Proof of the Hockey-Stick Identity: $sumlimits_t=0^n binom tk = binomn+1k+1$

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











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37
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After reading this question, the most popular answer use the identity
$$sum_t=0^n binomtk = binomn+1k+1.$$



What's the name of this identity? Is it the identity of the Pascal's triangle modified.



How can we prove it? I tried by induction, but without success. Can we also prove it algebraically?



Thanks for your help.




EDIT 01 : This identity is known as the hockey-stick identity because, on Pascal's triangle, when the addends represented in the summation and the sum itself are highlighted, a hockey-stick shape is revealed.



Hockey-stick










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  • 6




    It is sometimes called the "hockey stick".
    – user940
    Oct 21 '15 at 15:24










  • There is another cute graphical illustration on the plane of $binomnk$
    – Eli Korvigo
    Oct 21 '15 at 16:54







  • 4




    It's pretty straightforward from the picture. Just switch the $1$ at the top of the stick with the $1$ directly below, then repeatedly replace adjacent numbers with the number in the cell below. This can be translated into a formal proof with words and symbols, but an animation or series of pictures is much more effective.
    – user2357112
    Oct 22 '15 at 3:24










  • See also this question. Some post which are linked there might be of interest, too.
    – Martin Sleziak
    Jan 18 '16 at 15:05














up vote
37
down vote

favorite
31












After reading this question, the most popular answer use the identity
$$sum_t=0^n binomtk = binomn+1k+1.$$



What's the name of this identity? Is it the identity of the Pascal's triangle modified.



How can we prove it? I tried by induction, but without success. Can we also prove it algebraically?



Thanks for your help.




EDIT 01 : This identity is known as the hockey-stick identity because, on Pascal's triangle, when the addends represented in the summation and the sum itself are highlighted, a hockey-stick shape is revealed.



Hockey-stick










share|cite|improve this question



















  • 6




    It is sometimes called the "hockey stick".
    – user940
    Oct 21 '15 at 15:24










  • There is another cute graphical illustration on the plane of $binomnk$
    – Eli Korvigo
    Oct 21 '15 at 16:54







  • 4




    It's pretty straightforward from the picture. Just switch the $1$ at the top of the stick with the $1$ directly below, then repeatedly replace adjacent numbers with the number in the cell below. This can be translated into a formal proof with words and symbols, but an animation or series of pictures is much more effective.
    – user2357112
    Oct 22 '15 at 3:24










  • See also this question. Some post which are linked there might be of interest, too.
    – Martin Sleziak
    Jan 18 '16 at 15:05












up vote
37
down vote

favorite
31









up vote
37
down vote

favorite
31






31





After reading this question, the most popular answer use the identity
$$sum_t=0^n binomtk = binomn+1k+1.$$



What's the name of this identity? Is it the identity of the Pascal's triangle modified.



How can we prove it? I tried by induction, but without success. Can we also prove it algebraically?



Thanks for your help.




EDIT 01 : This identity is known as the hockey-stick identity because, on Pascal's triangle, when the addends represented in the summation and the sum itself are highlighted, a hockey-stick shape is revealed.



Hockey-stick










share|cite|improve this question















After reading this question, the most popular answer use the identity
$$sum_t=0^n binomtk = binomn+1k+1.$$



What's the name of this identity? Is it the identity of the Pascal's triangle modified.



How can we prove it? I tried by induction, but without success. Can we also prove it algebraically?



Thanks for your help.




EDIT 01 : This identity is known as the hockey-stick identity because, on Pascal's triangle, when the addends represented in the summation and the sum itself are highlighted, a hockey-stick shape is revealed.



Hockey-stick







discrete-mathematics summation binomial-coefficients combinations






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edited Dec 28 '16 at 5:43









Michael Rozenberg

89.3k1583179




89.3k1583179










asked Oct 21 '15 at 14:46









hlapointe

625721




625721







  • 6




    It is sometimes called the "hockey stick".
    – user940
    Oct 21 '15 at 15:24










  • There is another cute graphical illustration on the plane of $binomnk$
    – Eli Korvigo
    Oct 21 '15 at 16:54







  • 4




    It's pretty straightforward from the picture. Just switch the $1$ at the top of the stick with the $1$ directly below, then repeatedly replace adjacent numbers with the number in the cell below. This can be translated into a formal proof with words and symbols, but an animation or series of pictures is much more effective.
    – user2357112
    Oct 22 '15 at 3:24










  • See also this question. Some post which are linked there might be of interest, too.
    – Martin Sleziak
    Jan 18 '16 at 15:05












  • 6




    It is sometimes called the "hockey stick".
    – user940
    Oct 21 '15 at 15:24










  • There is another cute graphical illustration on the plane of $binomnk$
    – Eli Korvigo
    Oct 21 '15 at 16:54







  • 4




    It's pretty straightforward from the picture. Just switch the $1$ at the top of the stick with the $1$ directly below, then repeatedly replace adjacent numbers with the number in the cell below. This can be translated into a formal proof with words and symbols, but an animation or series of pictures is much more effective.
    – user2357112
    Oct 22 '15 at 3:24










  • See also this question. Some post which are linked there might be of interest, too.
    – Martin Sleziak
    Jan 18 '16 at 15:05







6




6




It is sometimes called the "hockey stick".
– user940
Oct 21 '15 at 15:24




It is sometimes called the "hockey stick".
– user940
Oct 21 '15 at 15:24












There is another cute graphical illustration on the plane of $binomnk$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:54





There is another cute graphical illustration on the plane of $binomnk$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:54





4




4




It's pretty straightforward from the picture. Just switch the $1$ at the top of the stick with the $1$ directly below, then repeatedly replace adjacent numbers with the number in the cell below. This can be translated into a formal proof with words and symbols, but an animation or series of pictures is much more effective.
– user2357112
Oct 22 '15 at 3:24




It's pretty straightforward from the picture. Just switch the $1$ at the top of the stick with the $1$ directly below, then repeatedly replace adjacent numbers with the number in the cell below. This can be translated into a formal proof with words and symbols, but an animation or series of pictures is much more effective.
– user2357112
Oct 22 '15 at 3:24












See also this question. Some post which are linked there might be of interest, too.
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 18 '16 at 15:05




See also this question. Some post which are linked there might be of interest, too.
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 18 '16 at 15:05










13 Answers
13






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
15
down vote



accepted










This is purely algebraic. First of all, since $dbinomtk =0$ when $k>t$ we can rewrite
$$binomn+1k+1 = sum_t=0^n binomtk=sum_t=k^n binomtk$$



Recall that (by the Pascal's Triangle),
$$binomnk = binomn-1k-1 + binomn-1k$$



Hence
$$binomt+1k+1 = binomtk + binomtk+1 implies binomtk = binomt+1k+1 - binomtk+1$$



Let's get this summed by $t$:
$$sum_t=k^n binomtk = sum_t=k^n binomt+1k+1 - sum_t=k^n binomtk+1$$



Let's factor out the last member of the first sum and the first member of the second sum:
$$sum _t=k^n binomtk
=left( sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1 + binomn+1k+1 right)
-left( sum_t=k+1^n binomtk+1 + binomkk+1 right)$$



Obviously $dbinomkk+1 = 0$, hence we get
$$sum _t=k^n binomtk
=binomn+1k+1
+sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1
-sum_t=k+1^n binomtk+1$$



Let's introduce $t'=t-1$, then if $t=k+1 dots n, t'=k dots n-1$, hence
$$sum_t=k^n binomtk
= binomn+1k+1
+sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1
-sum_t'=k^n-1 binomt'+1k+1$$



The latter two arguments eliminate each other and you get the desired formulation
$$binomn+1k+1
= sum_t=k^n binomtk
= sum_t=0^n binomtk$$






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  • 1




    Beautiful proof. p.-s. you can use the LaTeX command binomnk to display $binomnk$.
    – hlapointe
    Oct 21 '15 at 16:26











  • @hlapointe thank you. Sure, I forgot there was a special command for binomial.
    – Eli Korvigo
    Oct 21 '15 at 16:32

















up vote
20
down vote













Imagine the first $n + 1$ numbers, written in order on a piece of paper. The right hand side asks in how many ways you can pick $k+1$ of them. In how many ways can you do this?



You first pick a highest number, which you circle. Call it $s$. Next, you still have to pick $k$ numbers, each less than $s$, and there are $binoms - 1k$ ways to do this.



Since $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n$, $t:= s-1$ is ranging from $0$ to $n$ as desired.






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  • Do you mean $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n+1$?
    – Rockstar5645
    Jun 2 '17 at 17:07

















up vote
14
down vote













$$beginalign
sum_t=colorblue0^n binomtk =sum_t=colorbluek^nbinom tk&= sum_t=k^nleft[ binom t+1k+1-binom tk+1right]\
&=sum_t=colororangek^colororangenbinom colororanget+1k+1-sum_t=k^nbinom tk+1\
&=sum_t=colororangek+1^colororangen+1binom colororangetk+1-sum_t=k^nbinom tk+1\
&=binomn+1k+1-underbracebinom kk+1_0&&textby telescoping\
&=binomn+1k+1quadblacksquare\
endalign$$






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    up vote
    12
    down vote













    We can use the well known identity
    $$1+x+dots+x^n = fracx^n+1-1x-1.$$
    After substitution $x=1+t$ this becomes
    $$1+(1+t)+dots+(1+t)^n=frac(1+t)^n+1-1t.$$
    Both sides of these equations are polynomials in $t$. (Notice that the RHS simplifies to $sum_j=1^n+1binom n+1j t^j-1$.)



    If we compare coefficient of $t^k$ on the LHS and the RHS we see that
    $$binom 0k + binom 1k + dots + binom nk = binomn+1k+1.$$




    This proof is basically the same as the proof using generating functions, which was posted in other answers. However, I think it is phrased a bit differently. (And if it is formulated this way, even somebody who has never heard of generating functions can follow the proof.)






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      11
      down vote













      You can use induction on $n$, observing that



      $$
      sum_t=0^n+1 binomtk
      = sum_t=0^n binomtk + binomn+1k
      = binomn+1k+1 + binomn+1k
      = binomn+2k+1
      $$






      share|cite|improve this answer






















      • How can you say that $sum_t=0^n binomtk = binomn+1k+1$ in your proof.
        – hlapointe
        Oct 21 '15 at 15:13










      • That's the inductive hypothesis.
        – Michael Biro
        Oct 21 '15 at 15:14










      • Ok. Can we prove it algebraically?
        – hlapointe
        Oct 21 '15 at 15:15










      • What's the first step!? Because if I take $n=1$, the hypothesis seem to be incorrect.
        – hlapointe
        Oct 21 '15 at 15:21










      • @hlapointe One choice of base case for every fixed $k$ is that $sum_t=0^k binomtk = binomkk = 1 = binomk+1k+1$.
        – Michael Biro
        Oct 21 '15 at 16:28


















      up vote
      8
      down vote













      The RHS is the number of $k+1$ subsets of $1,2,...,n+1$. Group them according to the largest element in the subset. Sum up all the cases. Get the LHS.






      share|cite|improve this answer



























        up vote
        6
        down vote













        Another technique is to use snake oil. Call your sum:



        $beginalign
        S_k
        &= sum_0 le t le n binomtk
        endalign$



        Define the generating function:



        $beginalign
        S(z)
        &= sum_k ge 0 S_k z^k \
        &= sum_k ge 0 z^k sum_0 le t le n binomtk \
        &= sum_0 le t le n sum_k ge 0 binomtk z^k \
        &= sum_0 le t le n (1 + z)^t \
        &= frac(1 + z)^n + 1 - 1(1 + z) - 1 \
        &= z^-1 left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right)
        endalign$



        So we are interested in the coefficient of $z^k$ of this:



        $beginalign
        [z^k] z^-1 left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right)
        &= [z^k + 1] left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right) \
        &= binomn + 1k + 1
        endalign$






        share|cite|improve this answer





























          up vote
          6
          down vote













          We can use the integral representation of the binomial coefficient $$dbinomtk=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracleft(1+zright)^tz^k+1dztag1
          $$ and get $$sum_t=0^ndbinomtk=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracsum_k=0^nleft(1+zright)^tz^k+1dz
          $$ $$=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracleft(z+1right)^n+1z^k+2dz-frac12pi ioint_zrightfrac1z^k+2dz
          $$ and so usign again $(1)$ we have $$sum_t=0^ndbinomtk=dbinomn+1k+1-0=colorreddbinomn+1k+1.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer
















          • 2




            It is so nice and weird. +1
            – Behrouz Maleki
            Jul 5 '16 at 10:27










          • +1. Nice work. You must subtract $displaystyledelta_k,-1$ in order to take account of the case $displaystylek = -1$. When $displaystylek = -1$, the LHS is equal to $displaystyle0$ and your RHS is equal to $displaystyle1$. With the $displaystyledelta_k,-1$ you'll get $displaystyle1 - 1 = 0$.
            – Felix Marin
            Jul 6 '16 at 21:50


















          up vote
          4
          down vote













          You remember that:
          $$
          (1+x)^m = sum_k binommk x^k
          $$
          So the sum
          $$
          sum_m=0^M binomm+kk
          $$
          is the coefficient of $ x^k $ in:
          $$
          sum_m=0^M (1+x)^m+k
          $$ Yes?
          So now use the geometric series formula given:
          $$
          sum_m=0^M (1+x)^m+k = -frac(1+x)^kx left( 1 - (1+x)^M+1 right)
          $$
          And now you want to know what is coefficient of $x^k $ in there. You got it from here.






          share|cite|improve this answer



























            up vote
            4
            down vote













            In this answer, I prove the identity
            $$
            binom-nk=(-1)^kbinomn+k-1ktag1
            $$
            Here is a generalization of the identity in question, proven using the Vandermonde Identity
            $$
            beginalign
            sum_m=0^Mbinomm+kkbinomM-mn
            &=sum_m=0^Mbinomm+kmbinomM-mM-m-ntag2\
            &=sum_m=0^M(-1)^mbinom-k-1m(-1)^M-m-nbinom-n-1M-m-ntag3\
            &=(-1)^M-nsum_m=0^Mbinom-k-1mbinom-n-1M-m-ntag4\
            &=(-1)^M-nbinom-k-n-2M-ntag5\
            &=binomM+k+1M-ntag6\
            &=binomM+k+1n+k+1tag7
            endalign
            $$
            Explanation:

            $(2)$: $binomnk=binomnn-k$

            $(3)$: apply $(1)$ to each binomial coefficient

            $(4)$: combine the powers of $-1$ which can then be pulled out front

            $(5)$: apply Vandermonde

            $(6)$: apply $(1)$

            $(7)$: $binomnk=binomnn-k$



            To get the identity in the question, set $n=0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer


















            • 2




              @FoF: I have added a link here and answered your other question. Thanks for mentioning the difficulty.
              – robjohn♦
              Dec 7 '13 at 12:33






            • 1




              @FoF: That is the Vandermonde Identity that I mentioned at the beginning.
              – robjohn♦
              Dec 8 '13 at 18:56







            • 1




              @FoF: I added an explanation for each line.
              – robjohn♦
              Dec 9 '13 at 2:20







            • 1




              I answered my own question about $(5, 6$) here.
              – NaN
              Dec 10 '13 at 8:54






            • 1




              @FoF: Ah. That is why I added the Explanation when I saw difficulty in following the argument.
              – robjohn♦
              Dec 11 '13 at 7:46


















            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Recall that for $kinBbb N$ we have the generating function



            $$sum_nge 0binomn+kkx^n=frac1(1-x)^k+1;.$$



            The identity in the question can therefore be rewritten as



            $$left(sum_nge 0binomn+kkx^nright)left(sum_nge 0x^nright)=sum_nge 0binomn+k+1k+1x^n;.$$



            The coefficient of $x^n$ in the product on the left is



            $$sum_i=0^nbinomi+kkcdot1=sum_i=0^nbinomi+kk;,$$



            and the $n$-th term of the discrete convolution of the sequences $leftlanglebinomn+kk:ninBbb Nrightrangle$ and $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$. And at this point you’re practically done.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Is there a typo in the second equation (first sum)? I believe $k$ should be indexed.
              – AlanH
              May 27 '13 at 6:20











            • @Alan: No, the sum is over $n$; $k$ is fixed throughout.
              – Brian M. Scott
              May 27 '13 at 7:19










            • In my text, I have an identity $sum_rgeq 0 binomr + nr x^r = 1/(1-x)^n+1$ This may be the cause of my confusion, but is this identity correct and is it equivalent to the one you used?
              – AlanH
              May 27 '13 at 8:22










            • @Alan: Sure: your $r$ is my $n$, and your $n$ is my $k$.
              – Brian M. Scott
              May 27 '13 at 8:28






            • 1




              @Alan: $binomr+nr=binomr+nn$; now do the translation. (Sorry: I didn’t notice before that you’d used the symmetrically opposite binomial coefficient.)
              – Brian M. Scott
              May 27 '13 at 19:19

















            up vote
            1
            down vote













            A standard technique to prove such identities $sum_i=0^Mf(i)=F(M)$, involving on one hand a sum where only the upper bound $M$ is variable and on the other hand an explicit expression in terms of$~M$, is to use induction on$~M$. It amounts to showing that $f(M)=F(M)-F(M-1)$ (and that $F(0)=f(0)$). This is similar to using the fundamental theorem of calculus in showing that $int_0^x_0f(x)mathrm dx=F(x_0)$ by establishing $f(x)=F'(x)$ (and $F(0)=0$).



            So here you need to check (apart from the obvious starting case $M=0$) that $binomM+kk=binomM+k+1k+1-binomM+kk+1$. This is just in instance of Pascal's recurrence for binomial coefficients.






            share|cite|improve this answer





























              up vote
              1
              down vote













              $newcommandangles[1]leftlangle,#1,rightrangle
              newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
              newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
              newcommandddmathrmd
              newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
              newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
              newcommandhalf1 over 2
              newcommandicmathrmi
              newcommandiffLeftrightarrow
              newcommandimpLongrightarrow
              newcommandol[1]overline#1
              newcommandpars[1]left(,#1,right)
              newcommandpartiald[3]fracpartial^#1 #2partial #3^#1
              newcommandroot[2],sqrt[#1],#2,,
              newcommandtotald[3]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
              newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$
              Assuming $dsM geq 0$:




              beginequation
              mboxNote thatquad
              sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k = sum_m = k^M + km choose k =
              a_M + k - a_k - 1quadmboxwherequad a_n equiv
              sum_m = 0^nm choose ktag1
              endequation







              Then,
              beginalign
              color#f00a_n & equiv sum_m = 0^nm choose k =
              sum_m = 0^n overbrace%
              oint_vertsz = 1pars1 + z^m over z^k + 1,dd z over 2piic
              ^dsm choose k =
              oint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 1sum_m = 0^npars1 + z^m
              ,dd z over 2piic
              \[3mm] & =
              oint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 1,
              pars1 + z^n + 1 - 1 over pars1 + z - 1,dd z over 2piic =
              underbraceoint_vertsz = 1pars1 + z^n + 1 over z^k + 2
              ,dd z over 2piic_dsn + 1 choose k + 1 -
              underbraceoint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 2,dd z over 2piic
              _dsdelta_k + 2,1
              \[8mm] imp color#f00a_n & = fbox$dsquad%
              n + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1quad$
              endalign


              beginalign
              mboxWith pars1,,quad
              color#f00sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k & =
              bracksM + k + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1 -
              bracksk choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1
              \[3mm] & =
              M + k + 1 choose k + 1 - k choose k + 1
              endalign
              Thanks to $ds@robjohn$ user who pointed out the following feature:
              $$
              k choose k + 1 = -k + k + 1 - 1 choose k + 1pars-1^k + 1 =
              -pars-1^k0 choose k + 1 = delta_k,-1
              $$
              such that
              $$
              beginarrayhlinembox\
              dsquadcolor#f00sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k =
              color#f00M + k + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1quad
              \ mbox\ hline
              endarray
              $$




              share|cite|improve this answer






















              • Since $k=-1$ is covered in the first part, it should be noted that since $binom-10=1$, $$binomkk+1-delta_k,-1=0$$ therefore the final answer seems it should be $$binomM+k+1k+1-delta_k,-1$$
                – robjohn♦
                Jul 25 '16 at 13:00










              • @robjohn Thanks. I'm checking everything right now.
                – Felix Marin
                Jul 25 '16 at 21:48










              • @robjohn Thanks. Fixed.
                – Felix Marin
                Jul 25 '16 at 22:09










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              13 Answers
              13






              active

              oldest

              votes








              13 Answers
              13






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              15
              down vote



              accepted










              This is purely algebraic. First of all, since $dbinomtk =0$ when $k>t$ we can rewrite
              $$binomn+1k+1 = sum_t=0^n binomtk=sum_t=k^n binomtk$$



              Recall that (by the Pascal's Triangle),
              $$binomnk = binomn-1k-1 + binomn-1k$$



              Hence
              $$binomt+1k+1 = binomtk + binomtk+1 implies binomtk = binomt+1k+1 - binomtk+1$$



              Let's get this summed by $t$:
              $$sum_t=k^n binomtk = sum_t=k^n binomt+1k+1 - sum_t=k^n binomtk+1$$



              Let's factor out the last member of the first sum and the first member of the second sum:
              $$sum _t=k^n binomtk
              =left( sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1 + binomn+1k+1 right)
              -left( sum_t=k+1^n binomtk+1 + binomkk+1 right)$$



              Obviously $dbinomkk+1 = 0$, hence we get
              $$sum _t=k^n binomtk
              =binomn+1k+1
              +sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1
              -sum_t=k+1^n binomtk+1$$



              Let's introduce $t'=t-1$, then if $t=k+1 dots n, t'=k dots n-1$, hence
              $$sum_t=k^n binomtk
              = binomn+1k+1
              +sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1
              -sum_t'=k^n-1 binomt'+1k+1$$



              The latter two arguments eliminate each other and you get the desired formulation
              $$binomn+1k+1
              = sum_t=k^n binomtk
              = sum_t=0^n binomtk$$






              share|cite|improve this answer


















              • 1




                Beautiful proof. p.-s. you can use the LaTeX command binomnk to display $binomnk$.
                – hlapointe
                Oct 21 '15 at 16:26











              • @hlapointe thank you. Sure, I forgot there was a special command for binomial.
                – Eli Korvigo
                Oct 21 '15 at 16:32














              up vote
              15
              down vote



              accepted










              This is purely algebraic. First of all, since $dbinomtk =0$ when $k>t$ we can rewrite
              $$binomn+1k+1 = sum_t=0^n binomtk=sum_t=k^n binomtk$$



              Recall that (by the Pascal's Triangle),
              $$binomnk = binomn-1k-1 + binomn-1k$$



              Hence
              $$binomt+1k+1 = binomtk + binomtk+1 implies binomtk = binomt+1k+1 - binomtk+1$$



              Let's get this summed by $t$:
              $$sum_t=k^n binomtk = sum_t=k^n binomt+1k+1 - sum_t=k^n binomtk+1$$



              Let's factor out the last member of the first sum and the first member of the second sum:
              $$sum _t=k^n binomtk
              =left( sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1 + binomn+1k+1 right)
              -left( sum_t=k+1^n binomtk+1 + binomkk+1 right)$$



              Obviously $dbinomkk+1 = 0$, hence we get
              $$sum _t=k^n binomtk
              =binomn+1k+1
              +sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1
              -sum_t=k+1^n binomtk+1$$



              Let's introduce $t'=t-1$, then if $t=k+1 dots n, t'=k dots n-1$, hence
              $$sum_t=k^n binomtk
              = binomn+1k+1
              +sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1
              -sum_t'=k^n-1 binomt'+1k+1$$



              The latter two arguments eliminate each other and you get the desired formulation
              $$binomn+1k+1
              = sum_t=k^n binomtk
              = sum_t=0^n binomtk$$






              share|cite|improve this answer


















              • 1




                Beautiful proof. p.-s. you can use the LaTeX command binomnk to display $binomnk$.
                – hlapointe
                Oct 21 '15 at 16:26











              • @hlapointe thank you. Sure, I forgot there was a special command for binomial.
                – Eli Korvigo
                Oct 21 '15 at 16:32












              up vote
              15
              down vote



              accepted







              up vote
              15
              down vote



              accepted






              This is purely algebraic. First of all, since $dbinomtk =0$ when $k>t$ we can rewrite
              $$binomn+1k+1 = sum_t=0^n binomtk=sum_t=k^n binomtk$$



              Recall that (by the Pascal's Triangle),
              $$binomnk = binomn-1k-1 + binomn-1k$$



              Hence
              $$binomt+1k+1 = binomtk + binomtk+1 implies binomtk = binomt+1k+1 - binomtk+1$$



              Let's get this summed by $t$:
              $$sum_t=k^n binomtk = sum_t=k^n binomt+1k+1 - sum_t=k^n binomtk+1$$



              Let's factor out the last member of the first sum and the first member of the second sum:
              $$sum _t=k^n binomtk
              =left( sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1 + binomn+1k+1 right)
              -left( sum_t=k+1^n binomtk+1 + binomkk+1 right)$$



              Obviously $dbinomkk+1 = 0$, hence we get
              $$sum _t=k^n binomtk
              =binomn+1k+1
              +sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1
              -sum_t=k+1^n binomtk+1$$



              Let's introduce $t'=t-1$, then if $t=k+1 dots n, t'=k dots n-1$, hence
              $$sum_t=k^n binomtk
              = binomn+1k+1
              +sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1
              -sum_t'=k^n-1 binomt'+1k+1$$



              The latter two arguments eliminate each other and you get the desired formulation
              $$binomn+1k+1
              = sum_t=k^n binomtk
              = sum_t=0^n binomtk$$






              share|cite|improve this answer














              This is purely algebraic. First of all, since $dbinomtk =0$ when $k>t$ we can rewrite
              $$binomn+1k+1 = sum_t=0^n binomtk=sum_t=k^n binomtk$$



              Recall that (by the Pascal's Triangle),
              $$binomnk = binomn-1k-1 + binomn-1k$$



              Hence
              $$binomt+1k+1 = binomtk + binomtk+1 implies binomtk = binomt+1k+1 - binomtk+1$$



              Let's get this summed by $t$:
              $$sum_t=k^n binomtk = sum_t=k^n binomt+1k+1 - sum_t=k^n binomtk+1$$



              Let's factor out the last member of the first sum and the first member of the second sum:
              $$sum _t=k^n binomtk
              =left( sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1 + binomn+1k+1 right)
              -left( sum_t=k+1^n binomtk+1 + binomkk+1 right)$$



              Obviously $dbinomkk+1 = 0$, hence we get
              $$sum _t=k^n binomtk
              =binomn+1k+1
              +sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1
              -sum_t=k+1^n binomtk+1$$



              Let's introduce $t'=t-1$, then if $t=k+1 dots n, t'=k dots n-1$, hence
              $$sum_t=k^n binomtk
              = binomn+1k+1
              +sum_t=k^n-1 binomt+1k+1
              -sum_t'=k^n-1 binomt'+1k+1$$



              The latter two arguments eliminate each other and you get the desired formulation
              $$binomn+1k+1
              = sum_t=k^n binomtk
              = sum_t=0^n binomtk$$







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Sep 10 at 6:02

























              answered Oct 21 '15 at 15:48









              Eli Korvigo

              315110




              315110







              • 1




                Beautiful proof. p.-s. you can use the LaTeX command binomnk to display $binomnk$.
                – hlapointe
                Oct 21 '15 at 16:26











              • @hlapointe thank you. Sure, I forgot there was a special command for binomial.
                – Eli Korvigo
                Oct 21 '15 at 16:32












              • 1




                Beautiful proof. p.-s. you can use the LaTeX command binomnk to display $binomnk$.
                – hlapointe
                Oct 21 '15 at 16:26











              • @hlapointe thank you. Sure, I forgot there was a special command for binomial.
                – Eli Korvigo
                Oct 21 '15 at 16:32







              1




              1




              Beautiful proof. p.-s. you can use the LaTeX command binomnk to display $binomnk$.
              – hlapointe
              Oct 21 '15 at 16:26





              Beautiful proof. p.-s. you can use the LaTeX command binomnk to display $binomnk$.
              – hlapointe
              Oct 21 '15 at 16:26













              @hlapointe thank you. Sure, I forgot there was a special command for binomial.
              – Eli Korvigo
              Oct 21 '15 at 16:32




              @hlapointe thank you. Sure, I forgot there was a special command for binomial.
              – Eli Korvigo
              Oct 21 '15 at 16:32










              up vote
              20
              down vote













              Imagine the first $n + 1$ numbers, written in order on a piece of paper. The right hand side asks in how many ways you can pick $k+1$ of them. In how many ways can you do this?



              You first pick a highest number, which you circle. Call it $s$. Next, you still have to pick $k$ numbers, each less than $s$, and there are $binoms - 1k$ ways to do this.



              Since $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n$, $t:= s-1$ is ranging from $0$ to $n$ as desired.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















              • Do you mean $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n+1$?
                – Rockstar5645
                Jun 2 '17 at 17:07














              up vote
              20
              down vote













              Imagine the first $n + 1$ numbers, written in order on a piece of paper. The right hand side asks in how many ways you can pick $k+1$ of them. In how many ways can you do this?



              You first pick a highest number, which you circle. Call it $s$. Next, you still have to pick $k$ numbers, each less than $s$, and there are $binoms - 1k$ ways to do this.



              Since $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n$, $t:= s-1$ is ranging from $0$ to $n$ as desired.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















              • Do you mean $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n+1$?
                – Rockstar5645
                Jun 2 '17 at 17:07












              up vote
              20
              down vote










              up vote
              20
              down vote









              Imagine the first $n + 1$ numbers, written in order on a piece of paper. The right hand side asks in how many ways you can pick $k+1$ of them. In how many ways can you do this?



              You first pick a highest number, which you circle. Call it $s$. Next, you still have to pick $k$ numbers, each less than $s$, and there are $binoms - 1k$ ways to do this.



              Since $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n$, $t:= s-1$ is ranging from $0$ to $n$ as desired.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              Imagine the first $n + 1$ numbers, written in order on a piece of paper. The right hand side asks in how many ways you can pick $k+1$ of them. In how many ways can you do this?



              You first pick a highest number, which you circle. Call it $s$. Next, you still have to pick $k$ numbers, each less than $s$, and there are $binoms - 1k$ ways to do this.



              Since $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n$, $t:= s-1$ is ranging from $0$ to $n$ as desired.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Oct 21 '15 at 16:30









              hunter

              13.3k22337




              13.3k22337











              • Do you mean $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n+1$?
                – Rockstar5645
                Jun 2 '17 at 17:07
















              • Do you mean $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n+1$?
                – Rockstar5645
                Jun 2 '17 at 17:07















              Do you mean $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n+1$?
              – Rockstar5645
              Jun 2 '17 at 17:07




              Do you mean $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n+1$?
              – Rockstar5645
              Jun 2 '17 at 17:07










              up vote
              14
              down vote













              $$beginalign
              sum_t=colorblue0^n binomtk =sum_t=colorbluek^nbinom tk&= sum_t=k^nleft[ binom t+1k+1-binom tk+1right]\
              &=sum_t=colororangek^colororangenbinom colororanget+1k+1-sum_t=k^nbinom tk+1\
              &=sum_t=colororangek+1^colororangen+1binom colororangetk+1-sum_t=k^nbinom tk+1\
              &=binomn+1k+1-underbracebinom kk+1_0&&textby telescoping\
              &=binomn+1k+1quadblacksquare\
              endalign$$






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                up vote
                14
                down vote













                $$beginalign
                sum_t=colorblue0^n binomtk =sum_t=colorbluek^nbinom tk&= sum_t=k^nleft[ binom t+1k+1-binom tk+1right]\
                &=sum_t=colororangek^colororangenbinom colororanget+1k+1-sum_t=k^nbinom tk+1\
                &=sum_t=colororangek+1^colororangen+1binom colororangetk+1-sum_t=k^nbinom tk+1\
                &=binomn+1k+1-underbracebinom kk+1_0&&textby telescoping\
                &=binomn+1k+1quadblacksquare\
                endalign$$






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  14
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  14
                  down vote









                  $$beginalign
                  sum_t=colorblue0^n binomtk =sum_t=colorbluek^nbinom tk&= sum_t=k^nleft[ binom t+1k+1-binom tk+1right]\
                  &=sum_t=colororangek^colororangenbinom colororanget+1k+1-sum_t=k^nbinom tk+1\
                  &=sum_t=colororangek+1^colororangen+1binom colororangetk+1-sum_t=k^nbinom tk+1\
                  &=binomn+1k+1-underbracebinom kk+1_0&&textby telescoping\
                  &=binomn+1k+1quadblacksquare\
                  endalign$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  $$beginalign
                  sum_t=colorblue0^n binomtk =sum_t=colorbluek^nbinom tk&= sum_t=k^nleft[ binom t+1k+1-binom tk+1right]\
                  &=sum_t=colororangek^colororangenbinom colororanget+1k+1-sum_t=k^nbinom tk+1\
                  &=sum_t=colororangek+1^colororangen+1binom colororangetk+1-sum_t=k^nbinom tk+1\
                  &=binomn+1k+1-underbracebinom kk+1_0&&textby telescoping\
                  &=binomn+1k+1quadblacksquare\
                  endalign$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Jul 5 '16 at 7:07

























                  answered Oct 21 '15 at 16:02









                  hypergeometric

                  17.2k1654




                  17.2k1654




















                      up vote
                      12
                      down vote













                      We can use the well known identity
                      $$1+x+dots+x^n = fracx^n+1-1x-1.$$
                      After substitution $x=1+t$ this becomes
                      $$1+(1+t)+dots+(1+t)^n=frac(1+t)^n+1-1t.$$
                      Both sides of these equations are polynomials in $t$. (Notice that the RHS simplifies to $sum_j=1^n+1binom n+1j t^j-1$.)



                      If we compare coefficient of $t^k$ on the LHS and the RHS we see that
                      $$binom 0k + binom 1k + dots + binom nk = binomn+1k+1.$$




                      This proof is basically the same as the proof using generating functions, which was posted in other answers. However, I think it is phrased a bit differently. (And if it is formulated this way, even somebody who has never heard of generating functions can follow the proof.)






                      share|cite|improve this answer
























                        up vote
                        12
                        down vote













                        We can use the well known identity
                        $$1+x+dots+x^n = fracx^n+1-1x-1.$$
                        After substitution $x=1+t$ this becomes
                        $$1+(1+t)+dots+(1+t)^n=frac(1+t)^n+1-1t.$$
                        Both sides of these equations are polynomials in $t$. (Notice that the RHS simplifies to $sum_j=1^n+1binom n+1j t^j-1$.)



                        If we compare coefficient of $t^k$ on the LHS and the RHS we see that
                        $$binom 0k + binom 1k + dots + binom nk = binomn+1k+1.$$




                        This proof is basically the same as the proof using generating functions, which was posted in other answers. However, I think it is phrased a bit differently. (And if it is formulated this way, even somebody who has never heard of generating functions can follow the proof.)






                        share|cite|improve this answer






















                          up vote
                          12
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          12
                          down vote









                          We can use the well known identity
                          $$1+x+dots+x^n = fracx^n+1-1x-1.$$
                          After substitution $x=1+t$ this becomes
                          $$1+(1+t)+dots+(1+t)^n=frac(1+t)^n+1-1t.$$
                          Both sides of these equations are polynomials in $t$. (Notice that the RHS simplifies to $sum_j=1^n+1binom n+1j t^j-1$.)



                          If we compare coefficient of $t^k$ on the LHS and the RHS we see that
                          $$binom 0k + binom 1k + dots + binom nk = binomn+1k+1.$$




                          This proof is basically the same as the proof using generating functions, which was posted in other answers. However, I think it is phrased a bit differently. (And if it is formulated this way, even somebody who has never heard of generating functions can follow the proof.)






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          We can use the well known identity
                          $$1+x+dots+x^n = fracx^n+1-1x-1.$$
                          After substitution $x=1+t$ this becomes
                          $$1+(1+t)+dots+(1+t)^n=frac(1+t)^n+1-1t.$$
                          Both sides of these equations are polynomials in $t$. (Notice that the RHS simplifies to $sum_j=1^n+1binom n+1j t^j-1$.)



                          If we compare coefficient of $t^k$ on the LHS and the RHS we see that
                          $$binom 0k + binom 1k + dots + binom nk = binomn+1k+1.$$




                          This proof is basically the same as the proof using generating functions, which was posted in other answers. However, I think it is phrased a bit differently. (And if it is formulated this way, even somebody who has never heard of generating functions can follow the proof.)







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jan 18 '16 at 13:45









                          Martin Sleziak

                          43.7k6113261




                          43.7k6113261




















                              up vote
                              11
                              down vote













                              You can use induction on $n$, observing that



                              $$
                              sum_t=0^n+1 binomtk
                              = sum_t=0^n binomtk + binomn+1k
                              = binomn+1k+1 + binomn+1k
                              = binomn+2k+1
                              $$






                              share|cite|improve this answer






















                              • How can you say that $sum_t=0^n binomtk = binomn+1k+1$ in your proof.
                                – hlapointe
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:13










                              • That's the inductive hypothesis.
                                – Michael Biro
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:14










                              • Ok. Can we prove it algebraically?
                                – hlapointe
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:15










                              • What's the first step!? Because if I take $n=1$, the hypothesis seem to be incorrect.
                                – hlapointe
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:21










                              • @hlapointe One choice of base case for every fixed $k$ is that $sum_t=0^k binomtk = binomkk = 1 = binomk+1k+1$.
                                – Michael Biro
                                Oct 21 '15 at 16:28















                              up vote
                              11
                              down vote













                              You can use induction on $n$, observing that



                              $$
                              sum_t=0^n+1 binomtk
                              = sum_t=0^n binomtk + binomn+1k
                              = binomn+1k+1 + binomn+1k
                              = binomn+2k+1
                              $$






                              share|cite|improve this answer






















                              • How can you say that $sum_t=0^n binomtk = binomn+1k+1$ in your proof.
                                – hlapointe
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:13










                              • That's the inductive hypothesis.
                                – Michael Biro
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:14










                              • Ok. Can we prove it algebraically?
                                – hlapointe
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:15










                              • What's the first step!? Because if I take $n=1$, the hypothesis seem to be incorrect.
                                – hlapointe
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:21










                              • @hlapointe One choice of base case for every fixed $k$ is that $sum_t=0^k binomtk = binomkk = 1 = binomk+1k+1$.
                                – Michael Biro
                                Oct 21 '15 at 16:28













                              up vote
                              11
                              down vote










                              up vote
                              11
                              down vote









                              You can use induction on $n$, observing that



                              $$
                              sum_t=0^n+1 binomtk
                              = sum_t=0^n binomtk + binomn+1k
                              = binomn+1k+1 + binomn+1k
                              = binomn+2k+1
                              $$






                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              You can use induction on $n$, observing that



                              $$
                              sum_t=0^n+1 binomtk
                              = sum_t=0^n binomtk + binomn+1k
                              = binomn+1k+1 + binomn+1k
                              = binomn+2k+1
                              $$







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited Oct 21 '15 at 15:13









                              hlapointe

                              625721




                              625721










                              answered Oct 21 '15 at 15:08









                              Michael Biro

                              10.8k21731




                              10.8k21731











                              • How can you say that $sum_t=0^n binomtk = binomn+1k+1$ in your proof.
                                – hlapointe
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:13










                              • That's the inductive hypothesis.
                                – Michael Biro
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:14










                              • Ok. Can we prove it algebraically?
                                – hlapointe
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:15










                              • What's the first step!? Because if I take $n=1$, the hypothesis seem to be incorrect.
                                – hlapointe
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:21










                              • @hlapointe One choice of base case for every fixed $k$ is that $sum_t=0^k binomtk = binomkk = 1 = binomk+1k+1$.
                                – Michael Biro
                                Oct 21 '15 at 16:28

















                              • How can you say that $sum_t=0^n binomtk = binomn+1k+1$ in your proof.
                                – hlapointe
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:13










                              • That's the inductive hypothesis.
                                – Michael Biro
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:14










                              • Ok. Can we prove it algebraically?
                                – hlapointe
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:15










                              • What's the first step!? Because if I take $n=1$, the hypothesis seem to be incorrect.
                                – hlapointe
                                Oct 21 '15 at 15:21










                              • @hlapointe One choice of base case for every fixed $k$ is that $sum_t=0^k binomtk = binomkk = 1 = binomk+1k+1$.
                                – Michael Biro
                                Oct 21 '15 at 16:28
















                              How can you say that $sum_t=0^n binomtk = binomn+1k+1$ in your proof.
                              – hlapointe
                              Oct 21 '15 at 15:13




                              How can you say that $sum_t=0^n binomtk = binomn+1k+1$ in your proof.
                              – hlapointe
                              Oct 21 '15 at 15:13












                              That's the inductive hypothesis.
                              – Michael Biro
                              Oct 21 '15 at 15:14




                              That's the inductive hypothesis.
                              – Michael Biro
                              Oct 21 '15 at 15:14












                              Ok. Can we prove it algebraically?
                              – hlapointe
                              Oct 21 '15 at 15:15




                              Ok. Can we prove it algebraically?
                              – hlapointe
                              Oct 21 '15 at 15:15












                              What's the first step!? Because if I take $n=1$, the hypothesis seem to be incorrect.
                              – hlapointe
                              Oct 21 '15 at 15:21




                              What's the first step!? Because if I take $n=1$, the hypothesis seem to be incorrect.
                              – hlapointe
                              Oct 21 '15 at 15:21












                              @hlapointe One choice of base case for every fixed $k$ is that $sum_t=0^k binomtk = binomkk = 1 = binomk+1k+1$.
                              – Michael Biro
                              Oct 21 '15 at 16:28





                              @hlapointe One choice of base case for every fixed $k$ is that $sum_t=0^k binomtk = binomkk = 1 = binomk+1k+1$.
                              – Michael Biro
                              Oct 21 '15 at 16:28











                              up vote
                              8
                              down vote













                              The RHS is the number of $k+1$ subsets of $1,2,...,n+1$. Group them according to the largest element in the subset. Sum up all the cases. Get the LHS.






                              share|cite|improve this answer
























                                up vote
                                8
                                down vote













                                The RHS is the number of $k+1$ subsets of $1,2,...,n+1$. Group them according to the largest element in the subset. Sum up all the cases. Get the LHS.






                                share|cite|improve this answer






















                                  up vote
                                  8
                                  down vote










                                  up vote
                                  8
                                  down vote









                                  The RHS is the number of $k+1$ subsets of $1,2,...,n+1$. Group them according to the largest element in the subset. Sum up all the cases. Get the LHS.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer












                                  The RHS is the number of $k+1$ subsets of $1,2,...,n+1$. Group them according to the largest element in the subset. Sum up all the cases. Get the LHS.







                                  share|cite|improve this answer












                                  share|cite|improve this answer



                                  share|cite|improve this answer










                                  answered Oct 22 '15 at 2:13









                                  Milan

                                  1414




                                  1414




















                                      up vote
                                      6
                                      down vote













                                      Another technique is to use snake oil. Call your sum:



                                      $beginalign
                                      S_k
                                      &= sum_0 le t le n binomtk
                                      endalign$



                                      Define the generating function:



                                      $beginalign
                                      S(z)
                                      &= sum_k ge 0 S_k z^k \
                                      &= sum_k ge 0 z^k sum_0 le t le n binomtk \
                                      &= sum_0 le t le n sum_k ge 0 binomtk z^k \
                                      &= sum_0 le t le n (1 + z)^t \
                                      &= frac(1 + z)^n + 1 - 1(1 + z) - 1 \
                                      &= z^-1 left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right)
                                      endalign$



                                      So we are interested in the coefficient of $z^k$ of this:



                                      $beginalign
                                      [z^k] z^-1 left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right)
                                      &= [z^k + 1] left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right) \
                                      &= binomn + 1k + 1
                                      endalign$






                                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                                        up vote
                                        6
                                        down vote













                                        Another technique is to use snake oil. Call your sum:



                                        $beginalign
                                        S_k
                                        &= sum_0 le t le n binomtk
                                        endalign$



                                        Define the generating function:



                                        $beginalign
                                        S(z)
                                        &= sum_k ge 0 S_k z^k \
                                        &= sum_k ge 0 z^k sum_0 le t le n binomtk \
                                        &= sum_0 le t le n sum_k ge 0 binomtk z^k \
                                        &= sum_0 le t le n (1 + z)^t \
                                        &= frac(1 + z)^n + 1 - 1(1 + z) - 1 \
                                        &= z^-1 left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right)
                                        endalign$



                                        So we are interested in the coefficient of $z^k$ of this:



                                        $beginalign
                                        [z^k] z^-1 left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right)
                                        &= [z^k + 1] left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right) \
                                        &= binomn + 1k + 1
                                        endalign$






                                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                                          up vote
                                          6
                                          down vote










                                          up vote
                                          6
                                          down vote









                                          Another technique is to use snake oil. Call your sum:



                                          $beginalign
                                          S_k
                                          &= sum_0 le t le n binomtk
                                          endalign$



                                          Define the generating function:



                                          $beginalign
                                          S(z)
                                          &= sum_k ge 0 S_k z^k \
                                          &= sum_k ge 0 z^k sum_0 le t le n binomtk \
                                          &= sum_0 le t le n sum_k ge 0 binomtk z^k \
                                          &= sum_0 le t le n (1 + z)^t \
                                          &= frac(1 + z)^n + 1 - 1(1 + z) - 1 \
                                          &= z^-1 left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right)
                                          endalign$



                                          So we are interested in the coefficient of $z^k$ of this:



                                          $beginalign
                                          [z^k] z^-1 left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right)
                                          &= [z^k + 1] left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right) \
                                          &= binomn + 1k + 1
                                          endalign$






                                          share|cite|improve this answer














                                          Another technique is to use snake oil. Call your sum:



                                          $beginalign
                                          S_k
                                          &= sum_0 le t le n binomtk
                                          endalign$



                                          Define the generating function:



                                          $beginalign
                                          S(z)
                                          &= sum_k ge 0 S_k z^k \
                                          &= sum_k ge 0 z^k sum_0 le t le n binomtk \
                                          &= sum_0 le t le n sum_k ge 0 binomtk z^k \
                                          &= sum_0 le t le n (1 + z)^t \
                                          &= frac(1 + z)^n + 1 - 1(1 + z) - 1 \
                                          &= z^-1 left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right)
                                          endalign$



                                          So we are interested in the coefficient of $z^k$ of this:



                                          $beginalign
                                          [z^k] z^-1 left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right)
                                          &= [z^k + 1] left( (1 + z)^n + 1 - 1 right) \
                                          &= binomn + 1k + 1
                                          endalign$







                                          share|cite|improve this answer














                                          share|cite|improve this answer



                                          share|cite|improve this answer








                                          edited Oct 21 '15 at 16:07

























                                          answered Oct 21 '15 at 15:58









                                          vonbrand

                                          19.7k62957




                                          19.7k62957




















                                              up vote
                                              6
                                              down vote













                                              We can use the integral representation of the binomial coefficient $$dbinomtk=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracleft(1+zright)^tz^k+1dztag1
                                              $$ and get $$sum_t=0^ndbinomtk=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracsum_k=0^nleft(1+zright)^tz^k+1dz
                                              $$ $$=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracleft(z+1right)^n+1z^k+2dz-frac12pi ioint_zrightfrac1z^k+2dz
                                              $$ and so usign again $(1)$ we have $$sum_t=0^ndbinomtk=dbinomn+1k+1-0=colorreddbinomn+1k+1.$$






                                              share|cite|improve this answer
















                                              • 2




                                                It is so nice and weird. +1
                                                – Behrouz Maleki
                                                Jul 5 '16 at 10:27










                                              • +1. Nice work. You must subtract $displaystyledelta_k,-1$ in order to take account of the case $displaystylek = -1$. When $displaystylek = -1$, the LHS is equal to $displaystyle0$ and your RHS is equal to $displaystyle1$. With the $displaystyledelta_k,-1$ you'll get $displaystyle1 - 1 = 0$.
                                                – Felix Marin
                                                Jul 6 '16 at 21:50















                                              up vote
                                              6
                                              down vote













                                              We can use the integral representation of the binomial coefficient $$dbinomtk=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracleft(1+zright)^tz^k+1dztag1
                                              $$ and get $$sum_t=0^ndbinomtk=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracsum_k=0^nleft(1+zright)^tz^k+1dz
                                              $$ $$=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracleft(z+1right)^n+1z^k+2dz-frac12pi ioint_zrightfrac1z^k+2dz
                                              $$ and so usign again $(1)$ we have $$sum_t=0^ndbinomtk=dbinomn+1k+1-0=colorreddbinomn+1k+1.$$






                                              share|cite|improve this answer
















                                              • 2




                                                It is so nice and weird. +1
                                                – Behrouz Maleki
                                                Jul 5 '16 at 10:27










                                              • +1. Nice work. You must subtract $displaystyledelta_k,-1$ in order to take account of the case $displaystylek = -1$. When $displaystylek = -1$, the LHS is equal to $displaystyle0$ and your RHS is equal to $displaystyle1$. With the $displaystyledelta_k,-1$ you'll get $displaystyle1 - 1 = 0$.
                                                – Felix Marin
                                                Jul 6 '16 at 21:50













                                              up vote
                                              6
                                              down vote










                                              up vote
                                              6
                                              down vote









                                              We can use the integral representation of the binomial coefficient $$dbinomtk=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracleft(1+zright)^tz^k+1dztag1
                                              $$ and get $$sum_t=0^ndbinomtk=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracsum_k=0^nleft(1+zright)^tz^k+1dz
                                              $$ $$=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracleft(z+1right)^n+1z^k+2dz-frac12pi ioint_zrightfrac1z^k+2dz
                                              $$ and so usign again $(1)$ we have $$sum_t=0^ndbinomtk=dbinomn+1k+1-0=colorreddbinomn+1k+1.$$






                                              share|cite|improve this answer












                                              We can use the integral representation of the binomial coefficient $$dbinomtk=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracleft(1+zright)^tz^k+1dztag1
                                              $$ and get $$sum_t=0^ndbinomtk=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracsum_k=0^nleft(1+zright)^tz^k+1dz
                                              $$ $$=frac12pi ioint_zrightfracleft(z+1right)^n+1z^k+2dz-frac12pi ioint_zrightfrac1z^k+2dz
                                              $$ and so usign again $(1)$ we have $$sum_t=0^ndbinomtk=dbinomn+1k+1-0=colorreddbinomn+1k+1.$$







                                              share|cite|improve this answer












                                              share|cite|improve this answer



                                              share|cite|improve this answer










                                              answered Jul 5 '16 at 10:13









                                              Marco Cantarini

                                              28.9k23273




                                              28.9k23273







                                              • 2




                                                It is so nice and weird. +1
                                                – Behrouz Maleki
                                                Jul 5 '16 at 10:27










                                              • +1. Nice work. You must subtract $displaystyledelta_k,-1$ in order to take account of the case $displaystylek = -1$. When $displaystylek = -1$, the LHS is equal to $displaystyle0$ and your RHS is equal to $displaystyle1$. With the $displaystyledelta_k,-1$ you'll get $displaystyle1 - 1 = 0$.
                                                – Felix Marin
                                                Jul 6 '16 at 21:50













                                              • 2




                                                It is so nice and weird. +1
                                                – Behrouz Maleki
                                                Jul 5 '16 at 10:27










                                              • +1. Nice work. You must subtract $displaystyledelta_k,-1$ in order to take account of the case $displaystylek = -1$. When $displaystylek = -1$, the LHS is equal to $displaystyle0$ and your RHS is equal to $displaystyle1$. With the $displaystyledelta_k,-1$ you'll get $displaystyle1 - 1 = 0$.
                                                – Felix Marin
                                                Jul 6 '16 at 21:50








                                              2




                                              2




                                              It is so nice and weird. +1
                                              – Behrouz Maleki
                                              Jul 5 '16 at 10:27




                                              It is so nice and weird. +1
                                              – Behrouz Maleki
                                              Jul 5 '16 at 10:27












                                              +1. Nice work. You must subtract $displaystyledelta_k,-1$ in order to take account of the case $displaystylek = -1$. When $displaystylek = -1$, the LHS is equal to $displaystyle0$ and your RHS is equal to $displaystyle1$. With the $displaystyledelta_k,-1$ you'll get $displaystyle1 - 1 = 0$.
                                              – Felix Marin
                                              Jul 6 '16 at 21:50





                                              +1. Nice work. You must subtract $displaystyledelta_k,-1$ in order to take account of the case $displaystylek = -1$. When $displaystylek = -1$, the LHS is equal to $displaystyle0$ and your RHS is equal to $displaystyle1$. With the $displaystyledelta_k,-1$ you'll get $displaystyle1 - 1 = 0$.
                                              – Felix Marin
                                              Jul 6 '16 at 21:50











                                              up vote
                                              4
                                              down vote













                                              You remember that:
                                              $$
                                              (1+x)^m = sum_k binommk x^k
                                              $$
                                              So the sum
                                              $$
                                              sum_m=0^M binomm+kk
                                              $$
                                              is the coefficient of $ x^k $ in:
                                              $$
                                              sum_m=0^M (1+x)^m+k
                                              $$ Yes?
                                              So now use the geometric series formula given:
                                              $$
                                              sum_m=0^M (1+x)^m+k = -frac(1+x)^kx left( 1 - (1+x)^M+1 right)
                                              $$
                                              And now you want to know what is coefficient of $x^k $ in there. You got it from here.






                                              share|cite|improve this answer
























                                                up vote
                                                4
                                                down vote













                                                You remember that:
                                                $$
                                                (1+x)^m = sum_k binommk x^k
                                                $$
                                                So the sum
                                                $$
                                                sum_m=0^M binomm+kk
                                                $$
                                                is the coefficient of $ x^k $ in:
                                                $$
                                                sum_m=0^M (1+x)^m+k
                                                $$ Yes?
                                                So now use the geometric series formula given:
                                                $$
                                                sum_m=0^M (1+x)^m+k = -frac(1+x)^kx left( 1 - (1+x)^M+1 right)
                                                $$
                                                And now you want to know what is coefficient of $x^k $ in there. You got it from here.






                                                share|cite|improve this answer






















                                                  up vote
                                                  4
                                                  down vote










                                                  up vote
                                                  4
                                                  down vote









                                                  You remember that:
                                                  $$
                                                  (1+x)^m = sum_k binommk x^k
                                                  $$
                                                  So the sum
                                                  $$
                                                  sum_m=0^M binomm+kk
                                                  $$
                                                  is the coefficient of $ x^k $ in:
                                                  $$
                                                  sum_m=0^M (1+x)^m+k
                                                  $$ Yes?
                                                  So now use the geometric series formula given:
                                                  $$
                                                  sum_m=0^M (1+x)^m+k = -frac(1+x)^kx left( 1 - (1+x)^M+1 right)
                                                  $$
                                                  And now you want to know what is coefficient of $x^k $ in there. You got it from here.






                                                  share|cite|improve this answer












                                                  You remember that:
                                                  $$
                                                  (1+x)^m = sum_k binommk x^k
                                                  $$
                                                  So the sum
                                                  $$
                                                  sum_m=0^M binomm+kk
                                                  $$
                                                  is the coefficient of $ x^k $ in:
                                                  $$
                                                  sum_m=0^M (1+x)^m+k
                                                  $$ Yes?
                                                  So now use the geometric series formula given:
                                                  $$
                                                  sum_m=0^M (1+x)^m+k = -frac(1+x)^kx left( 1 - (1+x)^M+1 right)
                                                  $$
                                                  And now you want to know what is coefficient of $x^k $ in there. You got it from here.







                                                  share|cite|improve this answer












                                                  share|cite|improve this answer



                                                  share|cite|improve this answer










                                                  answered May 22 '13 at 2:39









                                                  user78883

                                                  411




                                                  411




















                                                      up vote
                                                      4
                                                      down vote













                                                      In this answer, I prove the identity
                                                      $$
                                                      binom-nk=(-1)^kbinomn+k-1ktag1
                                                      $$
                                                      Here is a generalization of the identity in question, proven using the Vandermonde Identity
                                                      $$
                                                      beginalign
                                                      sum_m=0^Mbinomm+kkbinomM-mn
                                                      &=sum_m=0^Mbinomm+kmbinomM-mM-m-ntag2\
                                                      &=sum_m=0^M(-1)^mbinom-k-1m(-1)^M-m-nbinom-n-1M-m-ntag3\
                                                      &=(-1)^M-nsum_m=0^Mbinom-k-1mbinom-n-1M-m-ntag4\
                                                      &=(-1)^M-nbinom-k-n-2M-ntag5\
                                                      &=binomM+k+1M-ntag6\
                                                      &=binomM+k+1n+k+1tag7
                                                      endalign
                                                      $$
                                                      Explanation:

                                                      $(2)$: $binomnk=binomnn-k$

                                                      $(3)$: apply $(1)$ to each binomial coefficient

                                                      $(4)$: combine the powers of $-1$ which can then be pulled out front

                                                      $(5)$: apply Vandermonde

                                                      $(6)$: apply $(1)$

                                                      $(7)$: $binomnk=binomnn-k$



                                                      To get the identity in the question, set $n=0$.






                                                      share|cite|improve this answer


















                                                      • 2




                                                        @FoF: I have added a link here and answered your other question. Thanks for mentioning the difficulty.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 7 '13 at 12:33






                                                      • 1




                                                        @FoF: That is the Vandermonde Identity that I mentioned at the beginning.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 8 '13 at 18:56







                                                      • 1




                                                        @FoF: I added an explanation for each line.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 9 '13 at 2:20







                                                      • 1




                                                        I answered my own question about $(5, 6$) here.
                                                        – NaN
                                                        Dec 10 '13 at 8:54






                                                      • 1




                                                        @FoF: Ah. That is why I added the Explanation when I saw difficulty in following the argument.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 11 '13 at 7:46















                                                      up vote
                                                      4
                                                      down vote













                                                      In this answer, I prove the identity
                                                      $$
                                                      binom-nk=(-1)^kbinomn+k-1ktag1
                                                      $$
                                                      Here is a generalization of the identity in question, proven using the Vandermonde Identity
                                                      $$
                                                      beginalign
                                                      sum_m=0^Mbinomm+kkbinomM-mn
                                                      &=sum_m=0^Mbinomm+kmbinomM-mM-m-ntag2\
                                                      &=sum_m=0^M(-1)^mbinom-k-1m(-1)^M-m-nbinom-n-1M-m-ntag3\
                                                      &=(-1)^M-nsum_m=0^Mbinom-k-1mbinom-n-1M-m-ntag4\
                                                      &=(-1)^M-nbinom-k-n-2M-ntag5\
                                                      &=binomM+k+1M-ntag6\
                                                      &=binomM+k+1n+k+1tag7
                                                      endalign
                                                      $$
                                                      Explanation:

                                                      $(2)$: $binomnk=binomnn-k$

                                                      $(3)$: apply $(1)$ to each binomial coefficient

                                                      $(4)$: combine the powers of $-1$ which can then be pulled out front

                                                      $(5)$: apply Vandermonde

                                                      $(6)$: apply $(1)$

                                                      $(7)$: $binomnk=binomnn-k$



                                                      To get the identity in the question, set $n=0$.






                                                      share|cite|improve this answer


















                                                      • 2




                                                        @FoF: I have added a link here and answered your other question. Thanks for mentioning the difficulty.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 7 '13 at 12:33






                                                      • 1




                                                        @FoF: That is the Vandermonde Identity that I mentioned at the beginning.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 8 '13 at 18:56







                                                      • 1




                                                        @FoF: I added an explanation for each line.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 9 '13 at 2:20







                                                      • 1




                                                        I answered my own question about $(5, 6$) here.
                                                        – NaN
                                                        Dec 10 '13 at 8:54






                                                      • 1




                                                        @FoF: Ah. That is why I added the Explanation when I saw difficulty in following the argument.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 11 '13 at 7:46













                                                      up vote
                                                      4
                                                      down vote










                                                      up vote
                                                      4
                                                      down vote









                                                      In this answer, I prove the identity
                                                      $$
                                                      binom-nk=(-1)^kbinomn+k-1ktag1
                                                      $$
                                                      Here is a generalization of the identity in question, proven using the Vandermonde Identity
                                                      $$
                                                      beginalign
                                                      sum_m=0^Mbinomm+kkbinomM-mn
                                                      &=sum_m=0^Mbinomm+kmbinomM-mM-m-ntag2\
                                                      &=sum_m=0^M(-1)^mbinom-k-1m(-1)^M-m-nbinom-n-1M-m-ntag3\
                                                      &=(-1)^M-nsum_m=0^Mbinom-k-1mbinom-n-1M-m-ntag4\
                                                      &=(-1)^M-nbinom-k-n-2M-ntag5\
                                                      &=binomM+k+1M-ntag6\
                                                      &=binomM+k+1n+k+1tag7
                                                      endalign
                                                      $$
                                                      Explanation:

                                                      $(2)$: $binomnk=binomnn-k$

                                                      $(3)$: apply $(1)$ to each binomial coefficient

                                                      $(4)$: combine the powers of $-1$ which can then be pulled out front

                                                      $(5)$: apply Vandermonde

                                                      $(6)$: apply $(1)$

                                                      $(7)$: $binomnk=binomnn-k$



                                                      To get the identity in the question, set $n=0$.






                                                      share|cite|improve this answer














                                                      In this answer, I prove the identity
                                                      $$
                                                      binom-nk=(-1)^kbinomn+k-1ktag1
                                                      $$
                                                      Here is a generalization of the identity in question, proven using the Vandermonde Identity
                                                      $$
                                                      beginalign
                                                      sum_m=0^Mbinomm+kkbinomM-mn
                                                      &=sum_m=0^Mbinomm+kmbinomM-mM-m-ntag2\
                                                      &=sum_m=0^M(-1)^mbinom-k-1m(-1)^M-m-nbinom-n-1M-m-ntag3\
                                                      &=(-1)^M-nsum_m=0^Mbinom-k-1mbinom-n-1M-m-ntag4\
                                                      &=(-1)^M-nbinom-k-n-2M-ntag5\
                                                      &=binomM+k+1M-ntag6\
                                                      &=binomM+k+1n+k+1tag7
                                                      endalign
                                                      $$
                                                      Explanation:

                                                      $(2)$: $binomnk=binomnn-k$

                                                      $(3)$: apply $(1)$ to each binomial coefficient

                                                      $(4)$: combine the powers of $-1$ which can then be pulled out front

                                                      $(5)$: apply Vandermonde

                                                      $(6)$: apply $(1)$

                                                      $(7)$: $binomnk=binomnn-k$



                                                      To get the identity in the question, set $n=0$.







                                                      share|cite|improve this answer














                                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                                      share|cite|improve this answer








                                                      edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:19









                                                      Community♦

                                                      1




                                                      1










                                                      answered May 22 '13 at 13:13









                                                      robjohn♦

                                                      260k26299614




                                                      260k26299614







                                                      • 2




                                                        @FoF: I have added a link here and answered your other question. Thanks for mentioning the difficulty.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 7 '13 at 12:33






                                                      • 1




                                                        @FoF: That is the Vandermonde Identity that I mentioned at the beginning.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 8 '13 at 18:56







                                                      • 1




                                                        @FoF: I added an explanation for each line.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 9 '13 at 2:20







                                                      • 1




                                                        I answered my own question about $(5, 6$) here.
                                                        – NaN
                                                        Dec 10 '13 at 8:54






                                                      • 1




                                                        @FoF: Ah. That is why I added the Explanation when I saw difficulty in following the argument.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 11 '13 at 7:46













                                                      • 2




                                                        @FoF: I have added a link here and answered your other question. Thanks for mentioning the difficulty.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 7 '13 at 12:33






                                                      • 1




                                                        @FoF: That is the Vandermonde Identity that I mentioned at the beginning.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 8 '13 at 18:56







                                                      • 1




                                                        @FoF: I added an explanation for each line.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 9 '13 at 2:20







                                                      • 1




                                                        I answered my own question about $(5, 6$) here.
                                                        – NaN
                                                        Dec 10 '13 at 8:54






                                                      • 1




                                                        @FoF: Ah. That is why I added the Explanation when I saw difficulty in following the argument.
                                                        – robjohn♦
                                                        Dec 11 '13 at 7:46








                                                      2




                                                      2




                                                      @FoF: I have added a link here and answered your other question. Thanks for mentioning the difficulty.
                                                      – robjohn♦
                                                      Dec 7 '13 at 12:33




                                                      @FoF: I have added a link here and answered your other question. Thanks for mentioning the difficulty.
                                                      – robjohn♦
                                                      Dec 7 '13 at 12:33




                                                      1




                                                      1




                                                      @FoF: That is the Vandermonde Identity that I mentioned at the beginning.
                                                      – robjohn♦
                                                      Dec 8 '13 at 18:56





                                                      @FoF: That is the Vandermonde Identity that I mentioned at the beginning.
                                                      – robjohn♦
                                                      Dec 8 '13 at 18:56





                                                      1




                                                      1




                                                      @FoF: I added an explanation for each line.
                                                      – robjohn♦
                                                      Dec 9 '13 at 2:20





                                                      @FoF: I added an explanation for each line.
                                                      – robjohn♦
                                                      Dec 9 '13 at 2:20





                                                      1




                                                      1




                                                      I answered my own question about $(5, 6$) here.
                                                      – NaN
                                                      Dec 10 '13 at 8:54




                                                      I answered my own question about $(5, 6$) here.
                                                      – NaN
                                                      Dec 10 '13 at 8:54




                                                      1




                                                      1




                                                      @FoF: Ah. That is why I added the Explanation when I saw difficulty in following the argument.
                                                      – robjohn♦
                                                      Dec 11 '13 at 7:46





                                                      @FoF: Ah. That is why I added the Explanation when I saw difficulty in following the argument.
                                                      – robjohn♦
                                                      Dec 11 '13 at 7:46











                                                      up vote
                                                      1
                                                      down vote













                                                      Recall that for $kinBbb N$ we have the generating function



                                                      $$sum_nge 0binomn+kkx^n=frac1(1-x)^k+1;.$$



                                                      The identity in the question can therefore be rewritten as



                                                      $$left(sum_nge 0binomn+kkx^nright)left(sum_nge 0x^nright)=sum_nge 0binomn+k+1k+1x^n;.$$



                                                      The coefficient of $x^n$ in the product on the left is



                                                      $$sum_i=0^nbinomi+kkcdot1=sum_i=0^nbinomi+kk;,$$



                                                      and the $n$-th term of the discrete convolution of the sequences $leftlanglebinomn+kk:ninBbb Nrightrangle$ and $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$. And at this point you’re practically done.






                                                      share|cite|improve this answer




















                                                      • Is there a typo in the second equation (first sum)? I believe $k$ should be indexed.
                                                        – AlanH
                                                        May 27 '13 at 6:20











                                                      • @Alan: No, the sum is over $n$; $k$ is fixed throughout.
                                                        – Brian M. Scott
                                                        May 27 '13 at 7:19










                                                      • In my text, I have an identity $sum_rgeq 0 binomr + nr x^r = 1/(1-x)^n+1$ This may be the cause of my confusion, but is this identity correct and is it equivalent to the one you used?
                                                        – AlanH
                                                        May 27 '13 at 8:22










                                                      • @Alan: Sure: your $r$ is my $n$, and your $n$ is my $k$.
                                                        – Brian M. Scott
                                                        May 27 '13 at 8:28






                                                      • 1




                                                        @Alan: $binomr+nr=binomr+nn$; now do the translation. (Sorry: I didn’t notice before that you’d used the symmetrically opposite binomial coefficient.)
                                                        – Brian M. Scott
                                                        May 27 '13 at 19:19














                                                      up vote
                                                      1
                                                      down vote













                                                      Recall that for $kinBbb N$ we have the generating function



                                                      $$sum_nge 0binomn+kkx^n=frac1(1-x)^k+1;.$$



                                                      The identity in the question can therefore be rewritten as



                                                      $$left(sum_nge 0binomn+kkx^nright)left(sum_nge 0x^nright)=sum_nge 0binomn+k+1k+1x^n;.$$



                                                      The coefficient of $x^n$ in the product on the left is



                                                      $$sum_i=0^nbinomi+kkcdot1=sum_i=0^nbinomi+kk;,$$



                                                      and the $n$-th term of the discrete convolution of the sequences $leftlanglebinomn+kk:ninBbb Nrightrangle$ and $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$. And at this point you’re practically done.






                                                      share|cite|improve this answer




















                                                      • Is there a typo in the second equation (first sum)? I believe $k$ should be indexed.
                                                        – AlanH
                                                        May 27 '13 at 6:20











                                                      • @Alan: No, the sum is over $n$; $k$ is fixed throughout.
                                                        – Brian M. Scott
                                                        May 27 '13 at 7:19










                                                      • In my text, I have an identity $sum_rgeq 0 binomr + nr x^r = 1/(1-x)^n+1$ This may be the cause of my confusion, but is this identity correct and is it equivalent to the one you used?
                                                        – AlanH
                                                        May 27 '13 at 8:22










                                                      • @Alan: Sure: your $r$ is my $n$, and your $n$ is my $k$.
                                                        – Brian M. Scott
                                                        May 27 '13 at 8:28






                                                      • 1




                                                        @Alan: $binomr+nr=binomr+nn$; now do the translation. (Sorry: I didn’t notice before that you’d used the symmetrically opposite binomial coefficient.)
                                                        – Brian M. Scott
                                                        May 27 '13 at 19:19












                                                      up vote
                                                      1
                                                      down vote










                                                      up vote
                                                      1
                                                      down vote









                                                      Recall that for $kinBbb N$ we have the generating function



                                                      $$sum_nge 0binomn+kkx^n=frac1(1-x)^k+1;.$$



                                                      The identity in the question can therefore be rewritten as



                                                      $$left(sum_nge 0binomn+kkx^nright)left(sum_nge 0x^nright)=sum_nge 0binomn+k+1k+1x^n;.$$



                                                      The coefficient of $x^n$ in the product on the left is



                                                      $$sum_i=0^nbinomi+kkcdot1=sum_i=0^nbinomi+kk;,$$



                                                      and the $n$-th term of the discrete convolution of the sequences $leftlanglebinomn+kk:ninBbb Nrightrangle$ and $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$. And at this point you’re practically done.






                                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                                      Recall that for $kinBbb N$ we have the generating function



                                                      $$sum_nge 0binomn+kkx^n=frac1(1-x)^k+1;.$$



                                                      The identity in the question can therefore be rewritten as



                                                      $$left(sum_nge 0binomn+kkx^nright)left(sum_nge 0x^nright)=sum_nge 0binomn+k+1k+1x^n;.$$



                                                      The coefficient of $x^n$ in the product on the left is



                                                      $$sum_i=0^nbinomi+kkcdot1=sum_i=0^nbinomi+kk;,$$



                                                      and the $n$-th term of the discrete convolution of the sequences $leftlanglebinomn+kk:ninBbb Nrightrangle$ and $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$. And at this point you’re practically done.







                                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                                      answered May 22 '13 at 5:32









                                                      Brian M. Scott

                                                      450k39497887




                                                      450k39497887











                                                      • Is there a typo in the second equation (first sum)? I believe $k$ should be indexed.
                                                        – AlanH
                                                        May 27 '13 at 6:20











                                                      • @Alan: No, the sum is over $n$; $k$ is fixed throughout.
                                                        – Brian M. Scott
                                                        May 27 '13 at 7:19










                                                      • In my text, I have an identity $sum_rgeq 0 binomr + nr x^r = 1/(1-x)^n+1$ This may be the cause of my confusion, but is this identity correct and is it equivalent to the one you used?
                                                        – AlanH
                                                        May 27 '13 at 8:22










                                                      • @Alan: Sure: your $r$ is my $n$, and your $n$ is my $k$.
                                                        – Brian M. Scott
                                                        May 27 '13 at 8:28






                                                      • 1




                                                        @Alan: $binomr+nr=binomr+nn$; now do the translation. (Sorry: I didn’t notice before that you’d used the symmetrically opposite binomial coefficient.)
                                                        – Brian M. Scott
                                                        May 27 '13 at 19:19
















                                                      • Is there a typo in the second equation (first sum)? I believe $k$ should be indexed.
                                                        – AlanH
                                                        May 27 '13 at 6:20











                                                      • @Alan: No, the sum is over $n$; $k$ is fixed throughout.
                                                        – Brian M. Scott
                                                        May 27 '13 at 7:19










                                                      • In my text, I have an identity $sum_rgeq 0 binomr + nr x^r = 1/(1-x)^n+1$ This may be the cause of my confusion, but is this identity correct and is it equivalent to the one you used?
                                                        – AlanH
                                                        May 27 '13 at 8:22










                                                      • @Alan: Sure: your $r$ is my $n$, and your $n$ is my $k$.
                                                        – Brian M. Scott
                                                        May 27 '13 at 8:28






                                                      • 1




                                                        @Alan: $binomr+nr=binomr+nn$; now do the translation. (Sorry: I didn’t notice before that you’d used the symmetrically opposite binomial coefficient.)
                                                        – Brian M. Scott
                                                        May 27 '13 at 19:19















                                                      Is there a typo in the second equation (first sum)? I believe $k$ should be indexed.
                                                      – AlanH
                                                      May 27 '13 at 6:20





                                                      Is there a typo in the second equation (first sum)? I believe $k$ should be indexed.
                                                      – AlanH
                                                      May 27 '13 at 6:20













                                                      @Alan: No, the sum is over $n$; $k$ is fixed throughout.
                                                      – Brian M. Scott
                                                      May 27 '13 at 7:19




                                                      @Alan: No, the sum is over $n$; $k$ is fixed throughout.
                                                      – Brian M. Scott
                                                      May 27 '13 at 7:19












                                                      In my text, I have an identity $sum_rgeq 0 binomr + nr x^r = 1/(1-x)^n+1$ This may be the cause of my confusion, but is this identity correct and is it equivalent to the one you used?
                                                      – AlanH
                                                      May 27 '13 at 8:22




                                                      In my text, I have an identity $sum_rgeq 0 binomr + nr x^r = 1/(1-x)^n+1$ This may be the cause of my confusion, but is this identity correct and is it equivalent to the one you used?
                                                      – AlanH
                                                      May 27 '13 at 8:22












                                                      @Alan: Sure: your $r$ is my $n$, and your $n$ is my $k$.
                                                      – Brian M. Scott
                                                      May 27 '13 at 8:28




                                                      @Alan: Sure: your $r$ is my $n$, and your $n$ is my $k$.
                                                      – Brian M. Scott
                                                      May 27 '13 at 8:28




                                                      1




                                                      1




                                                      @Alan: $binomr+nr=binomr+nn$; now do the translation. (Sorry: I didn’t notice before that you’d used the symmetrically opposite binomial coefficient.)
                                                      – Brian M. Scott
                                                      May 27 '13 at 19:19




                                                      @Alan: $binomr+nr=binomr+nn$; now do the translation. (Sorry: I didn’t notice before that you’d used the symmetrically opposite binomial coefficient.)
                                                      – Brian M. Scott
                                                      May 27 '13 at 19:19










                                                      up vote
                                                      1
                                                      down vote













                                                      A standard technique to prove such identities $sum_i=0^Mf(i)=F(M)$, involving on one hand a sum where only the upper bound $M$ is variable and on the other hand an explicit expression in terms of$~M$, is to use induction on$~M$. It amounts to showing that $f(M)=F(M)-F(M-1)$ (and that $F(0)=f(0)$). This is similar to using the fundamental theorem of calculus in showing that $int_0^x_0f(x)mathrm dx=F(x_0)$ by establishing $f(x)=F'(x)$ (and $F(0)=0$).



                                                      So here you need to check (apart from the obvious starting case $M=0$) that $binomM+kk=binomM+k+1k+1-binomM+kk+1$. This is just in instance of Pascal's recurrence for binomial coefficients.






                                                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                                                        up vote
                                                        1
                                                        down vote













                                                        A standard technique to prove such identities $sum_i=0^Mf(i)=F(M)$, involving on one hand a sum where only the upper bound $M$ is variable and on the other hand an explicit expression in terms of$~M$, is to use induction on$~M$. It amounts to showing that $f(M)=F(M)-F(M-1)$ (and that $F(0)=f(0)$). This is similar to using the fundamental theorem of calculus in showing that $int_0^x_0f(x)mathrm dx=F(x_0)$ by establishing $f(x)=F'(x)$ (and $F(0)=0$).



                                                        So here you need to check (apart from the obvious starting case $M=0$) that $binomM+kk=binomM+k+1k+1-binomM+kk+1$. This is just in instance of Pascal's recurrence for binomial coefficients.






                                                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                                                          up vote
                                                          1
                                                          down vote










                                                          up vote
                                                          1
                                                          down vote









                                                          A standard technique to prove such identities $sum_i=0^Mf(i)=F(M)$, involving on one hand a sum where only the upper bound $M$ is variable and on the other hand an explicit expression in terms of$~M$, is to use induction on$~M$. It amounts to showing that $f(M)=F(M)-F(M-1)$ (and that $F(0)=f(0)$). This is similar to using the fundamental theorem of calculus in showing that $int_0^x_0f(x)mathrm dx=F(x_0)$ by establishing $f(x)=F'(x)$ (and $F(0)=0$).



                                                          So here you need to check (apart from the obvious starting case $M=0$) that $binomM+kk=binomM+k+1k+1-binomM+kk+1$. This is just in instance of Pascal's recurrence for binomial coefficients.






                                                          share|cite|improve this answer














                                                          A standard technique to prove such identities $sum_i=0^Mf(i)=F(M)$, involving on one hand a sum where only the upper bound $M$ is variable and on the other hand an explicit expression in terms of$~M$, is to use induction on$~M$. It amounts to showing that $f(M)=F(M)-F(M-1)$ (and that $F(0)=f(0)$). This is similar to using the fundamental theorem of calculus in showing that $int_0^x_0f(x)mathrm dx=F(x_0)$ by establishing $f(x)=F'(x)$ (and $F(0)=0$).



                                                          So here you need to check (apart from the obvious starting case $M=0$) that $binomM+kk=binomM+k+1k+1-binomM+kk+1$. This is just in instance of Pascal's recurrence for binomial coefficients.







                                                          share|cite|improve this answer














                                                          share|cite|improve this answer



                                                          share|cite|improve this answer








                                                          edited Dec 23 '13 at 14:25

























                                                          answered Dec 23 '13 at 11:46









                                                          Marc van Leeuwen

                                                          85.3k5104214




                                                          85.3k5104214




















                                                              up vote
                                                              1
                                                              down vote













                                                              $newcommandangles[1]leftlangle,#1,rightrangle
                                                              newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
                                                              newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
                                                              newcommandddmathrmd
                                                              newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
                                                              newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
                                                              newcommandhalf1 over 2
                                                              newcommandicmathrmi
                                                              newcommandiffLeftrightarrow
                                                              newcommandimpLongrightarrow
                                                              newcommandol[1]overline#1
                                                              newcommandpars[1]left(,#1,right)
                                                              newcommandpartiald[3]fracpartial^#1 #2partial #3^#1
                                                              newcommandroot[2],sqrt[#1],#2,,
                                                              newcommandtotald[3]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
                                                              newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$
                                                              Assuming $dsM geq 0$:




                                                              beginequation
                                                              mboxNote thatquad
                                                              sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k = sum_m = k^M + km choose k =
                                                              a_M + k - a_k - 1quadmboxwherequad a_n equiv
                                                              sum_m = 0^nm choose ktag1
                                                              endequation







                                                              Then,
                                                              beginalign
                                                              color#f00a_n & equiv sum_m = 0^nm choose k =
                                                              sum_m = 0^n overbrace%
                                                              oint_vertsz = 1pars1 + z^m over z^k + 1,dd z over 2piic
                                                              ^dsm choose k =
                                                              oint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 1sum_m = 0^npars1 + z^m
                                                              ,dd z over 2piic
                                                              \[3mm] & =
                                                              oint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 1,
                                                              pars1 + z^n + 1 - 1 over pars1 + z - 1,dd z over 2piic =
                                                              underbraceoint_vertsz = 1pars1 + z^n + 1 over z^k + 2
                                                              ,dd z over 2piic_dsn + 1 choose k + 1 -
                                                              underbraceoint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 2,dd z over 2piic
                                                              _dsdelta_k + 2,1
                                                              \[8mm] imp color#f00a_n & = fbox$dsquad%
                                                              n + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1quad$
                                                              endalign


                                                              beginalign
                                                              mboxWith pars1,,quad
                                                              color#f00sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k & =
                                                              bracksM + k + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1 -
                                                              bracksk choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1
                                                              \[3mm] & =
                                                              M + k + 1 choose k + 1 - k choose k + 1
                                                              endalign
                                                              Thanks to $ds@robjohn$ user who pointed out the following feature:
                                                              $$
                                                              k choose k + 1 = -k + k + 1 - 1 choose k + 1pars-1^k + 1 =
                                                              -pars-1^k0 choose k + 1 = delta_k,-1
                                                              $$
                                                              such that
                                                              $$
                                                              beginarrayhlinembox\
                                                              dsquadcolor#f00sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k =
                                                              color#f00M + k + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1quad
                                                              \ mbox\ hline
                                                              endarray
                                                              $$




                                                              share|cite|improve this answer






















                                                              • Since $k=-1$ is covered in the first part, it should be noted that since $binom-10=1$, $$binomkk+1-delta_k,-1=0$$ therefore the final answer seems it should be $$binomM+k+1k+1-delta_k,-1$$
                                                                – robjohn♦
                                                                Jul 25 '16 at 13:00










                                                              • @robjohn Thanks. I'm checking everything right now.
                                                                – Felix Marin
                                                                Jul 25 '16 at 21:48










                                                              • @robjohn Thanks. Fixed.
                                                                – Felix Marin
                                                                Jul 25 '16 at 22:09














                                                              up vote
                                                              1
                                                              down vote













                                                              $newcommandangles[1]leftlangle,#1,rightrangle
                                                              newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
                                                              newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
                                                              newcommandddmathrmd
                                                              newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
                                                              newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
                                                              newcommandhalf1 over 2
                                                              newcommandicmathrmi
                                                              newcommandiffLeftrightarrow
                                                              newcommandimpLongrightarrow
                                                              newcommandol[1]overline#1
                                                              newcommandpars[1]left(,#1,right)
                                                              newcommandpartiald[3]fracpartial^#1 #2partial #3^#1
                                                              newcommandroot[2],sqrt[#1],#2,,
                                                              newcommandtotald[3]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
                                                              newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$
                                                              Assuming $dsM geq 0$:




                                                              beginequation
                                                              mboxNote thatquad
                                                              sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k = sum_m = k^M + km choose k =
                                                              a_M + k - a_k - 1quadmboxwherequad a_n equiv
                                                              sum_m = 0^nm choose ktag1
                                                              endequation







                                                              Then,
                                                              beginalign
                                                              color#f00a_n & equiv sum_m = 0^nm choose k =
                                                              sum_m = 0^n overbrace%
                                                              oint_vertsz = 1pars1 + z^m over z^k + 1,dd z over 2piic
                                                              ^dsm choose k =
                                                              oint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 1sum_m = 0^npars1 + z^m
                                                              ,dd z over 2piic
                                                              \[3mm] & =
                                                              oint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 1,
                                                              pars1 + z^n + 1 - 1 over pars1 + z - 1,dd z over 2piic =
                                                              underbraceoint_vertsz = 1pars1 + z^n + 1 over z^k + 2
                                                              ,dd z over 2piic_dsn + 1 choose k + 1 -
                                                              underbraceoint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 2,dd z over 2piic
                                                              _dsdelta_k + 2,1
                                                              \[8mm] imp color#f00a_n & = fbox$dsquad%
                                                              n + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1quad$
                                                              endalign


                                                              beginalign
                                                              mboxWith pars1,,quad
                                                              color#f00sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k & =
                                                              bracksM + k + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1 -
                                                              bracksk choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1
                                                              \[3mm] & =
                                                              M + k + 1 choose k + 1 - k choose k + 1
                                                              endalign
                                                              Thanks to $ds@robjohn$ user who pointed out the following feature:
                                                              $$
                                                              k choose k + 1 = -k + k + 1 - 1 choose k + 1pars-1^k + 1 =
                                                              -pars-1^k0 choose k + 1 = delta_k,-1
                                                              $$
                                                              such that
                                                              $$
                                                              beginarrayhlinembox\
                                                              dsquadcolor#f00sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k =
                                                              color#f00M + k + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1quad
                                                              \ mbox\ hline
                                                              endarray
                                                              $$




                                                              share|cite|improve this answer






















                                                              • Since $k=-1$ is covered in the first part, it should be noted that since $binom-10=1$, $$binomkk+1-delta_k,-1=0$$ therefore the final answer seems it should be $$binomM+k+1k+1-delta_k,-1$$
                                                                – robjohn♦
                                                                Jul 25 '16 at 13:00










                                                              • @robjohn Thanks. I'm checking everything right now.
                                                                – Felix Marin
                                                                Jul 25 '16 at 21:48










                                                              • @robjohn Thanks. Fixed.
                                                                – Felix Marin
                                                                Jul 25 '16 at 22:09












                                                              up vote
                                                              1
                                                              down vote










                                                              up vote
                                                              1
                                                              down vote









                                                              $newcommandangles[1]leftlangle,#1,rightrangle
                                                              newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
                                                              newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
                                                              newcommandddmathrmd
                                                              newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
                                                              newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
                                                              newcommandhalf1 over 2
                                                              newcommandicmathrmi
                                                              newcommandiffLeftrightarrow
                                                              newcommandimpLongrightarrow
                                                              newcommandol[1]overline#1
                                                              newcommandpars[1]left(,#1,right)
                                                              newcommandpartiald[3]fracpartial^#1 #2partial #3^#1
                                                              newcommandroot[2],sqrt[#1],#2,,
                                                              newcommandtotald[3]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
                                                              newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$
                                                              Assuming $dsM geq 0$:




                                                              beginequation
                                                              mboxNote thatquad
                                                              sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k = sum_m = k^M + km choose k =
                                                              a_M + k - a_k - 1quadmboxwherequad a_n equiv
                                                              sum_m = 0^nm choose ktag1
                                                              endequation







                                                              Then,
                                                              beginalign
                                                              color#f00a_n & equiv sum_m = 0^nm choose k =
                                                              sum_m = 0^n overbrace%
                                                              oint_vertsz = 1pars1 + z^m over z^k + 1,dd z over 2piic
                                                              ^dsm choose k =
                                                              oint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 1sum_m = 0^npars1 + z^m
                                                              ,dd z over 2piic
                                                              \[3mm] & =
                                                              oint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 1,
                                                              pars1 + z^n + 1 - 1 over pars1 + z - 1,dd z over 2piic =
                                                              underbraceoint_vertsz = 1pars1 + z^n + 1 over z^k + 2
                                                              ,dd z over 2piic_dsn + 1 choose k + 1 -
                                                              underbraceoint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 2,dd z over 2piic
                                                              _dsdelta_k + 2,1
                                                              \[8mm] imp color#f00a_n & = fbox$dsquad%
                                                              n + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1quad$
                                                              endalign


                                                              beginalign
                                                              mboxWith pars1,,quad
                                                              color#f00sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k & =
                                                              bracksM + k + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1 -
                                                              bracksk choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1
                                                              \[3mm] & =
                                                              M + k + 1 choose k + 1 - k choose k + 1
                                                              endalign
                                                              Thanks to $ds@robjohn$ user who pointed out the following feature:
                                                              $$
                                                              k choose k + 1 = -k + k + 1 - 1 choose k + 1pars-1^k + 1 =
                                                              -pars-1^k0 choose k + 1 = delta_k,-1
                                                              $$
                                                              such that
                                                              $$
                                                              beginarrayhlinembox\
                                                              dsquadcolor#f00sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k =
                                                              color#f00M + k + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1quad
                                                              \ mbox\ hline
                                                              endarray
                                                              $$




                                                              share|cite|improve this answer














                                                              $newcommandangles[1]leftlangle,#1,rightrangle
                                                              newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
                                                              newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
                                                              newcommandddmathrmd
                                                              newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
                                                              newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
                                                              newcommandhalf1 over 2
                                                              newcommandicmathrmi
                                                              newcommandiffLeftrightarrow
                                                              newcommandimpLongrightarrow
                                                              newcommandol[1]overline#1
                                                              newcommandpars[1]left(,#1,right)
                                                              newcommandpartiald[3]fracpartial^#1 #2partial #3^#1
                                                              newcommandroot[2],sqrt[#1],#2,,
                                                              newcommandtotald[3]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
                                                              newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$
                                                              Assuming $dsM geq 0$:




                                                              beginequation
                                                              mboxNote thatquad
                                                              sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k = sum_m = k^M + km choose k =
                                                              a_M + k - a_k - 1quadmboxwherequad a_n equiv
                                                              sum_m = 0^nm choose ktag1
                                                              endequation







                                                              Then,
                                                              beginalign
                                                              color#f00a_n & equiv sum_m = 0^nm choose k =
                                                              sum_m = 0^n overbrace%
                                                              oint_vertsz = 1pars1 + z^m over z^k + 1,dd z over 2piic
                                                              ^dsm choose k =
                                                              oint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 1sum_m = 0^npars1 + z^m
                                                              ,dd z over 2piic
                                                              \[3mm] & =
                                                              oint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 1,
                                                              pars1 + z^n + 1 - 1 over pars1 + z - 1,dd z over 2piic =
                                                              underbraceoint_vertsz = 1pars1 + z^n + 1 over z^k + 2
                                                              ,dd z over 2piic_dsn + 1 choose k + 1 -
                                                              underbraceoint_vertsz = 11 over z^k + 2,dd z over 2piic
                                                              _dsdelta_k + 2,1
                                                              \[8mm] imp color#f00a_n & = fbox$dsquad%
                                                              n + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1quad$
                                                              endalign


                                                              beginalign
                                                              mboxWith pars1,,quad
                                                              color#f00sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k & =
                                                              bracksM + k + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1 -
                                                              bracksk choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1
                                                              \[3mm] & =
                                                              M + k + 1 choose k + 1 - k choose k + 1
                                                              endalign
                                                              Thanks to $ds@robjohn$ user who pointed out the following feature:
                                                              $$
                                                              k choose k + 1 = -k + k + 1 - 1 choose k + 1pars-1^k + 1 =
                                                              -pars-1^k0 choose k + 1 = delta_k,-1
                                                              $$
                                                              such that
                                                              $$
                                                              beginarrayhlinembox\
                                                              dsquadcolor#f00sum_m = 0^Mm + k choose k =
                                                              color#f00M + k + 1 choose k + 1 - delta_k,-1quad
                                                              \ mbox\ hline
                                                              endarray
                                                              $$





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                                                              edited Jul 25 '16 at 22:09

























                                                              answered Jun 25 '16 at 4:10









                                                              Felix Marin

                                                              66.2k7106136




                                                              66.2k7106136











                                                              • Since $k=-1$ is covered in the first part, it should be noted that since $binom-10=1$, $$binomkk+1-delta_k,-1=0$$ therefore the final answer seems it should be $$binomM+k+1k+1-delta_k,-1$$
                                                                – robjohn♦
                                                                Jul 25 '16 at 13:00










                                                              • @robjohn Thanks. I'm checking everything right now.
                                                                – Felix Marin
                                                                Jul 25 '16 at 21:48










                                                              • @robjohn Thanks. Fixed.
                                                                – Felix Marin
                                                                Jul 25 '16 at 22:09
















                                                              • Since $k=-1$ is covered in the first part, it should be noted that since $binom-10=1$, $$binomkk+1-delta_k,-1=0$$ therefore the final answer seems it should be $$binomM+k+1k+1-delta_k,-1$$
                                                                – robjohn♦
                                                                Jul 25 '16 at 13:00










                                                              • @robjohn Thanks. I'm checking everything right now.
                                                                – Felix Marin
                                                                Jul 25 '16 at 21:48










                                                              • @robjohn Thanks. Fixed.
                                                                – Felix Marin
                                                                Jul 25 '16 at 22:09















                                                              Since $k=-1$ is covered in the first part, it should be noted that since $binom-10=1$, $$binomkk+1-delta_k,-1=0$$ therefore the final answer seems it should be $$binomM+k+1k+1-delta_k,-1$$
                                                              – robjohn♦
                                                              Jul 25 '16 at 13:00




                                                              Since $k=-1$ is covered in the first part, it should be noted that since $binom-10=1$, $$binomkk+1-delta_k,-1=0$$ therefore the final answer seems it should be $$binomM+k+1k+1-delta_k,-1$$
                                                              – robjohn♦
                                                              Jul 25 '16 at 13:00












                                                              @robjohn Thanks. I'm checking everything right now.
                                                              – Felix Marin
                                                              Jul 25 '16 at 21:48




                                                              @robjohn Thanks. I'm checking everything right now.
                                                              – Felix Marin
                                                              Jul 25 '16 at 21:48












                                                              @robjohn Thanks. Fixed.
                                                              – Felix Marin
                                                              Jul 25 '16 at 22:09




                                                              @robjohn Thanks. Fixed.
                                                              – Felix Marin
                                                              Jul 25 '16 at 22:09

















                                                               

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