Prove that $int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <infty$ $forall xin (0,1)$

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1
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I am trying to prove that



$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <infty$$ $forall xin (0,1)$



What I have tried is using taylor series of $$exp(x)=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^nn^!$$.



Since $exp(-xt^2)geq 1-xt^2$,



$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2)t^2=int_(0,infty)xdt=infty$$.........



I thought my approximation was too rough. So I also tried...



$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2+fracx^2t^42-fracx^3t^66)t^2=infty$$.....



Is there any good way to prove this?



Even Wolfram alpha cannot calculate any of this integral.. so I have really no idea.....







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  • 1




    You can get displayed equations by surrounding them with double instead of single dollar signs. That makes them a lot easier to read, especially when you have things like nested fractions.
    – joriki
    Aug 9 at 20:53






  • 1




    @joriki Thanks! That is helpful!
    – Lev Ban
    Aug 9 at 20:58






  • 1




    BTW the value is $sqrtpi x$.
    – Robert Israel
    Aug 9 at 21:10














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I am trying to prove that



$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <infty$$ $forall xin (0,1)$



What I have tried is using taylor series of $$exp(x)=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^nn^!$$.



Since $exp(-xt^2)geq 1-xt^2$,



$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2)t^2=int_(0,infty)xdt=infty$$.........



I thought my approximation was too rough. So I also tried...



$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2+fracx^2t^42-fracx^3t^66)t^2=infty$$.....



Is there any good way to prove this?



Even Wolfram alpha cannot calculate any of this integral.. so I have really no idea.....







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    You can get displayed equations by surrounding them with double instead of single dollar signs. That makes them a lot easier to read, especially when you have things like nested fractions.
    – joriki
    Aug 9 at 20:53






  • 1




    @joriki Thanks! That is helpful!
    – Lev Ban
    Aug 9 at 20:58






  • 1




    BTW the value is $sqrtpi x$.
    – Robert Israel
    Aug 9 at 21:10












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I am trying to prove that



$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <infty$$ $forall xin (0,1)$



What I have tried is using taylor series of $$exp(x)=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^nn^!$$.



Since $exp(-xt^2)geq 1-xt^2$,



$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2)t^2=int_(0,infty)xdt=infty$$.........



I thought my approximation was too rough. So I also tried...



$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2+fracx^2t^42-fracx^3t^66)t^2=infty$$.....



Is there any good way to prove this?



Even Wolfram alpha cannot calculate any of this integral.. so I have really no idea.....







share|cite|improve this question














I am trying to prove that



$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <infty$$ $forall xin (0,1)$



What I have tried is using taylor series of $$exp(x)=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^nn^!$$.



Since $exp(-xt^2)geq 1-xt^2$,



$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2)t^2=int_(0,infty)xdt=infty$$.........



I thought my approximation was too rough. So I also tried...



$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2+fracx^2t^42-fracx^3t^66)t^2=infty$$.....



Is there any good way to prove this?



Even Wolfram alpha cannot calculate any of this integral.. so I have really no idea.....









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 9 at 20:57

























asked Aug 9 at 20:46









Lev Ban

50516




50516







  • 1




    You can get displayed equations by surrounding them with double instead of single dollar signs. That makes them a lot easier to read, especially when you have things like nested fractions.
    – joriki
    Aug 9 at 20:53






  • 1




    @joriki Thanks! That is helpful!
    – Lev Ban
    Aug 9 at 20:58






  • 1




    BTW the value is $sqrtpi x$.
    – Robert Israel
    Aug 9 at 21:10












  • 1




    You can get displayed equations by surrounding them with double instead of single dollar signs. That makes them a lot easier to read, especially when you have things like nested fractions.
    – joriki
    Aug 9 at 20:53






  • 1




    @joriki Thanks! That is helpful!
    – Lev Ban
    Aug 9 at 20:58






  • 1




    BTW the value is $sqrtpi x$.
    – Robert Israel
    Aug 9 at 21:10







1




1




You can get displayed equations by surrounding them with double instead of single dollar signs. That makes them a lot easier to read, especially when you have things like nested fractions.
– joriki
Aug 9 at 20:53




You can get displayed equations by surrounding them with double instead of single dollar signs. That makes them a lot easier to read, especially when you have things like nested fractions.
– joriki
Aug 9 at 20:53




1




1




@joriki Thanks! That is helpful!
– Lev Ban
Aug 9 at 20:58




@joriki Thanks! That is helpful!
– Lev Ban
Aug 9 at 20:58




1




1




BTW the value is $sqrtpi x$.
– Robert Israel
Aug 9 at 21:10




BTW the value is $sqrtpi x$.
– Robert Israel
Aug 9 at 21:10










5 Answers
5






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
4
down vote



accepted










Hint: Break up the integral into two pieces, and bound each piece seperately:



beginalign*int_0^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt &= int_0^1dfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt
\
&le int_0^1dfracxt^2t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1t^2,dt
endalign*






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    up vote
    1
    down vote













    It's additionally true for $x geq 0$. To show this, split the region up into $(0,1)$ and $[1, infty)$. On $(0,1)$ the integrand is continuous save for a removable singularity at 0, at which its value is $x$. Additionally, it is decreasing in this range and non-negative, so $$int_0^1 frac1 - e^- xt^2t^2 , dt < x.$$



    On $[1, infty)$, the integrand is less than $frac1t^2$, and
    $$int_1^infty frac1t^2 = 1,$$
    giving that your integral is less than $x + 1$ and so clearly finite.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Use
      $$int_0^x e^-ut^2 du=dfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2$$
      then
      $$int_0^inftydfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2 dt=int_0^xint_0^infty e^-ut^2 dt du<infty$$






      share|cite|improve this answer






















      • This answer gives the precise value of the integral.
        – Nosrati
        Aug 9 at 21:23

















      up vote
      0
      down vote













      We have that



      $$int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt=int_0^1frac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt+int_1^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt $$



      and since as $xto infty$



      $$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 sim frac1t^2$$



      the second integral converges, and since as $x to 0^+$



      $$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 =xfrace^-xt^2-1-xt^2to x$$



      also the first integral converges.






      share|cite|improve this answer



























        up vote
        0
        down vote













        You could have computed the antiderivative using integration by parts
        $$I=intfrac1-e^-xt^2 t^2,dt$$
        $$u=1-e^-xt^2 implies du=2x t , e^-t^2 x,dt$$
        $$dv=fracdtt^2implies v=-frac1t$$ making
        $$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2 xint e^-xt^2,dt$$ For the second integral, let $$xt^2=y^2 implies t=fracysqrtximplies dt=fracdysqrtx$$ making
        $$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2sqrt xint e^-y^2,dy$$ Now, for the integration between $0$ and $infty$, the first term is $0$ if $x >0$ and the remaining integral is quite well known.



        This is less elegant than @user 108128's answer but it works.






        share|cite|improve this answer




















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          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes








          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted










          Hint: Break up the integral into two pieces, and bound each piece seperately:



          beginalign*int_0^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt &= int_0^1dfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt
          \
          &le int_0^1dfracxt^2t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1t^2,dt
          endalign*






          share|cite|improve this answer
























            up vote
            4
            down vote



            accepted










            Hint: Break up the integral into two pieces, and bound each piece seperately:



            beginalign*int_0^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt &= int_0^1dfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt
            \
            &le int_0^1dfracxt^2t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1t^2,dt
            endalign*






            share|cite|improve this answer






















              up vote
              4
              down vote



              accepted







              up vote
              4
              down vote



              accepted






              Hint: Break up the integral into two pieces, and bound each piece seperately:



              beginalign*int_0^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt &= int_0^1dfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt
              \
              &le int_0^1dfracxt^2t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1t^2,dt
              endalign*






              share|cite|improve this answer












              Hint: Break up the integral into two pieces, and bound each piece seperately:



              beginalign*int_0^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt &= int_0^1dfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt
              \
              &le int_0^1dfracxt^2t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1t^2,dt
              endalign*







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Aug 9 at 20:53









              JimmyK4542

              39.5k245105




              39.5k245105




















                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote













                  It's additionally true for $x geq 0$. To show this, split the region up into $(0,1)$ and $[1, infty)$. On $(0,1)$ the integrand is continuous save for a removable singularity at 0, at which its value is $x$. Additionally, it is decreasing in this range and non-negative, so $$int_0^1 frac1 - e^- xt^2t^2 , dt < x.$$



                  On $[1, infty)$, the integrand is less than $frac1t^2$, and
                  $$int_1^infty frac1t^2 = 1,$$
                  giving that your integral is less than $x + 1$ and so clearly finite.






                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote













                    It's additionally true for $x geq 0$. To show this, split the region up into $(0,1)$ and $[1, infty)$. On $(0,1)$ the integrand is continuous save for a removable singularity at 0, at which its value is $x$. Additionally, it is decreasing in this range and non-negative, so $$int_0^1 frac1 - e^- xt^2t^2 , dt < x.$$



                    On $[1, infty)$, the integrand is less than $frac1t^2$, and
                    $$int_1^infty frac1t^2 = 1,$$
                    giving that your integral is less than $x + 1$ and so clearly finite.






                    share|cite|improve this answer






















                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote










                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote









                      It's additionally true for $x geq 0$. To show this, split the region up into $(0,1)$ and $[1, infty)$. On $(0,1)$ the integrand is continuous save for a removable singularity at 0, at which its value is $x$. Additionally, it is decreasing in this range and non-negative, so $$int_0^1 frac1 - e^- xt^2t^2 , dt < x.$$



                      On $[1, infty)$, the integrand is less than $frac1t^2$, and
                      $$int_1^infty frac1t^2 = 1,$$
                      giving that your integral is less than $x + 1$ and so clearly finite.






                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      It's additionally true for $x geq 0$. To show this, split the region up into $(0,1)$ and $[1, infty)$. On $(0,1)$ the integrand is continuous save for a removable singularity at 0, at which its value is $x$. Additionally, it is decreasing in this range and non-negative, so $$int_0^1 frac1 - e^- xt^2t^2 , dt < x.$$



                      On $[1, infty)$, the integrand is less than $frac1t^2$, and
                      $$int_1^infty frac1t^2 = 1,$$
                      giving that your integral is less than $x + 1$ and so clearly finite.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Aug 9 at 20:55









                      B. Mehta

                      11.7k21944




                      11.7k21944




















                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote













                          Use
                          $$int_0^x e^-ut^2 du=dfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2$$
                          then
                          $$int_0^inftydfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2 dt=int_0^xint_0^infty e^-ut^2 dt du<infty$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer






















                          • This answer gives the precise value of the integral.
                            – Nosrati
                            Aug 9 at 21:23














                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote













                          Use
                          $$int_0^x e^-ut^2 du=dfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2$$
                          then
                          $$int_0^inftydfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2 dt=int_0^xint_0^infty e^-ut^2 dt du<infty$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer






















                          • This answer gives the precise value of the integral.
                            – Nosrati
                            Aug 9 at 21:23












                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote









                          Use
                          $$int_0^x e^-ut^2 du=dfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2$$
                          then
                          $$int_0^inftydfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2 dt=int_0^xint_0^infty e^-ut^2 dt du<infty$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          Use
                          $$int_0^x e^-ut^2 du=dfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2$$
                          then
                          $$int_0^inftydfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2 dt=int_0^xint_0^infty e^-ut^2 dt du<infty$$







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited Aug 9 at 21:07

























                          answered Aug 9 at 20:55









                          Nosrati

                          20.2k41644




                          20.2k41644











                          • This answer gives the precise value of the integral.
                            – Nosrati
                            Aug 9 at 21:23
















                          • This answer gives the precise value of the integral.
                            – Nosrati
                            Aug 9 at 21:23















                          This answer gives the precise value of the integral.
                          – Nosrati
                          Aug 9 at 21:23




                          This answer gives the precise value of the integral.
                          – Nosrati
                          Aug 9 at 21:23










                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote













                          We have that



                          $$int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt=int_0^1frac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt+int_1^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt $$



                          and since as $xto infty$



                          $$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 sim frac1t^2$$



                          the second integral converges, and since as $x to 0^+$



                          $$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 =xfrace^-xt^2-1-xt^2to x$$



                          also the first integral converges.






                          share|cite|improve this answer
























                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote













                            We have that



                            $$int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt=int_0^1frac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt+int_1^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt $$



                            and since as $xto infty$



                            $$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 sim frac1t^2$$



                            the second integral converges, and since as $x to 0^+$



                            $$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 =xfrace^-xt^2-1-xt^2to x$$



                            also the first integral converges.






                            share|cite|improve this answer






















                              up vote
                              0
                              down vote










                              up vote
                              0
                              down vote









                              We have that



                              $$int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt=int_0^1frac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt+int_1^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt $$



                              and since as $xto infty$



                              $$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 sim frac1t^2$$



                              the second integral converges, and since as $x to 0^+$



                              $$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 =xfrace^-xt^2-1-xt^2to x$$



                              also the first integral converges.






                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              We have that



                              $$int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt=int_0^1frac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt+int_1^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt $$



                              and since as $xto infty$



                              $$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 sim frac1t^2$$



                              the second integral converges, and since as $x to 0^+$



                              $$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 =xfrace^-xt^2-1-xt^2to x$$



                              also the first integral converges.







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Aug 9 at 20:58









                              gimusi

                              65.9k73684




                              65.9k73684




















                                  up vote
                                  0
                                  down vote













                                  You could have computed the antiderivative using integration by parts
                                  $$I=intfrac1-e^-xt^2 t^2,dt$$
                                  $$u=1-e^-xt^2 implies du=2x t , e^-t^2 x,dt$$
                                  $$dv=fracdtt^2implies v=-frac1t$$ making
                                  $$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2 xint e^-xt^2,dt$$ For the second integral, let $$xt^2=y^2 implies t=fracysqrtximplies dt=fracdysqrtx$$ making
                                  $$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2sqrt xint e^-y^2,dy$$ Now, for the integration between $0$ and $infty$, the first term is $0$ if $x >0$ and the remaining integral is quite well known.



                                  This is less elegant than @user 108128's answer but it works.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                                    up vote
                                    0
                                    down vote













                                    You could have computed the antiderivative using integration by parts
                                    $$I=intfrac1-e^-xt^2 t^2,dt$$
                                    $$u=1-e^-xt^2 implies du=2x t , e^-t^2 x,dt$$
                                    $$dv=fracdtt^2implies v=-frac1t$$ making
                                    $$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2 xint e^-xt^2,dt$$ For the second integral, let $$xt^2=y^2 implies t=fracysqrtximplies dt=fracdysqrtx$$ making
                                    $$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2sqrt xint e^-y^2,dy$$ Now, for the integration between $0$ and $infty$, the first term is $0$ if $x >0$ and the remaining integral is quite well known.



                                    This is less elegant than @user 108128's answer but it works.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer






















                                      up vote
                                      0
                                      down vote










                                      up vote
                                      0
                                      down vote









                                      You could have computed the antiderivative using integration by parts
                                      $$I=intfrac1-e^-xt^2 t^2,dt$$
                                      $$u=1-e^-xt^2 implies du=2x t , e^-t^2 x,dt$$
                                      $$dv=fracdtt^2implies v=-frac1t$$ making
                                      $$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2 xint e^-xt^2,dt$$ For the second integral, let $$xt^2=y^2 implies t=fracysqrtximplies dt=fracdysqrtx$$ making
                                      $$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2sqrt xint e^-y^2,dy$$ Now, for the integration between $0$ and $infty$, the first term is $0$ if $x >0$ and the remaining integral is quite well known.



                                      This is less elegant than @user 108128's answer but it works.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      You could have computed the antiderivative using integration by parts
                                      $$I=intfrac1-e^-xt^2 t^2,dt$$
                                      $$u=1-e^-xt^2 implies du=2x t , e^-t^2 x,dt$$
                                      $$dv=fracdtt^2implies v=-frac1t$$ making
                                      $$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2 xint e^-xt^2,dt$$ For the second integral, let $$xt^2=y^2 implies t=fracysqrtximplies dt=fracdysqrtx$$ making
                                      $$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2sqrt xint e^-y^2,dy$$ Now, for the integration between $0$ and $infty$, the first term is $0$ if $x >0$ and the remaining integral is quite well known.



                                      This is less elegant than @user 108128's answer but it works.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Aug 10 at 5:03









                                      Claude Leibovici

                                      112k1055126




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