What is a nice example for non-deformable sets in a topological space?

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Let $M$ be a separable topological space. A set $X subset M$ is said to be deformable in $M$ into $Y subset M$ if there is a continuous mapping $f_0$ from $X$ to $Y$ which is homotopic in $M$ to identity map of $X$ in $M$.



I am not able to think of any non-examples of deformable sets. Is $(0,1)$ deformable into 2 element set $0,1$ ?



What are some nice real world examples of non-deformable sets and deformable sets ? Are there any non-deformable subsets of $mathbbR$ ?







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  • Deformability depends on the ambient space so you must ask "Is $(0,1)$ deformable into $0,1$ in $X$ ?", where $X$ is some space that you find relevant
    – Max
    Aug 9 at 17:45











  • X is mathbbR with usual topology.
    – user579315
    Aug 9 at 20:58














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Let $M$ be a separable topological space. A set $X subset M$ is said to be deformable in $M$ into $Y subset M$ if there is a continuous mapping $f_0$ from $X$ to $Y$ which is homotopic in $M$ to identity map of $X$ in $M$.



I am not able to think of any non-examples of deformable sets. Is $(0,1)$ deformable into 2 element set $0,1$ ?



What are some nice real world examples of non-deformable sets and deformable sets ? Are there any non-deformable subsets of $mathbbR$ ?







share|cite|improve this question






















  • Deformability depends on the ambient space so you must ask "Is $(0,1)$ deformable into $0,1$ in $X$ ?", where $X$ is some space that you find relevant
    – Max
    Aug 9 at 17:45











  • X is mathbbR with usual topology.
    – user579315
    Aug 9 at 20:58












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Let $M$ be a separable topological space. A set $X subset M$ is said to be deformable in $M$ into $Y subset M$ if there is a continuous mapping $f_0$ from $X$ to $Y$ which is homotopic in $M$ to identity map of $X$ in $M$.



I am not able to think of any non-examples of deformable sets. Is $(0,1)$ deformable into 2 element set $0,1$ ?



What are some nice real world examples of non-deformable sets and deformable sets ? Are there any non-deformable subsets of $mathbbR$ ?







share|cite|improve this question














Let $M$ be a separable topological space. A set $X subset M$ is said to be deformable in $M$ into $Y subset M$ if there is a continuous mapping $f_0$ from $X$ to $Y$ which is homotopic in $M$ to identity map of $X$ in $M$.



I am not able to think of any non-examples of deformable sets. Is $(0,1)$ deformable into 2 element set $0,1$ ?



What are some nice real world examples of non-deformable sets and deformable sets ? Are there any non-deformable subsets of $mathbbR$ ?









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 11 at 4:51

























asked Aug 9 at 16:49









user579315

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  • Deformability depends on the ambient space so you must ask "Is $(0,1)$ deformable into $0,1$ in $X$ ?", where $X$ is some space that you find relevant
    – Max
    Aug 9 at 17:45











  • X is mathbbR with usual topology.
    – user579315
    Aug 9 at 20:58
















  • Deformability depends on the ambient space so you must ask "Is $(0,1)$ deformable into $0,1$ in $X$ ?", where $X$ is some space that you find relevant
    – Max
    Aug 9 at 17:45











  • X is mathbbR with usual topology.
    – user579315
    Aug 9 at 20:58















Deformability depends on the ambient space so you must ask "Is $(0,1)$ deformable into $0,1$ in $X$ ?", where $X$ is some space that you find relevant
– Max
Aug 9 at 17:45





Deformability depends on the ambient space so you must ask "Is $(0,1)$ deformable into $0,1$ in $X$ ?", where $X$ is some space that you find relevant
– Max
Aug 9 at 17:45













X is mathbbR with usual topology.
– user579315
Aug 9 at 20:58




X is mathbbR with usual topology.
– user579315
Aug 9 at 20:58










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Any subset $X subset mathbb R$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset mathbb R$, because you can take any $y in Y$ and then define the homotopy $h : X times [0,1] to mathbb R$ by
$$h(x,t) = (1-t)x + t y
$$
A similar idea shows that for any contractible space $M$, any subset $X subset M$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset M$.



On the other hand, consider $M = mathbbR - 0 = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, let $X subset M$, and suppose that $X$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$. In this situation $X$ is not deformable into $1$, and more generally $X$ is deformable into $Y subset mathbb R$ if and only if $Y$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$.



What I'm doing with these two examples is I am employing the homotopy invariants of algebraic topology to give me examples and counterexamples. So far, I've only used the set of path components, also known as $pi_0$.



Here is a $pi_1$ example. If $M = mathbb R^2 - 0$ and $X = S^1 subset M$, then $X$ is not deformable into any one point subset $Y subset M$, because if it were then the inclusion induced isomorphism $mathbb Z approx pi_1(S^1) approx pi_1(M) approx mathbb Z$ would factor through $pi_1(Y)=0$, which is clearly impossible.






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    Any subset $X subset mathbb R$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset mathbb R$, because you can take any $y in Y$ and then define the homotopy $h : X times [0,1] to mathbb R$ by
    $$h(x,t) = (1-t)x + t y
    $$
    A similar idea shows that for any contractible space $M$, any subset $X subset M$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset M$.



    On the other hand, consider $M = mathbbR - 0 = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, let $X subset M$, and suppose that $X$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$. In this situation $X$ is not deformable into $1$, and more generally $X$ is deformable into $Y subset mathbb R$ if and only if $Y$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$.



    What I'm doing with these two examples is I am employing the homotopy invariants of algebraic topology to give me examples and counterexamples. So far, I've only used the set of path components, also known as $pi_0$.



    Here is a $pi_1$ example. If $M = mathbb R^2 - 0$ and $X = S^1 subset M$, then $X$ is not deformable into any one point subset $Y subset M$, because if it were then the inclusion induced isomorphism $mathbb Z approx pi_1(S^1) approx pi_1(M) approx mathbb Z$ would factor through $pi_1(Y)=0$, which is clearly impossible.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Any subset $X subset mathbb R$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset mathbb R$, because you can take any $y in Y$ and then define the homotopy $h : X times [0,1] to mathbb R$ by
      $$h(x,t) = (1-t)x + t y
      $$
      A similar idea shows that for any contractible space $M$, any subset $X subset M$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset M$.



      On the other hand, consider $M = mathbbR - 0 = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, let $X subset M$, and suppose that $X$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$. In this situation $X$ is not deformable into $1$, and more generally $X$ is deformable into $Y subset mathbb R$ if and only if $Y$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$.



      What I'm doing with these two examples is I am employing the homotopy invariants of algebraic topology to give me examples and counterexamples. So far, I've only used the set of path components, also known as $pi_0$.



      Here is a $pi_1$ example. If $M = mathbb R^2 - 0$ and $X = S^1 subset M$, then $X$ is not deformable into any one point subset $Y subset M$, because if it were then the inclusion induced isomorphism $mathbb Z approx pi_1(S^1) approx pi_1(M) approx mathbb Z$ would factor through $pi_1(Y)=0$, which is clearly impossible.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        Any subset $X subset mathbb R$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset mathbb R$, because you can take any $y in Y$ and then define the homotopy $h : X times [0,1] to mathbb R$ by
        $$h(x,t) = (1-t)x + t y
        $$
        A similar idea shows that for any contractible space $M$, any subset $X subset M$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset M$.



        On the other hand, consider $M = mathbbR - 0 = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, let $X subset M$, and suppose that $X$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$. In this situation $X$ is not deformable into $1$, and more generally $X$ is deformable into $Y subset mathbb R$ if and only if $Y$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$.



        What I'm doing with these two examples is I am employing the homotopy invariants of algebraic topology to give me examples and counterexamples. So far, I've only used the set of path components, also known as $pi_0$.



        Here is a $pi_1$ example. If $M = mathbb R^2 - 0$ and $X = S^1 subset M$, then $X$ is not deformable into any one point subset $Y subset M$, because if it were then the inclusion induced isomorphism $mathbb Z approx pi_1(S^1) approx pi_1(M) approx mathbb Z$ would factor through $pi_1(Y)=0$, which is clearly impossible.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Any subset $X subset mathbb R$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset mathbb R$, because you can take any $y in Y$ and then define the homotopy $h : X times [0,1] to mathbb R$ by
        $$h(x,t) = (1-t)x + t y
        $$
        A similar idea shows that for any contractible space $M$, any subset $X subset M$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset M$.



        On the other hand, consider $M = mathbbR - 0 = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, let $X subset M$, and suppose that $X$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$. In this situation $X$ is not deformable into $1$, and more generally $X$ is deformable into $Y subset mathbb R$ if and only if $Y$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$.



        What I'm doing with these two examples is I am employing the homotopy invariants of algebraic topology to give me examples and counterexamples. So far, I've only used the set of path components, also known as $pi_0$.



        Here is a $pi_1$ example. If $M = mathbb R^2 - 0$ and $X = S^1 subset M$, then $X$ is not deformable into any one point subset $Y subset M$, because if it were then the inclusion induced isomorphism $mathbb Z approx pi_1(S^1) approx pi_1(M) approx mathbb Z$ would factor through $pi_1(Y)=0$, which is clearly impossible.







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        answered Aug 11 at 18:27









        Lee Mosher

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