 at 22:23






    • 1




      To partially answer my own question: according to @PseudoNeo, any $C_1$ topological group operation on $Bbb R$ is of the form $phi^-1(phi(x)+phi(y))$ for a $C_1$ diffeomorphism $phi$, and hence is abelian.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 8:15






    • 1




      @NajibIdrissi I was hoping some "overachiever" would answer the extended question here, since it subsumes the OP's assuming the answer is yes, but barring that I agree it is worth separate focus. Asked.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 15:25






    • 1




      @Paul No, it is possible to have a nonabelian group operation on $Bbb R$ - the easiest way is to map a known nonabelian group with the same cardinality as the reals across a bijection (which is exactly Milo's example). It becomes impossible if you also require that the group operation be continuous (i.e. "simple / non-pathological"), that is, a topological group. The question I asked reveals that $(Bbb R,+)$ is the only topological group structure on $Bbb R$ up to homeomorphism.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 18:34















    up vote
    12
    down vote













    If you already know that matrix multiplication is associative, but not commutative, then you can just choose your favorite bijection $f:mathbb Rrightarrow M_2(mathbb R)$, since the two sets are equinumerous. Then, define $aoplus b = f^-1(f(a)f(b))$ to get an operation on $mathbb R$ which is associative, but not commutative. If you want to have inverses as well, then you can replace $f$ with your favorite map from $mathbb R$ to the invertible $2times 2$ matrices.



    In general, without more structure, you are equivalently asking, "Is there any associative, but not commutative operation defined on a domain of cardinality $|mathbb R|$?" since the role of $mathbb R$ in the question is nothing more than a set.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • FTR, that operation would not only be noncommutative, but also extremely discontinuous and strongly dependent on the choice of bijection. This makes it no less of a valid example, but it's certainly a bit on the pathological side.
      – leftaroundabout
      Jun 19 '16 at 21:39







    • 4




      If a question has a valid pathological answer, and if you find that disturbing, then the question was wrong.
      – Ryan Reich
      Jun 19 '16 at 22:23






    • 1




      To partially answer my own question: according to @PseudoNeo, any $C_1$ topological group operation on $Bbb R$ is of the form $phi^-1(phi(x)+phi(y))$ for a $C_1$ diffeomorphism $phi$, and hence is abelian.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 8:15






    • 1




      @NajibIdrissi I was hoping some "overachiever" would answer the extended question here, since it subsumes the OP's assuming the answer is yes, but barring that I agree it is worth separate focus. Asked.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 15:25






    • 1




      @Paul No, it is possible to have a nonabelian group operation on $Bbb R$ - the easiest way is to map a known nonabelian group with the same cardinality as the reals across a bijection (which is exactly Milo's example). It becomes impossible if you also require that the group operation be continuous (i.e. "simple / non-pathological"), that is, a topological group. The question I asked reveals that $(Bbb R,+)$ is the only topological group structure on $Bbb R$ up to homeomorphism.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 18:34













    up vote
    12
    down vote










    up vote
    12
    down vote









    If you already know that matrix multiplication is associative, but not commutative, then you can just choose your favorite bijection $f:mathbb Rrightarrow M_2(mathbb R)$, since the two sets are equinumerous. Then, define $aoplus b = f^-1(f(a)f(b))$ to get an operation on $mathbb R$ which is associative, but not commutative. If you want to have inverses as well, then you can replace $f$ with your favorite map from $mathbb R$ to the invertible $2times 2$ matrices.



    In general, without more structure, you are equivalently asking, "Is there any associative, but not commutative operation defined on a domain of cardinality $|mathbb R|$?" since the role of $mathbb R$ in the question is nothing more than a set.






    share|cite|improve this answer












    If you already know that matrix multiplication is associative, but not commutative, then you can just choose your favorite bijection $f:mathbb Rrightarrow M_2(mathbb R)$, since the two sets are equinumerous. Then, define $aoplus b = f^-1(f(a)f(b))$ to get an operation on $mathbb R$ which is associative, but not commutative. If you want to have inverses as well, then you can replace $f$ with your favorite map from $mathbb R$ to the invertible $2times 2$ matrices.



    In general, without more structure, you are equivalently asking, "Is there any associative, but not commutative operation defined on a domain of cardinality $|mathbb R|$?" since the role of $mathbb R$ in the question is nothing more than a set.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jun 19 '16 at 16:33









    Milo Brandt

    38.6k474134




    38.6k474134











    • FTR, that operation would not only be noncommutative, but also extremely discontinuous and strongly dependent on the choice of bijection. This makes it no less of a valid example, but it's certainly a bit on the pathological side.
      – leftaroundabout
      Jun 19 '16 at 21:39







    • 4




      If a question has a valid pathological answer, and if you find that disturbing, then the question was wrong.
      – Ryan Reich
      Jun 19 '16 at 22:23






    • 1




      To partially answer my own question: according to @PseudoNeo, any $C_1$ topological group operation on $Bbb R$ is of the form $phi^-1(phi(x)+phi(y))$ for a $C_1$ diffeomorphism $phi$, and hence is abelian.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 8:15






    • 1




      @NajibIdrissi I was hoping some "overachiever" would answer the extended question here, since it subsumes the OP's assuming the answer is yes, but barring that I agree it is worth separate focus. Asked.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 15:25






    • 1




      @Paul No, it is possible to have a nonabelian group operation on $Bbb R$ - the easiest way is to map a known nonabelian group with the same cardinality as the reals across a bijection (which is exactly Milo's example). It becomes impossible if you also require that the group operation be continuous (i.e. "simple / non-pathological"), that is, a topological group. The question I asked reveals that $(Bbb R,+)$ is the only topological group structure on $Bbb R$ up to homeomorphism.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 18:34

















    • FTR, that operation would not only be noncommutative, but also extremely discontinuous and strongly dependent on the choice of bijection. This makes it no less of a valid example, but it's certainly a bit on the pathological side.
      – leftaroundabout
      Jun 19 '16 at 21:39







    • 4




      If a question has a valid pathological answer, and if you find that disturbing, then the question was wrong.
      – Ryan Reich
      Jun 19 '16 at 22:23






    • 1




      To partially answer my own question: according to @PseudoNeo, any $C_1$ topological group operation on $Bbb R$ is of the form $phi^-1(phi(x)+phi(y))$ for a $C_1$ diffeomorphism $phi$, and hence is abelian.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 8:15






    • 1




      @NajibIdrissi I was hoping some "overachiever" would answer the extended question here, since it subsumes the OP's assuming the answer is yes, but barring that I agree it is worth separate focus. Asked.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 15:25






    • 1




      @Paul No, it is possible to have a nonabelian group operation on $Bbb R$ - the easiest way is to map a known nonabelian group with the same cardinality as the reals across a bijection (which is exactly Milo's example). It becomes impossible if you also require that the group operation be continuous (i.e. "simple / non-pathological"), that is, a topological group. The question I asked reveals that $(Bbb R,+)$ is the only topological group structure on $Bbb R$ up to homeomorphism.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 18:34
















    FTR, that operation would not only be noncommutative, but also extremely discontinuous and strongly dependent on the choice of bijection. This makes it no less of a valid example, but it's certainly a bit on the pathological side.
    – leftaroundabout
    Jun 19 '16 at 21:39





    FTR, that operation would not only be noncommutative, but also extremely discontinuous and strongly dependent on the choice of bijection. This makes it no less of a valid example, but it's certainly a bit on the pathological side.
    – leftaroundabout
    Jun 19 '16 at 21:39





    4




    4




    If a question has a valid pathological answer, and if you find that disturbing, then the question was wrong.
    – Ryan Reich
    Jun 19 '16 at 22:23




    If a question has a valid pathological answer, and if you find that disturbing, then the question was wrong.
    – Ryan Reich
    Jun 19 '16 at 22:23




    1




    1




    To partially answer my own question: according to @PseudoNeo, any $C_1$ topological group operation on $Bbb R$ is of the form $phi^-1(phi(x)+phi(y))$ for a $C_1$ diffeomorphism $phi$, and hence is abelian.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 8:15




    To partially answer my own question: according to @PseudoNeo, any $C_1$ topological group operation on $Bbb R$ is of the form $phi^-1(phi(x)+phi(y))$ for a $C_1$ diffeomorphism $phi$, and hence is abelian.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 8:15




    1




    1




    @NajibIdrissi I was hoping some "overachiever" would answer the extended question here, since it subsumes the OP's assuming the answer is yes, but barring that I agree it is worth separate focus. Asked.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 15:25




    @NajibIdrissi I was hoping some "overachiever" would answer the extended question here, since it subsumes the OP's assuming the answer is yes, but barring that I agree it is worth separate focus. Asked.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 15:25




    1




    1




    @Paul No, it is possible to have a nonabelian group operation on $Bbb R$ - the easiest way is to map a known nonabelian group with the same cardinality as the reals across a bijection (which is exactly Milo's example). It becomes impossible if you also require that the group operation be continuous (i.e. "simple / non-pathological"), that is, a topological group. The question I asked reveals that $(Bbb R,+)$ is the only topological group structure on $Bbb R$ up to homeomorphism.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 18:34





    @Paul No, it is possible to have a nonabelian group operation on $Bbb R$ - the easiest way is to map a known nonabelian group with the same cardinality as the reals across a bijection (which is exactly Milo's example). It becomes impossible if you also require that the group operation be continuous (i.e. "simple / non-pathological"), that is, a topological group. The question I asked reveals that $(Bbb R,+)$ is the only topological group structure on $Bbb R$ up to homeomorphism.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 18:34











    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Yes, there are many other bilinear products on a given vector space which are associative but not commutative. For example, real associative algebras (not necessarily commutative), see also this MO-question.



    Furthermore the quaternion algebra is a real division algebra which is associative but not commutative.



    Edit: You added that the algebra must be part of the real numbers. Then also your example with the matrix algebra does no longer work.






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • I edited my question. I don't think I stated it correctly.
      – Paul
      Jun 19 '16 at 16:05











    • Are quaternions part of the Real numbers? Or am I completely missing what you're trying to say? I only just started learning abstract algebra.
      – Paul
      Jun 19 '16 at 16:18










    • Isn't that what "closed under the reals" mean?
      – Paul
      Jun 19 '16 at 16:21






    • 1




      @DietrichBurde "closed under the reals" means that the operation has the form $circ:Bbb RtimesBbb RtoBbb R$, that is, it is a binary operation on the real numbers. The quaternions are not real numbers, unless you mean to map them to reals by some bijection as in Milo Brandt's answer.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 7:57






    • 1




      @DietrichBurde According to the edit history it used to say "binary operation over the reals" which if anything is more clear. It is true that OP's examples do not match his own criteria, but I assume that's why he's asking the question.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 8:18














    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Yes, there are many other bilinear products on a given vector space which are associative but not commutative. For example, real associative algebras (not necessarily commutative), see also this MO-question.



    Furthermore the quaternion algebra is a real division algebra which is associative but not commutative.



    Edit: You added that the algebra must be part of the real numbers. Then also your example with the matrix algebra does no longer work.






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • I edited my question. I don't think I stated it correctly.
      – Paul
      Jun 19 '16 at 16:05











    • Are quaternions part of the Real numbers? Or am I completely missing what you're trying to say? I only just started learning abstract algebra.
      – Paul
      Jun 19 '16 at 16:18










    • Isn't that what "closed under the reals" mean?
      – Paul
      Jun 19 '16 at 16:21






    • 1




      @DietrichBurde "closed under the reals" means that the operation has the form $circ:Bbb RtimesBbb RtoBbb R$, that is, it is a binary operation on the real numbers. The quaternions are not real numbers, unless you mean to map them to reals by some bijection as in Milo Brandt's answer.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 7:57






    • 1




      @DietrichBurde According to the edit history it used to say "binary operation over the reals" which if anything is more clear. It is true that OP's examples do not match his own criteria, but I assume that's why he's asking the question.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 8:18












    up vote
    1
    down vote










    up vote
    1
    down vote









    Yes, there are many other bilinear products on a given vector space which are associative but not commutative. For example, real associative algebras (not necessarily commutative), see also this MO-question.



    Furthermore the quaternion algebra is a real division algebra which is associative but not commutative.



    Edit: You added that the algebra must be part of the real numbers. Then also your example with the matrix algebra does no longer work.






    share|cite|improve this answer














    Yes, there are many other bilinear products on a given vector space which are associative but not commutative. For example, real associative algebras (not necessarily commutative), see also this MO-question.



    Furthermore the quaternion algebra is a real division algebra which is associative but not commutative.



    Edit: You added that the algebra must be part of the real numbers. Then also your example with the matrix algebra does no longer work.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:58









    Community♦

    1




    1










    answered Jun 19 '16 at 15:57









    Dietrich Burde

    75k64185




    75k64185











    • I edited my question. I don't think I stated it correctly.
      – Paul
      Jun 19 '16 at 16:05











    • Are quaternions part of the Real numbers? Or am I completely missing what you're trying to say? I only just started learning abstract algebra.
      – Paul
      Jun 19 '16 at 16:18










    • Isn't that what "closed under the reals" mean?
      – Paul
      Jun 19 '16 at 16:21






    • 1




      @DietrichBurde "closed under the reals" means that the operation has the form $circ:Bbb RtimesBbb RtoBbb R$, that is, it is a binary operation on the real numbers. The quaternions are not real numbers, unless you mean to map them to reals by some bijection as in Milo Brandt's answer.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 7:57






    • 1




      @DietrichBurde According to the edit history it used to say "binary operation over the reals" which if anything is more clear. It is true that OP's examples do not match his own criteria, but I assume that's why he's asking the question.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 8:18
















    • I edited my question. I don't think I stated it correctly.
      – Paul
      Jun 19 '16 at 16:05











    • Are quaternions part of the Real numbers? Or am I completely missing what you're trying to say? I only just started learning abstract algebra.
      – Paul
      Jun 19 '16 at 16:18










    • Isn't that what "closed under the reals" mean?
      – Paul
      Jun 19 '16 at 16:21






    • 1




      @DietrichBurde "closed under the reals" means that the operation has the form $circ:Bbb RtimesBbb RtoBbb R$, that is, it is a binary operation on the real numbers. The quaternions are not real numbers, unless you mean to map them to reals by some bijection as in Milo Brandt's answer.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 7:57






    • 1




      @DietrichBurde According to the edit history it used to say "binary operation over the reals" which if anything is more clear. It is true that OP's examples do not match his own criteria, but I assume that's why he's asking the question.
      – Mario Carneiro
      Jun 20 '16 at 8:18















    I edited my question. I don't think I stated it correctly.
    – Paul
    Jun 19 '16 at 16:05





    I edited my question. I don't think I stated it correctly.
    – Paul
    Jun 19 '16 at 16:05













    Are quaternions part of the Real numbers? Or am I completely missing what you're trying to say? I only just started learning abstract algebra.
    – Paul
    Jun 19 '16 at 16:18




    Are quaternions part of the Real numbers? Or am I completely missing what you're trying to say? I only just started learning abstract algebra.
    – Paul
    Jun 19 '16 at 16:18












    Isn't that what "closed under the reals" mean?
    – Paul
    Jun 19 '16 at 16:21




    Isn't that what "closed under the reals" mean?
    – Paul
    Jun 19 '16 at 16:21




    1




    1




    @DietrichBurde "closed under the reals" means that the operation has the form $circ:Bbb RtimesBbb RtoBbb R$, that is, it is a binary operation on the real numbers. The quaternions are not real numbers, unless you mean to map them to reals by some bijection as in Milo Brandt's answer.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 7:57




    @DietrichBurde "closed under the reals" means that the operation has the form $circ:Bbb RtimesBbb RtoBbb R$, that is, it is a binary operation on the real numbers. The quaternions are not real numbers, unless you mean to map them to reals by some bijection as in Milo Brandt's answer.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 7:57




    1




    1




    @DietrichBurde According to the edit history it used to say "binary operation over the reals" which if anything is more clear. It is true that OP's examples do not match his own criteria, but I assume that's why he's asking the question.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 8:18




    @DietrichBurde According to the edit history it used to say "binary operation over the reals" which if anything is more clear. It is true that OP's examples do not match his own criteria, but I assume that's why he's asking the question.
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jun 20 '16 at 8:18










    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Batominovski has another answer in the comments to this question. I will type up the checking:



    Our candidate is $xcirc y=|x|y$. Then:



    1. Associative? We have $(xcirc y)circ z=(|x|y)circ z=||x|y|z=|xy|z.$ On the other hand, $xcirc(ycirc z)=xcirc(|y|z)=|x||y|z=|xy|z.$

    2. Non-commutative? $xcirc y=|x|ynot=|y|x=ycirc x$.

    So this solution of Batominovski's fits the bill.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Batominovski has another answer in the comments to this question. I will type up the checking:



      Our candidate is $xcirc y=|x|y$. Then:



      1. Associative? We have $(xcirc y)circ z=(|x|y)circ z=||x|y|z=|xy|z.$ On the other hand, $xcirc(ycirc z)=xcirc(|y|z)=|x||y|z=|xy|z.$

      2. Non-commutative? $xcirc y=|x|ynot=|y|x=ycirc x$.

      So this solution of Batominovski's fits the bill.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        Batominovski has another answer in the comments to this question. I will type up the checking:



        Our candidate is $xcirc y=|x|y$. Then:



        1. Associative? We have $(xcirc y)circ z=(|x|y)circ z=||x|y|z=|xy|z.$ On the other hand, $xcirc(ycirc z)=xcirc(|y|z)=|x||y|z=|xy|z.$

        2. Non-commutative? $xcirc y=|x|ynot=|y|x=ycirc x$.

        So this solution of Batominovski's fits the bill.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Batominovski has another answer in the comments to this question. I will type up the checking:



        Our candidate is $xcirc y=|x|y$. Then:



        1. Associative? We have $(xcirc y)circ z=(|x|y)circ z=||x|y|z=|xy|z.$ On the other hand, $xcirc(ycirc z)=xcirc(|y|z)=|x||y|z=|xy|z.$

        2. Non-commutative? $xcirc y=|x|ynot=|y|x=ycirc x$.

        So this solution of Batominovski's fits the bill.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Aug 25 at 0:46









        Adrian Keister

        4,04541633




        4,04541633



























             

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